## MCQ Questions of all subjects for Class 12, 11, 10, 9, 8, 7, 6, 5, 4, 3, 2, and 1

Students who are looking for Multiple Choice Type Questions (MCQs) for all subjects can download from here. Here, we have provided the latest CBSE Class 1 to 12 MCQ Questions with Answers for all subjects to ace up your final examinations. Wishing to crack the MCQs sections in the board examinations, then you should practice & prepare all concepts thoroughly to attempt objective type questions which are asked in the board papers.

### MCQ Questions for Class 10 with Answers

Class 10 MCQ Questions Read online CBSE Class 10 MCQ Quiz Practice
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### MCQ Questions for Class 9 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 9 Social Science with Answers CBSE Class 9 Social Science MCQ Quiz Practice
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### MCQ Questions for Class 8 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 8 Social Science with Answers CBSE Class 8 Social Science MCQ Quiz Practice
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### MCQ Questions for Class 7 with Answers

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MCQ Questions for Class 7 Social Science with Answers CBSE Class 7 Social Science MCQ Quiz Practice
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### MCQ Questions for Class 6 with Answers

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### MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Chemistry with Answers

Biology MCQs For Class 10 Chapter Wise with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Physics with Answers

### MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science

MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science History with Answers : India and the Contemporary World – II

MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography with Answers : Contemporary India – II

MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) with Answers: Democratic Politics – II

MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics with Answers : Understanding Economic Development – II

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Get Chapter Wise MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers PDF Free Download prepared here according to the latest CBSE syllabus and NCERT curriculum. Students can practice CBSE Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to score good marks in the examination.

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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Accountancy with Answers: Part 1 Not-for-Profit Organisation and Partnership Accounts and Part 2 Company Accounts and Analysis of Financial Statements

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All Chapters MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers are prevailing here for free of cost. Recently, the central board of secondary education CBSE started conducting board exams in two terms. In the term 1 board paper, students of class 10 will have to answer all Multiple Choice Type Questions asked from all chapters of social science.

To perform well in the examinations, we have come up with these MCQs quiz practice test papers for class 10 Social science. All parts of social science like history, geography, civics, economics MCQs with answers are available here in pdf format. Download pdf formatted important chapterwise MCQs of Class 10 Social Science with solutions and take help for quick and effective preparations.

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers: History

Free PDF formatted MCQ Questions for CBSE Class 10 Social Science History with Answers: India and the Contemporary World – II

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers: Geography

NCERT CBSE Class 10 SS Geography MCQ Multiple Choice Questions with Answers: Contemporary India – II

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers: Civics

CBSE MCQ Questions for 10th Social Science Civics (Political Science) with Solutions: Democratic Politics – II

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers: Economics

MCQs for CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics with Answers: Understanding Economic Development – II

Ace up your preparation with the help of our provided study resource links of important MCQs for all four parts of CBSE Class 10 Social Science – History, Geography, Political Science, and Economics and NCERT Solutions for Class 10 Social Science. Simply go with these chapter-wise 10th class social science MCQs with answers and start preparing for the exam to score well.

Question 1.
What is a resource?
a) Extracts from nature
c) Extracts from environment—technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable
d) Any thing from which a product can be manufactured

Answer: (c) Extracts from environment—technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable

Question 2.
Under which of the following types of resources can tidal energy be put?
a) Replenishable
c) Abiotic
d) Non-recyclable

Question 3.
Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation are:
a) potential resources
b) individual resources
c) developed resources
d) stock

Question 4.
The resources of ownership are:
a) plantation
b) pasture land
c) ponds
d) All of these

Question 5.
On the basis of its origin, resources can be classified into:
a) renewable and non-renewable
b) continuous and biological
c) biotic and abiotic
d) recyclable and non-recyclable

Question 6.
Individual, community, national and international resources are classified on the basis of:
a) origin
b) exhaustibility
c) ownership
d) status of development

Question 7.
Which of the following is not classified on the basis of status of development?
a) Potential resources
b) Developed stock resource
c) Reserves resource
d) Renewable resource

Question 8.
The resources which are obtained from biosphere and have life are called:
a) Biotic
b) Abiotic
c) Parasitic
d) None of these

Question 9.
Which one of the following resources can be acquired by a nation?
a) Potential resources
b) International resources
c) National resources
d) Public resources

Question 10.
Which one of the following statements is correct as regard to international resources?
a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions.
b) Resources which lie beyond the territorial waters.
c) Resources which are found along the international frontier.
d) Resources which are not yet developed.

Answer: (a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions.

Question 11.
Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised are:
a) renewable
b) developed
c) national
d) potential

Question 12.
Which one df the following statements is true about the term resources?
a) Resources are free gifts of nature.
b) They are the functions of human activities.
c) All those things which are found in nature.
d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.

Answer: (b) They are the functions of human activities.

