CBSE Class 9 Syllabus – Revised Syllabus for 2020-2021 Maths, Science, SST, Hindi & English

CBSE Class 9 new syllabus of all subjects is available here. This syllabus is released by the board after removing certain topics/chapters in almost all subjects. Board has released this syllabus for the current academic session 2020-2021. Here, you download the subject-wise syllabus in PDF format.

CBSE has published the revised syllabus for all subjects of Class 9. The board has rationalised the syllabus of all subjects upto 30%.  Many topics have been deleted from the original syllabus of each subject to reduce it for the current academic session (2020-2021).

We are providing here the latest updated syllabus for CBSE Class 9. Here, you will get the CBSE Class 9th subject-wise syllabus to download in PDF. All the CBSE students who entered class 9th this year must go through this latest syllabus to understand the course structure for the upcoming part of the current academic session and do their studies in an organised manner. Students can also get here the NCERT Books and NCERT Solutions for all important subjects of class 9 that will help you in active learning while doing self-study at home.

CBSE Class 9 and Class 10 Syllabus PDF Download

Initial Pages

Curriculum Deduction Details (Deleted Portion)

Revised Main Subjects – (Group -A1)

Revised Other Academic Electives – Group A2

Revised Languages (Group – L)

Co-Scholastic Areas

Right now all schools across the country are closed to observe social distancing as a measure to prevent the spread of the COVID-19 pandemic. At this time, students are advised not to waste their time but start doing self-study with the help of this latest syllabus and NCERT Books available online. You can take the help of the NCERT Books and NCERT Solutions provided by NCERTBooks.Guru. Links to the books and solutions are given below:

CBSE syllabus and the NCERT books are the most essential tools for comprehensive learning throughout the year. While studying a chapter in the NCERT Book, students should first analyse the syllabus of that subject to know the topics which need to be covered in that particular chapter. This is the most effective way of proceeding in your studies as it helps you avoid any irrelevant topic thus saves your time and efforts.

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 8 Maths Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Maths Multiple Choice Questions for Class8 with Answers Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities. Maths MCQs for Class 8 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 8 Maths Comparing Quantities MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Comparing Quantities Class 8 Maths MCQs Pdf

1. The ratio of speed of cycle 12 km per hour to the speed of scooter 36 km per hour is
a) 1:2
b) 1:3
c) 1:4
d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Speed of cycle/Speed of scooter = 12/36 = ⅓


2. The ratio of 10m to 10 km is:
a) 1/10
b) 1/100
c) 1/1000
d) 1000

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: 10m/10km = 10m/10000m = 1/1000


3. The percentage of 3:4 is:
a) 75%
b) 50%
c) 25%
d) 100%

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: 3:4 = ¾

(3×100)/(4×100) = ¾ x 100% = 0.75 x 100% = 75%


4. The percentage of 2:5
a) 20%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 40%

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: 2:5 = ⅖ = ⅖ x 100% = 0.4 x 100% = 40%


5. If 50% of students are good at science out of 20 students. Then the number of students good at science is:
a) 10
b) 15
c) 5
d) 11

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: 50% of students out of 20 students = 50% of 20

= (50/100) x 20

= ½ x 20

= 10


6. The price of a motorcycle was Rs. 34,000 last year. It has increased by 20% this year. The price of motorcycle now is:
a) Rs. 36,000
b) Rs. 38,800
c) Rs. 40,800
d) Rs. 32,000

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: 20% of Rs.34,000 = 20/100 x 34,000 = Rs.6800

New price = Rs. 34,000+Rs.6800

= Rs. 40,800


7. An item marked at Rs. 840 is sold for Rs. 714. The discount % is:
a) 10%
b) 15%
c) 20%
d) 25%

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Discount = Marked Price – Sale Price

= 840 – 714

= Rs. 126

Discount % = (126/840) x 100% = 15%


8. A person got a 10% increase in his salary. If his salary was Rs. 50000, then the new salary is:
a) Rs. 55000
b) Rs. 60000
c) Rs. 45000
d) Rs. 65000

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Previous salary = Rs. 50000

10% of Rs.50000 = (10/100) x 50000 = Rs. 5000

New salary = Rs. 50000 + Rs. 5000

= Rs. 55000/-


9. The cost of the article was Rs. 15500 and Rs. 500 was spent on its repairing. If it is sold for a profit of 15%. The selling price of the article is:
a) Rs.16400
b) Rs.17400
c) Rs.18400
d) Rs.19400

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Total cost = 15500+500 = 16000

Profit % = (Profit/Cost price) x 100

Profit = (Profit% x Cost price)/100

P = (15×16000)/100 = 2400

Selling Price = Profit + cost price = 2400 + 16000 = Rs.18400


10. Waheeda bought an air cooler for Rs. 3300 including a tax of 10%. The price of the air cooler before VAT was added is:
a) Rs. 2000
b) Rs. 3000
c) Rs. 2500
d) Rs. 2800

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation:10% VAT on Rs.100 will make it Rs.110

So, for price including VAT Rs.110, the original price is Rs.100

Then, Price including VAT Rs. 3300, the original price = Rs. (100/110) x 3300 = Rs. 3000


We hope the given Maths MCQs for Class 8 with Answers Chapter 8 Comparing Quantities will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 8 Maths Comparing Quantities MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

Free PDF Download of CBSE Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements. Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Chemistry General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Class 12 Chemistry MCQs Pdf

1. Which of the following ore is best concentrated by froth floatation process?
(a) Magnetic
(b) Siderite
(c) Galena
(d) Malachite

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c) Galena is sulphide ore (PbS).