Question 13.
Plots, houses and other property come under:
a) individual resources
b) community owned resources
c) national resources
d) abiotic resources

Question 14.
Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called:
a) Renewable resources
b) Reserve
c) Community resources
d) Non-renewable resources

Question 15.
The availability of resources is a necessary condition for the development of:
a) any country
b) any state
c) any region
d) None of these

Question 16.
Resources are a function of:
a) national activities
b) human activities
c) Both a. and b.
d) None of these

Question 17.
Biotic resources are obtained from:
a) biosphere and include living organisms
b) biosphere and include non-living components
c) the earth
d) None of the above

Answer: (b) biosphere and include non-living components

Question 18.
Rocks and metals are examples of:
a) biotic resources
b) abiotic resources
c) natural resources
d) All of the above

Question 19.
Plantation, pasture lands, ponds, water in wells, etc. are some examples of:
a) resources owned by government
b) resources owned by private
c) resources owned by individual
d) None of the above

Answer: (c) resources owned by individual

Question 20.
Resources which are accessible to all the members of the community are called:
a) Private owned resources
b) Public owned resources
c) Community owned resources
d) Individual owned resources

Question 21.
Resources belonging to the nation are called:
a) State resources
b) Country resources
c) National resources
d) Individual resources

Question 22.
……… resources are flow resources having a continuous stock and are being used since time immemorial.
a) Biotic
b) Abiotic
c) Renewable
d) National

Question 23.
Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the ; appropriate technology to access them are called:
a) Resources
b) Stock
c.) Reserves
d) All of these

Question 24.
Resource which can be renewed again are:
a) national resource
b) potential resource
c) renewable resources
d) stock

Question 25.
Which one of the following is an example of biotic resource?
a) Rock
b) Mountain
c) Mineral
d) Flora

Question 26.
They are gifts of nature which satisfy human wants.
a) A commodity
b) A thing
c) Resources
d) None of them

Question 27.
Which one of the following is an example of non-renewable resources?
a) Solar energy
b) Tidal energy
c) Petroleum
d) Hydel energy

Question 28.
On the basis of ownership, resources can be classified into:
a) Two types
b) Three types
c) Four types
d) None of them

Question 29.
Everything available in our environment which can be used j to satisfy our needs, provided, it is technologically accessible, economically feasible and culturally acceptable can be termed as……….. .
a) development
b) resource
c) planning
d) product

Question 30.
How can the resources be classified on the basis of their, exhaustibility?
a) Biotic and abiotic
b) Renewable and non-renewable
c) Individual and community
d) Potential and reserves

Question 31.
How can the resources be classified on the basis of their ownership?
a) Biotic and abiotic
b) Renewable and non-renewable
c) Individual, community, national and international
d) Potential and reserves

Answer: (c) Individual, community, national and international

Question 32.
How can the resources be classified on the basis of their status of development?
a) Biotic and abiotic
b) Renewable and non-renewable
c) Individual and community
d) Potential, developed, stocks and reserves

Answer: (d) Potential, developed, stocks and reserves

Question 33.
These resources are obtained from biosphere and have life ! such as human beings, flora and fauna.
a) Biotic
b) Abiotic
c) Renewable
d) International

Question 34.
All those things which are composed of non-living things are called
a) Biotic
b) Abiotic
c) Renewable
d) International

Question 35.
Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore?
a) Renewable
b) Biotic
c) Flow
d) Non-renewable

Question 36.
How are resources classified?
a) On the basis of origin
b) On the basis of utility
c) On the basis of distribution
d) On the basis of potential

Answer: (a) On the basis of origin

Question 37.
Where are biotic resources obtained from?
a) Biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock.
b) Composed of non-living things,
c) Reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes.
d) Minerals and fossil fuels.

Answer: (a) Biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock.

Question 38.
Where are abiotic resources obtained from?
a) Minerals and fossil fuels.
b) Reproduced by physical, hemical or mechanical processes.
c) Composed of non-living things.
d) Biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock.

Answer: (c) Composed of non-living things.

Question 39.
What are renewable resources?
a) These are obtained from biosphere and have life.
b) Composed of non-living things.
c) Which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes.
d) From biosphere and have life such as human beings, flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock.

Answer: (c) Which can be renewed or reproduced by physical, chemical or mechanical processes.

Question 40.
Which of the following are examples of renewable resources?
a) Minerals and fossil fuels
b) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife
c) Rocks and metals
d) Flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock

Answer: (b) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife

Question 41.
Which of the following are examples of non-renewable resources?
a) Flora and fauna, fisheries, livestock
b) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife
c) Minerals and fossil fuels
d) Rocks and metals

Answer: (c) Minerals and fossil fuels

Question 42.
Which of these are resources based on ownership?
a) Individual resources
b) Abiotic
c) Renewable resources
d) Non-renewable

Question 43.
Which of the following are examples of community owned resources?
a) Public parks, playgrounds, grazing grounds, burial grounds
b) Plots, houses
c) Energy, water, forests
d) Flora and fauna, fisheries

Answer: (a) Public parks, playgrounds, grazing grounds, burial grounds

Question 44.
Which of the following are examples of national resources?
a) plots, houses
b) public parks, playgrounds, grazing grounds, burial grounds
c) oceanic resources
d) minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land

Answer: (d) minerals, water resources, forests, wildlife, land

Question 45.
What are potential resources?
a) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
b) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised,
c) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation.
d) Those things which are composed of non-living things.

Answer: (b) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised.

Question 46.
What are developed resources?
a) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation.
b) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
c) Those things which are composed of non-living things.
d) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised.

Answer: (a) Resources which are surveyed and their quality and quantity have been determined for utilisation.

Question 47.
What is stock?
a) Resources which can be renewed or reproduced.
b) Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised.
c) Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these.
d) Solar and wind energy, water, forests and wildlife.

Answer: (c) Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have the appropriate technology to access these.

Question 48.
The Rio Convention endorsed the Global Forest Principles and adopted which of the following for achieving sustainable development in the 21st century?
a) Agenda 21
b) Agenda 22
c) Agenda 20
d) Agenda 25

Question 49.
The first International Earth Summit adopted Agenda 21 to:
a) achieve sustainable development
b) conserve resources
c) support human activities
d) meet future requirements

Question 50.
The subset of the stock which can be put into use with the help of existing technology but has not been started is called:
a) Stock
b) Resources
c) Reserves
d) None of these

Question 51.
The first International Earth Summit was held in Rio-de- Janerio in Brazil in:
a) August, 1991
b) August, 1992
c) June, 1991
d) June, 1992

Question 52.
In which year was the Earth Summit held?
a) 1990
b) 1991
c) 1992
d) 1993

Question 53.
Coal, iron ore, petroleum, diesel, etc. are the examples of:
a) Biotic resources
b) Abiotic resources
c) Renewable resources
d) Non-renewable resources

Question 54.
Where was the first international Earth Summit held?
a) Rio-de-Janeiro
b) Geneva
c) Switzerland
d) Philippines

Question 55.
What is sustainable development?
a) Well planned use of resources and development.
b) Accumulation of resources and then using them accordingly.
c) Development should take place without damaging the environment keeping in mind the future generations.
d) Using materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human need.

Answer: (c) Development should take place without damaging the environment keeping in mind the future generations.

Question 56.
Why do we need resource planning?
a) Because of enormous diversity in the availability of resources.
b) Because we need to think of future generations.
c) We need to consider materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs.
d) The need to collect materials and resources and then using them accordingly.

Answer: (a) Because of enormous diversity in the availability of resources.

Question 57.
Resource planning is essentialfor existence of all forms of life.
a) ecological balance
b) sustainable
c) exploitation
d) None of these

Question 58.
What does resource planning in India involve?
a) Defining the number of resources.
b) Surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
c) Taking government permission.
d) Matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans.

Answer: (b) Surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.

Question 59.
Which of the following is essential for sustainable existence of all forms of life?
a) Resource planning
b) Resource management
c) Resource extraction
d) Resource generation

Question 60.
India has made concerted efforts for achieving the goals of resource planning right from the:
a) First Five Year Plan
b) Second Five Year Plan
c) Third Five Year Plan
d) Fourth Five Year Plan

Answer: (a) First Five Year Plan

Question 61.
………….. interact with nature through ………….. and create institutions to accelerate the economic development.
a) Technology, institutions
b) Teachnology, human beings
c) Human beings, institutions
d) Resources, techology

Question 62.
The process of transformation of things available in our environment involves an interactive relationship between:
a) nature and technology
b) nature, technology and institutions
c) environment and nature
d) environment and technology

Answer: (b) nature, technology and institutions

Question 63.
How do human beings interact with nature?
a) Through technology
b) Through nurturing environmental resources
c) Through industry

Question 64.
Are resources free gifts of nature? And how?
a) Yes, they are.
b) They are not, resources are a function of human activities.
c) Yes, resources are nurtured by nature.
d) No, any thing from which a product can be manufactured.

Answer: (b) They are not, resources are a function of human activities.

Question 65.
Which one of the following statements refers to the sustainable development?
a) Overall development of various resources.
b) Development should take place without damaging the environment.
c) Economic development of people.
d) Development that meets the desires of the members of all communities.

Answer: (b) Development should take place without damaging the environment.

Question 66.
Water in the dams, forest, etc. is a resources which can be used in the future.
a) potential
b) reserve
c) renewable
d) national

Question 67.
Which state among the North-Eastern states has been fully surveyed for its land use?
b) Manipur
c) Tripura
d) Assam

Question 68.
The ocean resources beyond 200 nautical miles is classified under which zone?
a) Exclusive economic zone
b) Export-processing zone
c) Special economic zone
d) None of the above

Question 69.
Geothermal energy in Puga Valley and Parvati Valley are:
a) stock resources
b) developed resources
c) reserve resources
d) potential resources

Question 70.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence (land degradation by %):
(ii) Water eroded area
(iii) Wind eroded area
(iv) Saline and alkaline deposits
a) (0), (iii), (iv), (ii)
b) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)
c) (i), (ii), (iv), (iii)
d) (ii), (iii), (iv), (i)

Answer: (b) (ii), (i), (iii), (iv)

Question 71.
Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab?
a) Intensive cultivation
b) Deforestation
c) Over irrigation
d) Overgrazing

Question 72.
The village of Sukhomajri and the district of Jhabua have shown that it is possible:
b) To reverse economic prosperity
c) To reserve water
d) All of the above

Question 73.
In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Odisha
c) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh
d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 74.
Which relief features of India has 30 per cent of the total surface area of country?
a) Mountain
b) Plateaus
c) Plains
d) River

Question 75.
What is the main factor that determines creation of a resource?
a) Nature and technology
b) Nature and human beings
c) Nature, human beings and technology
d) Technology and human beings

Answer: (c) Nature, human beings and technology

Question 76.
Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as:
a) Fallow land
b) Gross corpped area
c) Dropped area
d) Grazing land

Question 77.
The land which is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is called
a) grazing land
b) fallow land
c) culturable wasteland
d) barren and wasteland

Question 78.
How much is the total geographical area of India?
a) 3.28 million sq km
b) 4.28 million sq km
c) 2.28 million sq km
d) 5.28 million sq km

Answer: (a) 3.28 million sq km

Question 79.
a) Mining
b) Overgrazing
c) Deforestation
d) Over irrigation

Question 80.
Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called:
a) Culturable waste land
b) Current fallow land
c) Waste land
d) None of these

Question 81.
“There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
c) M. K. Gandhi
d) Sunderlal Bahuguna

Question 82.
The most widespread relief feature of India is:
a) Mountains
b) Forests
c) Plains
d) Plateaus