2. Extraction of gold and silver involves leaching with CN. Silver is later recovered by
(a) Distillation
(b) Zone refining
(c) Displacement by Zn
(d) Liquation

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) 2[Ag(CN)2] → [Zn(CN)4]2-+2Ag


3. Which one of the following ore is concentrated by chemical leaching method?
(a) Galena
(b) Copper pyrites
(c) Cinnabar
(d) Argentite

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(b) Ag2S + 4NaCN → 2Na[Ag(CN)2] = Na2S


4. According to Ellingham diagram, the oxidation reaction of carbon to carbon monoxide may be used to reduce which one of the following at lowest temperature?
(a) Al2O3
(b) Cu2O
(c) MgO
(d) ZnO

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 3
Cu2O can be easily reduced, is at top of diagrams.


5. The first step in extraction of copper from CuFeS2 is
(a) reduction by carbon
(b) electrolysis of ore
(c) roasting in O2
(d) magnetic separation

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) 2CuFeS2 + O2 → Cu2S + 2FeS + SO2


6. Roasted copper pyrites on smelting with sand produces
(a) FeSiO3 and Cu2S
(b) CaSiO2 and Cu2O
(c) Ca3(PO4)2 and Cu2S
(d) Fe3(PO4)2 and Cu2S

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) FeO + SiO2 → FeSiO3
2FeS + 3O2 → 2FeO + 2SO2


7. The composition of copper matte is
(a) Cu2S + FeS
(b) Cu2S + Cu2O
(c) Cu2S + FeO
(d) Cu2O + FeS

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Cu2S and FeS is called copper matte.


8. ∆G° vs T plot in the Ellingham’s diagram slopes downward for the reaction.

Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 1

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
(c) C + \(\frac{1}{2}\) O2 → CO slopes downward because ∆G° increases with increase in magnitude.


9. A number of elements are available in earth’s crust but most abundant elements are ___________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Al and Fe
(b) Al and Cu
(c) Fe and Cu
(d) Cu and Ag

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Fe and Al are most abundant elements in the earth crust.


10. Brine is electrolysed by using inert electrodes. The reaction at anode is ___________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) It has highest oxidation potential.


11. In the extraction of chlorine by electrolysis of brine ___________ . [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) oxidation of Cl ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(b) reduction of Cl ion to chlorine gas occurs.
(c) For overall reaction ∆G° has negative value.
(d) a displacement reaction takes place.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) 2Cl – 2e → Cl2 (oxidation)


12. Which of the following reactions is an example of auto reduction? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Fe3O4 + 4CO → 3Fe + 4CO2
(b) Cu2O + C → 2Cu + CO
(c) Cu2+ (aq) + Fe (s) → Cu (s) + Fe2+ (aq)
(d) Cu20 + \(\frac{1}{2}\)Cu2S → 3Cu + \(\frac{1}{2}\) SO2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination:
(d) Autoreduction because Cu2S acts as reducing agent.


13. The electrolytic reduction technique is used in the extraction of
(a) Highly electronegative elements.
(b) Highly electropostive elements.
(c) Metalloids.
(d) Transition metals.

Answer

Answer: b


14. In the commercial electrochemical process for aluminium extraction, electrolyte used is
(a) Al(OH)3 is NaOH solution.
(b) An aqueous solution of Al2 (SO4)3.
(c) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Na3AlF6.
(d) A molten mixture of Al2O3 and Al(OH)3.

Answer

Answer: c


15. Which ore can be best concentrated by froth floatation process?
(a) Malachite
(b) Cassiterite
(c) Galena
(d) Magnetite

Answer

Answer: c


16. Electrolytic reduction of Al2O3 to Al by Hall- Herault process is carried out
(a) in presence of NaCl.
(b) in presence of fluorite.
(c) in presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting point.
(d) in presence of cryolite which forms a melt with high melting point.

Answer

Answer: c


17. The chemical composition of ‘slag’ formed during the melting process in the extraction of copper is
(a) Cu2O + FeS
(b) FeSiO3
(c) CuFeS2
(d) Cu2S + FeO

Answer

Answer: b


18. Bessemer converter is used in the manufacture of
(a) Pig iron
(b) Steel
(c) Wrought iron
(d) Cast iron

Answer

Answer: b


19. The method of zone refining of metals is based on the principle of
(a) greater mobility of the pure metal than that of the impurity.
(b) higher melting point of the impurity than that of the pure metal.
(c) greater noble character of the solid metal than that of impurity.
(d) greater solubility of the impurity in the molten state than in the solid.

Answer

Answer: d


20. In the leaching of Ag2S with NaCN, a stream of air is also passed. It is because
(a) The reaction between Ag2S and NaCN is reversible.
(b) to oxidise Na2S formed in the reaction to Na2SO4.
(c) to oxidise Ag2S to Ag2O.
(d) Both (a) and (b).

Answer

Answer: d


21. Purest form of iron is
(a) Cast iron
(b) Hard Steel
(c) Stainless steel
(d) Wrought iron

Answer

Answer: d


22. Consider the following reaction at 1000° C
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements
Choose the correct statement at 1000°C
(a) Zinc can be oxidised by carbon monoxide.
(b) Zinc oxide can be reduced by graphite.
(c) Both statements (a) and (b) are correct.
(d) Both statements (a) and (b) are false.