Question 83.
What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the National Forest Policy (1952)?
a) 33
b) 22.5
c) 31
d) 30

Question 84.
India’s territorial water extends upto a distance of:
a) 12 km
b) 12 nautical miles
c) 19.2 miles
d) 200 nautical miles

Question 85.
Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is called:
a) Pasture land
b) Culturable wasteland
c) Barren land
d) Current fallow

Question 86.
The Land use data is available for of the total geographical area.
a) 91%
b) 92%
c) 93%
d) 94%

Question 87.
In which of the following states mining has caused severe land degradation?
a) Gujarat
b) Jharkhand
c) Kerala
d) Uttarakhand

Question 88.
The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
a) mining
b) over irrigation
c) deforestation
d) overgrazing

Question 89.
What % of Indian land areas is plain area?
a) 40%
b) 41%
c) 42%
d) 43%

Question 90.
What % of Indian land area is mountain area?
a) 10%
b) 20%
c) 30%
d) 40%

Question 91.
What % of gepgraphical area is desired forest area?
a) 23%
b) 33%
c) 43%
d) 53%

Question 92.
How many million hectares of Indian land is degraded land?
a) 110 million hectares
b) 120 million hectares
c) 130 million hectares
d) 140 million hectares

Question 93.
Which of the following is the main reasons for land degradation in the states of Gujarat, Rajasthan, M.P. and Maharashtra?
a) deforestation
b) floods
c) overgrazing
d) All of these

Question 94.
Many farmers own land which is allotted to them by government:
a) against the payment by cash
b) against property in towns
c) against the payment of revenue
d) None of the above

Answer: (c) against the payment of revenue

Question 95.
Arunachal Pradesh has abundant water resources but lacks:
a) in mineral resources
b) in infrastructural development
c) in technology
d) None of the above

Question 96.
Land degradation due to over irrigation can be seen in the states of:
a) Punjab and Haryana
b) Assam
c) Odisha
d) Mizoram

Question 97.
How many economic zones are there in India?
a) Five
b) One
c) Two
d) Ten

Question 98.
Which one of the following in the main cause of land and water pollution in India in recent years?
a) Industrial effluents
b) Chemical fertiliser
c) Deforestation
d) None of them

Question 99.
How much degraded land in India is water eroded?
a) 28%
b) 56%
c) 75%
d) 10%

Question 100.
Which type of Land is not used for cultivation?
b) Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g. buildings, roads, factories, etc.
c) All types of land
d) Black soil land

Answer: (b) Land put to non-agricultural uses, e.g. buildings, roads, factories, etc.

Question 101.
What are fallow lands?
a) Current fallow, i.e. left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year
b) wastelands
c) Land put to non-agricultural uses
d) Land under miscellaneous tree crops groves

Answer: (a) Current fallow, i.e. left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year

Question 102.
Waste land includes
a) land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year.
b) land put to non-agricultural uses.
c) rocky, arid and desert areas.
d) land left uncultivated for the past 1 to 5 agricultural years.

Answer: (c) rocky, arid and desert areas.

Question 103.
percent of our basic needs for food, shelter and clothing are obtained from land.
a) 70
b) 80
c) 90
d) 95

Question 104.
Which human activities have led to land degradation?
a) Deforestation, overgrazing
b) Agriculture
d) Factories and industry

Question 105.
How can we solve the problems of land degradation?
a) Afforestation
b) Sowing more agriculture crops
c) Try to grow plants in desert areas
d) Keep injury away from agricultural land

Question 106.
Which of the following book includes ‘Gandhian Philosophy’ on conservation of resources?
a) Small is beautiful
b) Our common future
c) Both a. and b.
d) None of these

Question 107.
Which of the following types of soil is found in the river deltas of the Eastern Coast?
a) Black soil
b) Laterite soil
c) Red soil
d) Alluvial soil

Question 108.
Which soil is ideal for growing cotton?
a) Alluvial soil
b) Black soil
c) Red soil
d) None of these

Question 109.
Why do red soils develop a reddish colour?
a) Iron occurs in a hydrated form
b) There is adequate proportion of potash and lime
c) Presence of increased calcium content
d) Diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks

Answer: (d) Diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks

Question 110.
Which of the following soil is more common in piedmont plains such as Duars, Chos and Terai?
a) Black soil
b) Laterite soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Red soil

Question 111.
Which soil is also knwon as regur soil?
a) Black soil
b) Red soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Laterite soil

Question 112.
The Lowdr horizons of the arid soil is occupied by kankar due to increasing:
a) calcium content
b) potash content
c) lime, potash and phosphorus content
d) phosphorus content

Question 113.
In the snow covered areas of Himalayas, which of the following soil experiences denudation and is acidic in nature with humus content?
a) Laterite soil
b) Black soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Forest soil

Question 114.
The running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels known as:
b) Gullies
c) Deltas
d) None of these

Question 115.
Which type of soil develops due to high temperature and evaporation?
a) Arid soil
b) Forest soil
c) Black soil
d) Red soil

Question 116.
Soil is formed by the process of:
a) Denudation
c) Weathering
d) Erosion

Question 117.
The red soil is red in colour because:
a) it is rich in humus.
b) it is rich in iron compounds.
c) it is derived from volcanic origin.
d) it is rich in potash.

Answer: (b) it is rich in iron compounds.