Answer

Answer: b


Note: In the following questions two or more options may be correct. (Q.13 to Q.17)
23. At the temperature corresponding to which of the points in Fig. FeO will be reduced to Fe by coupling the reaction 2FeO → Fe + O2 with all of the following reactions? [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) C + O2 > CO2
(ii) 2C + O2 > 2CO and
(Hi) 2CO + O2 > 2 CO2
(a) Point A
(b) Point B
(c) Point C
(d) Point D

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) and (d). Below these points all can reduce FeO.
2FeO → 2Fe + CO2
FeO + CO → Fe + CO
FeO + CO → Fe + CO2


24. Which of the following options are correct? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Cast iron is obtained by remelting pig iron with scrap iron and coke using hot ‘ air blast.
(b) In extraction of silver, silver is extracted as cationic complex.
(c) Nickel is purified by zone refining.
(d) Zr and Ti are purified by van Arkel method.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (a) and (d) are correct.


25. In the extraction of aluminium by Hall-Heroult process, purified Al2O3 is mixed with CaF2 to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) lower the melting point of Al2O3.
(b) increase the conductivity of molten mixture.
(c) reduce Al3+ into Al(s).
(d) acts as catalyst.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (a) and (b) are correct.


26. Common impurities present in bauxite are [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) CuO
(b) ZnO
(c) Fe2O3
(d) SiO2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(c) and (d) Fe2O3 and SiO2 are impurities present.


27. Which of the following statements is correct about the role of substances added in the froth floation process? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Collectors enhance the non-wettability of the mineral particles.
(b) Collectors enhance the wettability of gangue particles.
(c) By using depressants in the process two sulphide ores can be separated.
(d) Froth stabilisers decrease wettability of gangue.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (a) and (c) are correct.


28. Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code

Column I Column II
(a) Pendulum (1) Chrome steel
(b) Malachite (2) Nickel steel
(c) Calamine (3) Na3AlF6
(d) Cryolitex (4) CuCO3.Cu (OH)2
(5) ZnCO3

Code:
(i) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)
(ii) A (2) B (4) C(5) D (3)
(iii) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)
(iv) A (4) B (5) C (3) D (2)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(ii) A (2) B (4) C (5) D (3)


29. Match the items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I Column II
(A) Coloured bands (1) Zone refining
(B) Impure metal to volatile complex (2) Fractional distillation
(C) Purification of Ge and Si (3) Mond Process
(D) Purification of mercury (4) Chromato­ graphy
(5) Liquation

Code:
(i) A (1) B (2) C (4) D (5)
(ii) A (4) B (3) C(l) D (2)
(iii) A (3) B(4) C (2) D (1)
(iv) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(ii) A (4) B(3) C (1) D (2)


30. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I Column II
(A) Cyanide process (1) Ultrapure Ge
(B) Froth Floatation Process (2) Dressing of ZnS
(C) Electrolytic reduction (3) Extraction of A1
(D) Zone (4) Extraction of Au
(5) Purification of Ni

Code:
(i) A (4) B (2) C (3) D (1)
(ii) A (2) B (3) C (1) D (5)
(iii) A (1) B (2) c (3) D (4)
(iv) A (3) B (4) C (5) D (1)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) A (4) B (2) C (3) D (1)


31. Match items of Column I with the items of Column II and assign the correct code:

Column I Column II
(A) Sapphire (1) Al2O3
(B) Sphalerite (2) NaCN
(C) Depressant (3) Co
(D) Corundum (4) ZnS
(5) Fe2O3

Code:
(i) A (3) B (4) C (2) D (1)
(ii) A (5) B (4) C (3) D (2)
(iii) A (2) B (3) C (4) D (5)
(iv) A (1) B (2) C (3) D (4)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
(i) A (3) B (4) C (2) D (1)


Note: In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices. (Q.22 and Q.23)
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false.
(d) Assertion is false but reason is true.
(e) Assertion and reason both are wrong.
32. Assertion: Hydrometallurgy involves dissolving the ore in a suitable reagent followed by precipitation by a more electropositive metal.
Reason: Copper is extracted by hydrometallurgy. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination:
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not the correct explanation of assertion.


33. Assertion: Gold and Platinum occur in native state.
Reason: Gold and platinum are least reactive metals. [NCERT Exemplar]

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the correct explanation of assertion.


34. Two reactions in which one has AG=+ve, other has AG = -ve but overall AG is -ve are called

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Coupled Reaction


35. PbS + O2 → ___________ + SO2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: PbO


36. FeS2 + O2 → ___________ + SO2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Fe2A3


37. Mg metal can reduce Al2O3 but the process will be uneconomical. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


38. The reduction of metal oxide easier if the metal formed is in liquid state at the temperature of reduction. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


39. CO2 gas convert Na[Al(OH)J to Al203.xH20. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


40. SiO2 reacts witl NaOH to form Na2SiO3. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True


41. Name the most abundant element on earth.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Oxygen.


42. Which impurities are present in ruby and saphire?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Cr is present in ruby and Co in sapphire.


43. What is the formula of calamine?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: ZnCO3.


44. What type of ores can be concentrated by magnetic separation method? [AI2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Those ores which are magnetic in nature, i.e. attracted by magnet, whereas impurities are non-magnetic in nature or vice versa are concentrated by magnetic separation method.


45. Name the method used for removing gangue from sulphide ore. [AI 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Froth floatation process.


46. Name the depressant which is used to separate ZnS and PbS ores in froth floatation process. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Sodium cyanide (NaCN).


47. Which reducing agent is employed to get copper from the leached low grade copper ore? [Delhi 2014; AI 2012,12(C); DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Iron
Fe(s) + Cu2+(aq) → Fe2+ + Cu(s)


48. What is the role of zinc metal in the extraction of silver? [AI 2015 Ajmer; AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Zinc acts as a reducing agent.