Question 118.
Soil formed by intense leaching is:
a) Alluvial soil
b) Red soil
c) Laterite soil
d) Desert

Question 119.
In which of the following states is black soil found?
a) Jammu and Kashmir
b) Gujarat
c) Rajasthan
d) Jharkhand

Question 120.
Which is the most common soil of Northern India?
a) Black soil
b) Laterite soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Red soil

Question 121.
Red soil is mostly found in:
a) parts of Jammu and Kashmir
b) upper Ganga Plains
c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
d) None of the above

Answer: (c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau

Question 122.
Red soil is reddish in colour due to:
a) high clay content
b) presence of kankar nodules in the subsoil
c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks
d) high moisture content

Answer: (c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks

Question 123.
Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
a) Relief
b) Parent rock
c) Climate
d) Duration of day

Question 124.
Black soils are common in:
a) Deccan trap region
b) Kashmir Valley
c) Ganga Valley
d) Northern Plains

Question 125.
Laterite soil is very useful for growing:
a) rice, wheat and mustard
b) tea, coffee and cashew nut
c) pulses, sugarcane and resin
d) None of the above

Answer: (b) tea, coffee and cashew nut

Question 126.
Black soil is deficient in:
a) Calcium carbonate
b) Magnesium
c) Potash
d) Phosphoric contents

Question 127.
Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity?
a) Alluvial soil
b) Red soil
c) Black soil
d) Mountain soil

Question 128.
Which is the most widely spread and important soil in India?
a) Black
b) Red
c) Alluvial
d) Desert

Question 129.
The soil which has higher concentration of Ranker nodules is called:
a) Bangar soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Red soil

Question 130.
The soil which develops in areas with high temperature and heavy rainfall is called:
a) Regur
b) Alluvial
c) Laterite
d) Arid

Question 131.
Red laterite soil is suitable for growing which of the following crops?
a) Coffee
b) Tea
c) Wheat
d) Cashew nut

Question 132.
a) black soil
b) alluvial soil
c) laterite soil
d) desert soil

Question 133.
Which one of the following term is used to identify the old and new alluvial respectively?
b) Tarai and Bangar
d) Tarai and Dvars

Question 134.
What are the factors responsible for soil formation?
a) Agriculture
b) Forests
c) Desert denudation
d) Change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers

Answer: (d) Change in temperature, actions of running water, wind and glaciers, activities of decomposers

Question 135.
Which important river systems have set the Alluvial soil?
a) Ganga Indus
b) Kaveri
c) Beas
d) Satluj

Question 136.
Alluvial soils are favourable for the growth of …………….
a) sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops
b) nuts
c) palm
d) cotton

Question 137.
Where are red soils mostly found?
a) Deccan plateau, parts of Odisha
b) Kerala and Karnataka
c) Rajasthan and Gujarat

Answer: (a) Deccan plateau, parts of Odisha

Question 138.
Where are the laterite soils found in India?
a) Middle Ganga plain
b) Saurashtra, Malwa
c) Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha

Answer: (c) Western Ghats region of Maharashtra, Odisha

Question 139.
Where is the arid soil found?
a) Rajasthan
b) Gujarat
c) Assam

Question 140.
In which one of the following states is terrace cultivation practised?
a) Punjab
c) Haryana
d) Uttarakhand

Question 141.
Which one of the following is responsible for sheet erosion?
a) Underground
b) Wind
c) Glacier
d) Water

Question 142.
Which one of the following method is used to break up the force of wind?
a) Shelter belt
b) Strip Cropping
c) Contour ploughing
d) Terrace farming

Question 143.
Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is called:
a) Strip cropping
b) Sheet erosion
c) Contour ploughing
d) Terrace cultivation

Question 144.
Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?
a) Strip cropping
b) Terrace cultivation
c) Shelter belts
d) Overdrawing of groundwater

Question 145.
When the top soil is washed away when water flows as a sheet over large areas down a slope is known as:
a) Land erosion
b) Water erosion
c) Sheet erosion
d) All of these

Question 146.
Soil can be conserved by:
a) Cutting of trees
b) Overgrazing
c) Planting of trees
d) Excessive mining

Question 147.
Human beings used resources indiscriminately and this has led to various major problems. What are these problems?
a) Not well planned use of these resources.
b) Wastage of resources.
c) Not many problems.
d) Accumulation of resources in few hands.

Answer: (d) Accumulation of resources in few hands.

Question 148.
Why is conservation of resources important?
a) So that they don’t get wasted.
b) Irrational consumption and over utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems.
c) For evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up.
d) For matching the resource development plan with overall national development plans.

Answer: (b) Irrational consumption and over utilisation of resources may lead to socio-economic and environmental problems.

Question 149.
What is soil erosion?
a) Denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down of soil.
b) Soil eroded by rivers.
c) Muddy stuff blown away by winds.
d) Soil eroded by rains.

Answer: (a) Denudation of the soil cover and subsequent washing down of soil.

Question 150.
The processes of and go on simultaneously and generally there is a balance between the two.
a) Denudation, erosion
b) Soil formation, erosion
c) Soil formation, denudation
d) Climatic conditions, soil erosion

Question 151.
Why is the balance between the two disturbed?
a) Due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing, construction and mining
b) Afforestation
c) Agriculture
d) Climate

Answer: (a) Due to human activities like deforestation, over-grazing, construction and mining

Question 152.
What is strip cropping?
a) Planting lines of trees
b) Planting between water beds
c) Cultivating making steps
d) Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops

Answer: (d) Strips of grass are left to grow between the crops

Question 153.
What are shelter belts?
a) Cultivating making steps
b) Planting lines of trees to create shelter
c) Planting huge bush plants in deserts
d) Planting near water beds

Answer: (b) PlantingTines of trees to create shelter

Question 154.
What is the contribution of the shelter belts?
a) To conserve water
b) To conserve soil
c) To help in the stabilisation of sand dunes
d) To maintain forests

Answer: (c) To help in the stabilisation of sand dunes

Question 155.
Match the following efforts of resource conservation from Column I with years from Column II:

 Column I Column II 1. The club of Rome advocated resource conseration A. 1992 2. Gandhian Philosophy presented in ‘Small is Beautiful’ B. 1987 3. Brundtland Commission Report on – sustainable development C. 1974 4. Earth Summit at Rio-de-Janeiro D. 1968

a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-B, 4-A
c) 1-B, 2-C, 3-D, 4-A
d) 1-D, 2-B, 3-C, 4-A

Answer: (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A

Question 156.
Identify the correct pair.