49. Write a chemical reaction involved in the process of calcination.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 4


50. Write a chemical reaction involved in the process of roasting.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 5


51. Give a chemical reaction involved in reduction with Coke (C)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: PbO + C(coke) → Pb + CO.


52. What is meant by the term ‘pyrometallurgy’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
The process of reducing a metal oxide with coke or any other reducing agent at high temperature is called pyrometallurgy. In other words, it is a thermal process of extracting a metal from its ore.


53. Write an application of ellingham diagram.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It helps in predicting the feasibility of thermal reduction of an ore.


54. Define wrought iron.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Wrought iron: It is the purest form of iron. It is also called malleable iron. It is prepared by oxidative refining of pig iron in reverberatory furnace lined with haematite which oxidises carbon to carbon monoxide.


55. Give the chemical reaction involved for extraction of zinc from zinc oxide.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 6


56. What is the role of CO2 in getting pure alumina (Al22O3) in the extraction of AI. [Delhi 2014(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
CO2 gas neutralises sodium aluminate and hydrated Al2O3 is precipitated.


57. State the principle of Liquation method of refining crude metals.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Liquation Method: Those metals which have impurities whose melting points are higher than metal can be purified by this method. Sn metal is purified by this method. Tin containing iron as impurity is heated on the top of sloping furnace. Tin melts and flows down the sloping surface, whereas iron is left behind and pure tin is obtained.


58. What type of metals are generally extracted by electrolytic method? [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Highly reacted metals are generally extracted by electrolytic method.


59. On what principle is the method of zone refining of metals based? [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
It is based on the principle that impurities are more soluble in melt than pure metal.


60. How is Germanium refined? [Foreign & Delhi 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: It is purified by zone refining.


61. Name the method of refining to obtain silicon of high purity. [AI 2015 Allahabad & Dehradun, Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Zone refining.


62. Name the method that is used for refining of nickel. [AI 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Mond’s process (vapour phase refining).


63. Define sintering.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Sintering is the process of crushing ore to suitable size before concentration of ore.


64. What is blister copper?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Blister copper: It is solidified copper extracted from cuprous oxide. It has blistered appearance due to the evolution of SO2.


65. Define smelting.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Smelting: It is a metal extraction process in which an ore (Cor Co) is heated at high temperature in an enclosed furnace. Reduction is takes place in this process.
Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements 7


We hope the given Chemistry MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 6 General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Chemistry General Principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions

Free PDF Download of CBSE Maths Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions. Maths MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Maths Relations and Functions MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Relations and Functions Class 12 Maths MCQs Pdf

1. Let R be a relation on the set L of lines defined by l1 R l2 if l1 is perpendicular to l2, then relation R is
(a) reflexive and symmetric
(b) symmetric and transitive
(c) equivalence relation
(d) symmetric

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explaination: (d), not reflexive, as l1 R l2
⇒ l1 ⊥ l1 Not true
Symmetric, true as l1 R l2 ⇒ l2R h
Transitive, false as l1 R l2, l2 R l3
⇒ l1 || l3 . l1 R l2.


2. Given triangles with sides T1 : 3, 4, 5; T2 : 5, 12, 13; T3 : 6, 8, 10; T4 : 4, 7, 9 and a relation R in set of triangles defined as R = {(Δ1, Δ2) : Δ1 is similar to Δ2}. Which triangles belong to the same equivalence class?
(a) T1 and T2
(b) T2 and T3
(c) T1 and T3
(d) T1 and T4

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c), T1 and T3 are similar as their sides are proportional.


3. Given set A ={1, 2, 3} and a relation R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)}, the relation R will be
(a) reflexive if (1, 1) is added
(b) symmetric if (2, 3) is added
(c) transitive if (1, 1) is added
(d) symmetric if (3, 2) is added

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c), here (1,2) e R, (2,1) € R, if transitive (1,1) should belong to R.


4. Given set A = {a, b, c). An identity relation in set A is
(a) R = {(a, b), (a, c)}
(b) R = {(a, a), (b, b), (c, c)}
(c) R = {(a, a), (b, b), (c, c), (a, c)}
(d) R= {(c, a), (b, a), (a, a)}

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explaination: (b), A relation R is an identity relation in set A if for all a ∈ A, (a, a) ∈ R.


5. A relation S in the set of real numbers is defined as xSy ⇒  x – y+ √3 is an irrational number, then relation S is
(a) reflexive
(b) reflexive and symmetric
(c) transitive
(d) symmetric and transitive

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 1


6. Set A has 3 elements and the set B has 4 elements. Then the number of injective functions that can be defined from set A to set B is
(a) 144
(b) 12
(c) 24
(d) 64

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination: (c), total injective mappings/functions
= 4 P3 = 4! = 24.


7. Given a function lf as f(x) = 5x + 4, x ∈ R. If g : R → R is inverse of function ‘f then
(a) g(x) = 4x + 5
(b) g(x) = \(\frac{5}{4 x-5}\)
(c) g(x) = \(\frac{x-4}{5}\)
(d) g(x) = 5x – 4

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 2


8. Let Z be the set of integers and R be a relation defined in Z such that aRb if (a – b) is divisible by 5. Then R partitions the set Z into ______ pairwise disjoint subsets.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Five, as remainder can be 0, 1, 2, 3, 4.


9. Consider set A = {1, 2, 3 } and the relation R= {(1, 2)}, then? is a transitive relation. State true or false.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: True, as there is no situation
(a, b) ∈ R, (b, c) ∈ R Hence, transitive. We can also say, a relation containing only one element is transitive.