 Column I Column II 1. Alluvial soil A. also known as Regursoil 2. Black soil B. made up of clayey material 3. Red and yellow soil C. it develops in areas of high temperature and heavy rainfall 4. Laterite soil D. it develops on crystalline igneous rocks

a) 1-A
b) 2-B
c) 3-C
d) 4-D

Question 157.
Match the following:

 Column I Column II 1. Black soil A. Western Rajasthan 2. Alluvial soil B. Himalayan Region 3. Arid soil C. Northern Plains 4. Forest soil D. Maharashtra

a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B
b) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
c) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

Answer: (a) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Question 158.
Match the following:

 Column I Column II 1. Red and Yellow soil A. Rajasthan, Gujarat 2. Laterite soil B. Odisha, Chhattisgarh 3. Alluvial soil C. Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh 4. Black soil D. Karnataka, Kerala

a) 1-D, 2-B, 3-A, 4-C
b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
c) 1-B, 2-D, 3-C, 4-A
d) 1-D, 2-C, 3-A, 4-B

Answer: (b) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C

Question 159.
Match the following:

 Column I (Terms) Column II (Explanation) 1. Bangar A. New alluvial 2. Khadar B. Old alluvial 3. Regur C. Arable land left without cultivation for a year or more 4. Follow land D. Cotton soil

a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
b) 1-B. 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C
d) 1-C, 2-A, 3-B, 4-D

Answer: (c) 1-B, 2-A, 3-D, 4-C

Question 160.
Arrange the following in the correct sequence.
(i) The 5ummit was convened for addressing urgent problems of environmental protection and Socio-Economic development at the global level.
(ii) The Rio Convention endorsed the global Forest Principles and adopted Agenda 21 for achieving Sustainable Development in the 21st century.
(iii) The assembled leaders signed the Declaration on Global Climatic Change and Biological Diversity.
(iv) In June 1992, more than 100 heads of states met in Rio-de-Janeiro in Brazil, for the first International Earth Summit.
a) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)
b) (iii), (ii), (i), (iv)
c) (iv), (iii), (ii), (i)
d) (i), (iii), (iv), (ii)

Answer: (a) (iv), (i), (iii), (ii)

Question 161.
Resource planning in India which involves?
(i) Evolving a planning structure endowed with appropriate technology, skill and institutional set up for implementing resource development plans.
(ii) Identification and inventory of resources across the regions of the country. This involves surveying, mapping and qualitative and quantitative estimation and measurement of the resources.
(iii) matching the resource development plans with overall national development plans,
a) (i), (ii) (iii)
b) (iii), (i) (ii)
c) (ii), (i), (iii)
d) (i), (iii), (ii)

Question 162.
In which of the following state deforestation due to mining have caused severe land degradation?
b) Gujarat, Rajasthan, Odisha
c) Maharashtra, Chhattisgarh
d) All of the above

Answer: (d) All of the above

Question 163.
Indiscriminate exploitation of resources has led to global ecological crises. Which of the following is not associated to this statement?
a) Global warming
b) Ozone layer maintenance
c) Environmental pollution

Question 164.
Choose the feature which is not associated with arid soils.
a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.
b) In some areas the salt content is very high and common salt is obtained from these soils.
c) The lower horizon of the soiL is occupied by Kankar nodules.
d) These soils become cultivable ofter proper irrigation.

Answer: (a) These soils develop a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks.

Question 165.
Study the given graph and answer the following:
About how much percent land area is plains?
a) 27%
b) 72%
c) 30%
d) 43%

Question 166.
Study the given figure and answer the following:
How many layers of soil are seen in this soil profile?
a) 2 layers
b) 4 layers
c) 1 layer
d) 3 layers

Question 167.
Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following corect options:
(i) It is formed by the deposition of alluvium brought down by the east flowing peninsular rivers.
(ii) It is highly fertile.
(iii) It consists of various proportions of sand, silt and clay.
(iv) It is rich in potash, phosphoric acid and lime but deficient in organic matter.
a) Main features of alluvial soil
b) Main features of black soil
c) Main features of arid soil
d) Main features of laterite soil

Answer: (a) Main features of alluvial soil

Question 168.
Analyse the information given below, considering one of the following correct options:
(i) Contour ploughing
(ii) Terrace farming
(iii) Strip cropping
(iv) Afforestation
a) Measures for ploughing
b) Measures for soil conservation
c) Measures for terrace farming
d) Measures for afforestation

Answer: (b) Measures for soil conservation

Question 169.
Read the following features of a soil and name the related soil:
(i) Develops in high rainfall area.
(ii) Intense leaching process takes place.
(iii) Humus content is low.
a) Laterite soil
b) Black soil
c) Desert soil
d) None of these

Question 170.
Identify the soil with the help of the following features:
(i) Ideal for growing cotton
(ii) Capacity to hold moisture
(iii) Poor in phosphoric content
a) Laterite soil
b) Black soil
c) Arid soil
d) Alluvial soil

Question 171.
Identify the soil with the help of the following features:
(i) Sandy in texture
(ii) Lacks humus and moisture
(iii) Requires dry climate and high temperature
a) Laterite soil
b) Black soil
c) Alluvial soil
d) Desert soil

Question 172.
Which of the following is not a measure to reduce soil erosion?
a) Creating deep channels (gullies)
b) Contour ploughing
c) Strip cropping
d) Planting of shelter belts

Answer: (a) Creating deep channels (gullies)

Knowledge Booster
Gutties make it easy for the soil to get eroded by running water which result in a bad land topography knwon as ravines. Chambal river basin in Madhya Pradesh isformousforsuch ravines or bad lands.