10. Every relation which is symmetric and transitive is reflexive also. State true or false.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False,e.g.if R is arelationinset A = {2,3,4} defined as {(2, 3), (3, 2), (2, 2)} is symmetric and transitive but not reflexive.


11. Let R be a relation in set N, given by R = {(a, b): a = b – 2, b > 6} then (3, 8) ∈ R. State true or false with reason.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False, as in (3, 8), b = 8
⇒ a = 8 – 2
⇒ a = 6, but here a = 3.


12. Let R be a relation defined as R = {(x, x), (y, y), (z, z), (x, z)} in set A = {x, y, z} then R is (reflexive/symmetric) relation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Reflexive, as for all a ∈ A, (a, a) ∈ R.


13. Let R be a relation in the set of natural numbers N defined by R = {(a, b) ∈ N × N: a < b}. Is relation R reflexive? Give a reason.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Given R = {(a, b) ∈ N × N: a < b}.
Not reflexive, as for (a, a) × R
⇒ a< a, not true.


14. Let A be any non-empty set and P(A) be the power set of A. A relation R defined on P(A) by X R Y ⇔ X ∩ Y = X, X, Y ∈ P(A). Examine whether ? is symmetric.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: X R Y ⇔ X ∩ Y = X ⇒ Y ∩ X = X ⇒ Y R X.
Hence, symmetric.


15. State the reason for the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} not to be transitive. [NCERT; Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (1, 2) ∈ R, (2, 1) ∈ R, but (1, 1) ∉ R.


16. Show that the relation R in the set {1,2,3} given by R = {(1,1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3)} is reflexive but neither symmetric nor transitive. [NGERT]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Given R = {(1, 1), (2, 2), (3, 3), (1, 2), (2, 3)} defined on R: {1, 2, 3} → {1, 2, 3}
For reflexive: As (1, 1), (2,2), (3, 3) ∈ R. Hence, reflexive
For symmetric: (1, 2) ∈ R but (2, 1) ∉ R. Hence, not symmetric.
For transitive: (1, 2) ∈ R and (2, 3) ∈R but (1, 3) ∉ R. Hence, not transitive.


17. Let A = {3, 4, 5} and relation R on set A is defined as R = {(a, b) e A x A : a – b – 10). Is relation an empty relation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: We notice for no value of a, b s A, a-b = 10. Hence, (a, b) £ R for a, b e A. Hence, empty relation.


18. Given set A = {a, b} and relation R on A is defined as R = {(a, a), (b, b)}. Is relation an identity relation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Yes, as (a, a) ∈ R, for all a ∈ A..


19. Let set A represents the set of all the girls of a particular class. Relation R on A is defined as R = {(a, b) ∈ A × A : difference between weights of a and b is less than 30 kg}. Show that relation R is a universal relation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Let a, b ∈ A then a – b < 30 kg, always true for students of a particular class, i.e. aRb ∀ a, b ∈ A. Hence, universal relation.


20. If A = {1, 2, 3} and relation R = {(2, 3)} in A. Check whether relation R is reflexive, symmetric and transitive.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Not reflexive, as (1, 1) ∉ R.
Not symmetric, as (2, 3) ∈ R but (3,2) ∉ R.
Transitive, as relation R in a non empty set containing one element is transitive.


21. State the reason for the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} not to be transitive. [Delhi]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: As (1, 2) ∈ R, (2, 1) ∈ R, but (1, 1) ∉ R.


22. Consider the set A containing n elements, then the total number of injective functions from set A onto itself is _____ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: Total number of injective functions from set containing n elements to a set containing n elements is n Pn = n!


23. The domain of the function f : R → R defined by f(x) = \(\sqrt{4-x^{2}}\) is ______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
[-2, 2]. For domain 4 – x² ≥ 0
⇒ 4 ≥ x²
⇒ x² ≤ 4
⇒ x² ≤ (2)²
⇒ -2 ≤ x ≤ 2, i.e. [-2, 2].


24. Let A = {a, b }. Then number of one-one functions from A to A possible are
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 1
(d) 3

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (a), as if n(A) = m, then possible one-one functions from A to A are m!


25. Let A = {1, 2, 3, 4} and B = {a, b, c}. Then number of one-one functions from A to B are ______.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: 0, as n(A) > n(B)


26. If n(A) = p, then number of bijective functions from set A to A are ______ ..

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: p!, as for bijective functions from A to B, n(A) = n(B) and function is one-one onto.


27. The function f : R → R defined as f(x) = [x], where [x] is greatest integer ≤ x, is onto function. State true or false.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: False, as range of f is set of integers, i.e.
Z and range of f ⊆ co-domain R. Hence,not onto e.g. for \(\frac{1}{2}\) ∈ R (co-domain) there is no x ∈ R (domain) such that y = f(x) or \(\frac{1}{2}\) e∈ R has no pre-image.


28. If \(f(x)=\frac{x-1}{|x-1|}, x(\neq 1) \in R\) then range of ‘f’ is _______ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 3


29. If f : R → R be defined by f(x) = (3 – x3)1/3, then find fof(x). [NCERT]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 4


30. If f is an invertible function defined as f(x) = \(\frac{3x-4}{5}\), write f-1(x).

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 5


31. Let A = {1, 2, 3}, B = {4, 5, 6, 7} and let f = {(1, 4), (2, 5), (3, 6)} be a function from A to B. State whether f is one-one or not. [AI 2011] f

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: One-one, as for x1 ≠ x2
f(x1) ≠ f(x2).


32. Let f : R → R is defined by f (x) = | x |. Is function f onto? Give a reason. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: f is not onto, as for some y ∈ R from co-domain, there is no x ∈ R from domain such that y = f(x), e.g. for -2 ∈ R (co-domain) there is no x ∈ R (domain) such that f(x) = -2, i.e. |x| = -2. Hence, not onto.