Assertion-Reason Type Questions

In the questions given below, there are two statements marked as Assertion (A) and Reason (R). Read the statements and choose the correct option.
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is correct but R is wrong.
d) A is wrong but R is correct.

Question 173.
Assertion (A): Resources are vital for human survival as well as for maintaining the quality of life.
Reason (R): It was believed that resources are free gifts of nature.
Ans. (b)

Question 174.
Assertion (A): The availability of resources is not the only necessary condition for the development of any region. Reason (R): Not only availability of resources but also corresponding change in technology is necesssary for development of any region.
Ans. (a)
Knowledge Booster
Mere availability of resources in the absence of corresponding changes in technology and institutions may hinder development. Thus, both resources and advanced technologies contribute in development of a region.

Question 175.
Assertion (A): Resources are free gifts of nature.
Reason (R): Resources like soil, air, water are easily available in nature.
Ans: (d)
Knowledge Booster
Resources are not free gifts of nature but are present due to interaction of human beings with nature, technology and institutions. They are a function of human activities. They transform material available in our environment into resources.

Question 176.
Assertion (A): The resources are important for the survival and progress of human beings.
Reason (R): The indiscriminate use of resources by the human beings has caused global warming.
Ans. (b)

Question 177.
Assertion (A): Resource planning is a technique or skill for proper utilisation of resources.
Reason (R): As resources are limited, their planning is necessary so that we can use them properly.
Ans. (a)

Question 178.
Assertion (A): Resource planning is an easy process in India.
Reason (R): Resource planning involves planning structure, identification and inventory of resource across the regions.
Ans. (d)
Knowledge Booster
Resource planning is not an easy but a very complex process as it involves surveying, mapping, quantitative and qualitative estimation and measurement of the resources.

Question 179.
Assertion (A): Land is a natural resource supporting natural vegetation, wildlife, economic activities, transport and communication systems.
Reason (R): It is important to use the available land for various purposes with careful planning.
Ans. (b)

Question 180.
Assertion (A): Land is a natural resource of utmost importance.
Reason (R): Land can be used for various purposes.
Ans. (a)
Knowledge Booster
Land is a natural resource of utmost importance as it supports human life and wild life, economic activities like agriculture, mining, transport and communication system.

Question 181.
Assertion (A): India has varied relief features, landforms, climatic realms and vegetation types.
Reason (R): These have been deposited by three important Himalayan river systems-the Indus, the Ganga and the Brahmaputra.
Ans. (c)

Question 182.
Assertion (A): Indiscriminate use of resources has led to humerous problems.
Reason (R): To satisfy the greed of a few individuals, the depletion of resources has been continuing from years. Ans. (b)

Question 183.
Assertion (A): Various forces of nature contribute to the formation of soil.
Reason (R): It takes millions of years to form soil upto few centimetres in depth.
Ans. (b)

Question 184.
Assertion (A): Soil is the most improtant renewable natural resource.
Reason (R): Soil supports different types of living organisms on earth.
Ans. (a)
Knowledge Booster
Soil is a living system. Soil helps to grow plants, supports natural vegetation and economic activities like agriculture. Its universal usage proves that it is the most important renewable natural resource.

Question 185.
Assertion (A): Processes of soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously and creates a balance between the two.
Reason (R):Thedenudationofthesoilcoverandsubsequent washing down is soil erosion.
Ans. (c)
Knowledge Booster
Soil formation and erosion goes simultaneously but this balance is disturbed due to human activities like deforestation, overgrazing, construction, mining and natural forces like wind, glacier and water leading to soil erosion.

Question 186.
Assertion (A): Alluvial soil is ideal for growth of paddy, wheat, cereal and pulse crops.
Reason (R): Alluvial soil is well-known for its capacity to hold misture.
Ans. (c)
Knowledge Booster
Alluvial soil contains adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops. It does not show water-retention but this property makes it ideal for the growth of wheat, paddy, cereal and pulse crops.

Question 187.
Assertion (A): Alluvial soils as a whole are very fertile.
Reason (R): Mostly these soils contain adequate proportion of potash, phosphoric acid and lime which are ideal for the growth of sugarcane, paddy, wheat and other cereal and pulse crops.
Ans. (a)

Question 188.
Assertion (A): Black soil is considered ideal for growing cotton.
Reason (R): Black soil is rich in soil nutrients such as calcium carbonate, magnesium, potash and lime.
Ans. (a)

Question 189.
Assertion (A): Arid soil is unsuitable for cultivation.
Reason (R):Arid soil is generally sandy in texture and saline in nature. It restricts the filtration of water.
Ans. (c)
Knowledge Booster
Due to dry climate and high temperature, evaporation is faster and the soil lacks humus and moisture that is why it becomes unfit for cultivation.