33. If f : R → R and g : R → R are given by f (x) = sin x and g(x) = 5x², find gof(x).

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: gof(x) = g(f(x)) = g(sin x) = 5 sin² x.


34. Let f : {1, 3,4} → {1,2, 5} and g: {1,2, 5} → {1, 3} be given by f = {(1, 2), (3, 5), (4, 1)} and g = {(1, 3), (2, 3), (5, 1)}. Write down gof. [NCERT]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
gof: {1, 3, 4} → {1, 3}.
gof(1) = g(f(1)) = g(2) = 3.
gof(3) = g(K3)) = g(5) = 1
gof(4) = g(f(4)) = g(1) = 3
gof = {(1, 3), (3, 1), (4, 3)}.


35. Prove that f : R → R given by f(x) = x3 + 1 is one-one function.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Given f(x) = x3 + 1
For x1 ≠ x2
⇒ x13 ≠ x23
⇒ x13 + 1 ≠ x23 + 1
f(x1) ≠ f(x2). Hence, one-one


36. Show that the Signum Function f : R → R,
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 9
one-one nor onto.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 6
Range of function is {-1, 0, 1} and co-domain is set of real numbers R.
⇒ Range ⊆ co-domain.
There is at least one element in R(codomain) which is not image of any element of the domain, e.g. for 2 e R(co-domain), there is no x in domain such that f(x) = 2, x ∈ R.
Hence, function is not onto.
Also, let x1 = 2 and x2 = 3 then f(x1) = 1 and f(x2) = 1
i.e., x1 ≠ x2f(x1) = f(x2).
So, function is not one-one.


37. Given f(x) = sin x check if function f is one-one for (i) (0, π) (ii) (-\(\frac{π}{2}\), \(\frac{π}{2}\)).

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination:
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 7
Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions 8


38. If f : R → R is defined by f(x) = 3x + 2, define f (f(x)). [Foreign]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: f(f(x)) = f(3x + 2) = 3(3x + 2) + 2
= 9x+ 8.


39. Write fog, if f : R → R and g : R → R are given by f(x) = |x| and g(x) = |5x – 2|. [Foreign]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (fog)(x) =f(g(x))
=f(|5x-2|) = ||5x-2||.


40. Write fog, if f : R → R and g : R → R are given by f(x) = 8x3 and g(x) = x1/3. [Foreign]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explaination: (fog)(x) = f(g(x)) = f(x1/3) = 8(x1/3)3 = 8x.


We hope the given Maths MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Relations and Functions will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Maths Relations and Functions MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Tourism In India Essay | Essay on Tourism In India for Students and Children in English

Tourism In India Essay: India, as a country, offers Diversity in its Unity not only in the matter of tribes, communities and religions and ways of life but this diversity also presents itself in its prospects regarding tourism. No country may have so much to offer in the form of historical sites, geographical diversities, climatic differences and nature’s gifts as India has to offer.

Long and Short Essays on Tourism In India Kids and Students in English

Given below are two essays in English for students and children about the topic of ‘Tourism In India’ in both long and short form. The first essay is a long essay on the Tourism In India of 400-500 words. This long essay about Tourism In India is suitable for students of class 7, 8, 9 and 10, and also for competitive exam aspirants. The second essay is a short essay on Tourism In India of 150-200 words. These are suitable for students and children in class 6 and below.

Tourism In India Essay

Long Essay on Tourism In India 500 Words in English

Below we have given a long essay on Tourism In India of 500 words is helpful for classes 7, 8, 9 and 10 and Competitive Exam Aspirants. This long essay on the topic is suitable for students of class 7 to class 10, and also for competitive exam aspirants.

From the ice-skating and skiing in Gulmarg in Kashmir to the temperate climates of Central India, to the blistering heat of the South — from the palm tree covered the Western Ghats and the beaches of Goa to the luscious greenery of Kerala, Meghalaya, Arunachal-Pradesh and the beaches of Puri — geography has offered so much to give and enjoy the variety is so enchanting.

Then the religious shrives — Amarnath, Badrinath, Kedarnath, Gangotri, Yamunotri, Vaishno Devi, Haridwar, Rishikesh, Kashi, Mathura, Brindaban, Maha Kaleshwar in Ujjain; Tirupati, Rameshwaram, Kalibari and Kamaksha in Bengal and Assam, Dargah of Salim Chishti at Fatehpur Sikri and of Nizamuddin Aulia in Ajmer, the Golden Temple in Amritsar, Samath, Kushinagar, Gaya and Srivasti of Buddhist and newly build Lotus Temple of Bahais in Delhi — these are centres of all religions which call for a visit. The historical monuments — the Taj, Fatehpur Sikri, Sikandra at Agra the Red Fort, The Qutub Minar in Delhi, the Ranthambhor Fort, the Amer Fort, Chittor, and so many other monuments with which Rajasthan glorifies itself; go South and there is the Charminar and the Salarjung Museum in Hyderabad and the Deogiri Fort and the Daultabad Fort, the Frescos of Ajanta and the Temples of Ellora — how many views be counted. They are numerous, rather innumerable.

Essay on Tourism in India

There are centres for handicrafts from Kashmir to Kanya Kumari and from Gujarat to Orissa and Bengal — choicest products which give a call to be seen and bought.

A tourist coming to India from a foreign land if he wants to see India in all its aspects must spend a year or two to get just a glimpse of what India’s tourist attractions have to offer in all their variety.

India has a vast variety and great potential for tourist attraction. But, somehow, even when the country has to offer so much, it is regrettable that the tourism department still does not show up that income and that inflow of tourists as it should. For some countries, tourism is their main ‘export’. The single city of Bangkok attracts more tourists each year than the whole of India.

Short Essay on Tourism In India 200 Words in English

Below we have given a short essay on Tourism In India is for Classes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. This short essay on the topic is suitable for students of class 6 and below.

India has a Department of Tourism, there is the Institute of Tourism and Travel Management, the National Council for  Hotel Management and Catering Technology, and the India Tourism Development Corporation. But inspite of all this infrastructure to promote tourism, India gets only 0.4% of the global tourist traffic.

The reasons behind this are lack of interest of foreign tourists in India are indifferent travel facilities, pollution, ill-keeping of tourist spots, and not proper planning to guide tourists and give them the proper direction, occasional unrests and terrorism and crime also deter tourists.

Such a variety of culture, religion, ancient history, and such diversity in nature’s gifts — India should have been the biggest centre of tourist attraction which could have boosted up the nation’s economy.

But that is not happening and that is the most unfortunate part.

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10 Lines on Tourism in India

  • Tourism is one of the fastest-growing industries of the world.
  • It plays a vital role in the economic development of the country.
  • India has a wide array of places to see and things to do.
  • Enchanting backwaters, hill stations and landscapes all over the country attract tourists from all over.
  • There is so much of diversity that India offers — history, culture, religion, nature, climate, handicrafts no other country offers so much.
  • But the tourism industry is not flourishing as it should.
  • The main causes are indifferent travel facilities, pollution, ill-kept tourist centres, and no proper guidance and direction.
  • Instead of any rise in the tourist industry, it is a decline that has been recorded.
  • Occasional unrests, terrorism and crime also deter tourists.
  • It is really unfortunate that tourism, which could have been converted into a big income-earning industry stands neglected and is on a decline.

Impact of Tourism and its importance

FAQs on Tourism in India Essay

1. What do we mean by Tourism?

Tourism means people travelling for fun and it includes activities like camping and sightseeing.

2. Why do People go to tourism?

One of the reasons why people travel as tourists is so that they can get exposed to new places, people and experiences.

3. Why tourism is so important?

The tourism industry is important due to its role as a commercial activity and the demand and growth it creates for many more industries.

4. What is the positive effect of tourism?

The positive effect of tourism is that it can increase jobs, higher quality of life for locals and an increase in the wealth of an area.

Essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose | Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Essay for Students and Children in English

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose: Subhash Chandra Bose was fondly called ‘Netaji’. He was one of the most important freedom fighters of India. Even though Gandhiji and Nehru are given the credit for India’s Independence, the contribution of Subhash Chandra Bose can’t be undermined. ‘Patriot of Patriots’ as described by Gandhiji, Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose was born on 23rd January, 1897 at Cuttack, in Orissa. He was born to Janakinath and Prabhavati Bose and was the ninth child among the fourteen children. Rai Bahadur, Janakinath Bose was a public lawyer by profession. He was a public prosecutor in Cuttack and later became a member of the Bengal Legislative Council.

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Long and Short Essays on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose for Kids and Students in English

Given below are two essays in English for students and children about the topic of ‘Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose’ in both long and short form. The first essay is a long essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose of 400-500 words. This long essay about Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose is suitable for students of class 7, 8, 9 and 10, and also for competitive exam aspirants. The second essay is a short essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose of 150-200 words. These are suitable for students and children in class 6 and below.

Long Essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose 500 Words in English

Below we have given a long essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose of 500 words is helpful for classes 7, 8, 9 and 10 and Competitive Exam Aspirants. This long essay on the topic is suitable for students of class 7 to class 10, and also for competitive exam aspirants.

The family of Subhash Chandra Bose was a large one consisting of eight brothers and six sisters. During his school days, he was always serious, reserved and did not take much interest in sports. The sadhus and pilgrims visiting Puri, the famous shrine near his dwelling place, fascinated him. He was an intelligent kid and stood second in the school examination and took admission in Presidency College, Calcutta. In 1916, he beat an English professor because of his racist attitude towards Indians. As a result he was expelled from the college. But his father refused to admit him to another college. Over the course of time he got re-admitted in the same University in Philosophy. He passed with flying colours and achieved first class Honours in Philosophy.

Recognising his son’s intellect, his father was determined that Bose should become a member of high ranking Indian Civil Service (ICS). So, he sent him to England for further studies. In 1920, Bose passed the Civil Service and secured the fourth position. But, by this time the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre had taken place, which had disturbed him greatly.

Even though he passed the ICS, he was not interested in serving the colonial masters. By this time, Gandhiji had established himself as a leader of the masses. Like many others, Bose was also influenced by Gandhiji. So, he went to Gandhiji and offered himself to work for the Indian National Congress. Gandhiji was not able to turn down this humble request and sent him to Calcutta to work under Deshbandhu Chittaranjan Das. During the period 1921 -25, he was mainly involved in the activities around Calcutta and was arrested on numerous occasions. This led to his being imprisoned. Later, he was again imprisoned along with Deshbandhu and the two lived together in jail, where Bose served his leader humbly, even cooked his food. From this time, Bose considered Deshbandhu as his guru.

When Deshbandhu became the Mayor of Calcutta, Bose became his Chief Executive. While holding this office, Bose freely mixed with revolutionaries, which made the British Government arrest him and deport. Now he had ample time to think for his future course of action and he decided to go on the path of open revolution. In June 1925, Bose was deeply struck by the sudden loss of his leader Deshbandhu. But he continued to work. In 1928, during the Congress meeting the main agenda that was presented was to get a Dominion Status for India. This was prepared by Motilal Nehru. But the Youth leaders rejected this.

Bose and Jawaharlal Nehru wanted complete freedom for India at the earliest, whereas the Congress Committee wanted it in phases, through a Dominion Status. To avoid any problem, Gandhiji suggested to give the British Government a time period of 1 year to give Dominion Status to India, failing which he himself would present a bill of complete freedom.

Everybody accepted this. Gandhiji tried very hard to get the Dominion Status for India, but failed miserably. So, at the next meeting the Bill of Complete Freedom (Purna Swaraj) was passed. On 23rd March, 1932 Shaheed Bhagat Singh was hanged. Bhagat Singh’s martyrdom and the inability of the Congress leaders to save his life made Bose very angry and in a sense this made him realise that aggression was the best form of defence. Bose was arrested in 1931 for visiting the disturbed parts of Bengal. He was re-arrested on 2nd January, 1932 and subsequently exiled from India. In 1932, he went to Vienna and there he was deeply influenced by Vithaldas Patel, another Indian freedom fighter.

They recognised the need for collaboration between Indian nationalists and countries opposed to Britain and in their joint manifesto, they proclaimed, “Non-cooperation cannot be given up but the form of non-cooperation will have to be changed into a more militant one and the fight for freedom waged on all fronts.” In October 1933, Vithaldas Patel died.

After the death of Vithaldas Patel, Bose fought against the injustices. He organised students’ association. In November 1934, Bose published a book on Indian Nationalism called “The Indian Struggle”. During the period of 1932-36, he met reputed personalities like Mussolini in Italy, Felder in Germany, De Valera in Ireland and Roma Rolland in France. Some reports suggest that he also met Hitler, meeting which provided no support to Netaji. The Irish nationalist leader De Valera in Dublin impressed him. He was arrested and was later released on 17th March, 1937.

By that time, Subhash Chandra Bose had become very famous and Gandhiji proposed him to become the President of the Congress. In 1938, he became the President of the Indian National Congress and presided over the Haripur session, a post he held for 2 years. During the period, he was honoured at Shantiniketan by Gurudev Rabindranath Tagore as ‘Deshnayak’. At the end of this term, the elections for the Tripuri Congress session took place in 1939. He was re-elected defeating Dr Pattabhi, who was supported by Gandhiji. Bose resolved to give 6 months to the British to free India, otherwise there would be a rebellion. His opinion was opposed. So, he resigned and formed a group called Forward Block.

In 1939, when the World War II started, Gandhiji and other leaders were against doing anything anti-Britain. But Bose thought differently. He knew, for instance, that the fall of the Roman Empire had led to the freedom of its colonies. He decided to seek foreign help for his cause of freeing India. He was arrested and kept in his house under detention. On 17th January, 1941 while everyone was asleep, Bose slipped out of his house into a waiting car.

Disguised as a Muslim religious teacher, Bose managed to reach Peshawar 2 days later. Bose went to Italy, Germany and even Russia to seek help, but without much success. He decided to organise Indians on his own and he landed in Singapore and became the commander of the Indian National Army or the Azad Hind Fauj and declared himself the Prime Minister of India. The whole of India rejoiced, as he raised the popular slogan “Give me blood and I will give you freedom”.

Essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Short Essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose 200 Words in English

Below we have given a short essay on Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose is for Classes 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, and 6. This short essay on the topic is suitable for students of class 6 and below.

The INA marched to Andaman and Nicobar Islands, liberating and renaming them as Shaheed and Swaraj Islands. On 18th March, 1944, it crossed the Burmese border and reached Manipur where free India’s banner was raised with the shouts of Jai Hind’ and ‘Netaji Zindabad’.

But heavy rain prevented any further movement and the units had to fall back. Even then Netaji was determined. He wanted to go to Russia to seek Soviet help to fight the British. But the ill-fated plane, in which he was flying, crashed in Taipei on 18th August, 1945 resulting in his death. For this brave leader, Bhagvad Gita was a great source of inspiration. Swami Vivekananda’s teachings also had a deep impact on him since his heydays. He loved to read fresh interpretations of India’s ancient scriptures.

Bose strongly disliked ‘Nazis’ racist practices. However, when he failed to contact Russians for help, he knocked on the doors of Germans. His stand was that in order to free India, even if he had to befriend the devil, he would do that. Thus, he will always be remembered and revered as the great patriot who risked his life, career, name, fame and everything else for one sole cause in which he believed passionately-the freedom of his country.

On 23rd August, 2007, Japanese Prime Minister, Shinzo Abe visited the Subhash Chandra Bose Memorial Hall in Kolkata and said to Bose’s family that Japanese are moved by Bose’s strong will for independence from British rule, and that Netaji is a much respected name in Japan. Bose will continue to inspire posterity to lead the nation to greater heights and make it the India of his dreams. Concluding with the slogan that he gave

“Jai Hind.”

Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose Essay Word Meanings for Simple Understanding

  • Prosecutor – a person who prosecutes
  • Racist – a person who believes in racism, the doctrine that a certain human race is superior to any or all others
  • Humble – not proud or arrogant, modest
  • Ample – plentiful
  • Martyrdom – the conditions, sufferings, or death of a martyr
  • Aggression – the practice of making assaults or attacks
  • Expelled – to drive or force out or away
  • Detention – maintenance of a person in custody or confinement, especially while awaiting a court decision
  • Heyday – the stage or period of greatest vigor, strength, success etc; prime
  • Posterity – all descendents of one person