Question 190.
Assertion (A): Conservation of resources is not important.
Reason (R): Some of the resources are recyclable.
Ans. (d)

Question 191.
Assertion (A): Controlling on mining activities doesn’t control land degradation.
Reason (R): In states like Gujarat, Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh, deforestation has occurred due to overgrazing and not mining.
Ans. (d)
Knowledge Booster
Activities of mining controls land degradation because mining sites are abandoned after excavation work, this results in over-burdening. Mining activities in the mentioned states has much contribution to deforestation.

Question 192.
Assertion (A): Terrace cultivation does not restrict erosion.
Reason (R): Running water cuts through the clayey soils and makes deep channels as gullies.This helps to cultivate crops.
Ans. (d)
Knowledge Booster
Terraces, out on slopes in the form of steps breaks up the force of the wind, thus preventing erosion. Cullies render cultivation in those lands impossible.

### Important Features of CBSE Class 10 Social Science MCQs

• All questions provided in class 10 SS history, geography, civics, economics MCQ test are prepared by experts presenting complete knowledge of the subject.
• After a thorough search & analysis done from the previous year’s question papers, experts prepared these MCQs with answers.
• For better practicing & learning, each question is having with the correct answer at the end.
• All chapters related concepts are covered in this MCQ questions for class 10 social science.
• Most of the important topics and concepts occurring in NCERT have been covered.
• Also, these 10th class Social Science Multiple Choice Questions are very beneficial for quick revision before the examination.
• Also, find the direct links for other study resources like NCERT Books for Class 10 Social Science, CBSE Class 10 Social Science Map Pointing, CBSE 10th Class Social Science Notes PDF, etc.

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## Practice MCQ Questions on World History | World History Question and Answers

We have compiled the World History Multiple Choice Question and Answers Collection so that you can quickly test your knowledge. Answer the World History Quiz Questions on a frequent basis and improve your speed and accuracy in the competitive exams. Get a good hold of the entire concept in a smart way and make the most of these quick resources for World History Objective Questions.

## World History Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. During the First World War, which country signed the Peace Treaty (1917) with Germany
A. England
B. USA
C. Russia
D. Austria

Explanation : In December 1917, Germany agreed to an armistice and peace talks with Russia, and Lenin sent Leon Trotsky to Brest-Litovsk in Belarus to negotiate a treaty. The talks broke off after Germany demanded independence for Russian holdings in Eastern Europe, and in February 1918 fighting resumed on the eastern front. They signed the Peace Treaty.

2. When did United Kingdom declared war on Germany which lead to World War II?
A. 4th April 1939
B. 18th August 1939
C. 28th August 1939
D. 3rd September 1939

Explanation : On 3rd September 1939, Prime Minister Chamberlain went to the airwaves to announce to the British people that a state of war existed between their country and Germany. World War II had begun.

3. In which year, America joined the Second World War
A. 1939
B. 1940
C. 1941
D. 1942

Explanation : The United States did not enter the war until after the Japanese bombed the American fleet in Pearl Harbor, Hawaii, on December 7, 1941.

4. The immediate cause for the out break of the first World War was
A. The assassination of Archduke Francis Ferdinand
B. The imprisonment of Lenin
C. The ambition of America to dominate the world
D. The sudden death of Lloyd George

Explanation : The assassination of Archduke Franz Ferdinand of the Austro-Hungarian Empire on June 28, 1914 in Sarajevo was the immediate cause of WWI.

5. Who were the Axis powers in World War-II?
A. Poland Japan Germany
B. Italy Japan Britain
C. Germany Italy France
D. Germany Italy Japan

Explanation : The World War-II lasted from 1939 to 1945 fought between two opposite Military alliances the Allied powers (France, Great Britain, The United States, The Soviet Union) and the Axis powers (Germany, Italy, Japan).

6. On which side did Japan fight in the First World War?
A. None it was neutral
B. With Germany against United Kingdom
C. Against Russia on its own
D. With United Kingdom against Germany

Explanation : World War-I began with the assasination of Archduke Franz Ferdinaud. In this conflict Germany, Austria, Hungary, Bulgaria and Ottoman Empire (Central Power) fought against the Great Briain, France, Russia, Italy, Romania, Japan and the United States (Allied Power).

7. The last country of Axis power to surrender during the end of the World War II was
A. Germany
B. Japan
C. Italy
D. France

Explanation : Aboard the USS Missouri in Tokyo Bay, Japan formally surrenders to the Allies, bringing an end to World War II. By the summer of 1945, the defeat of Japan was a foregone conclusion. The Japanese navy and air force were destroyed.

8. Who become the Chancellor of Germany for One Day after the death of Hitler during Second World War
A. Hermann Goering
B. Heinrich Himmler
C. Rudolf Hess
D. Joseph Goebbels

Explanation : Hitler committed suicide on 30 April. In accordance with Hitler’s will, Goebbels succeeded him as Chancellor of Germany; he served one day in this post.

9. The war criminals of the World War-II were put to trial in
A. Nuremburg
B. Peitersburg
C. Gettysburg
D. Peitsburg

Explanation : Nuremberg trial were series of 13 trials carried out in Nurembeng, Germany held by the Allied forces after World War-II. The International tribunal sentenced 12 high ranking Nazis to death for war crimes on Oct 1, 1946. It is refferred as “the Greatest trial in history”.

10. Where was republic established in Germany after the First World War
A. Munich
B. Weimer
C. Berlin
D. Bavaria

Explanation : The Weimar Republic was Germany’s government from 1919 to 1933, the period after World War I until the rise of Nazi Germany.

11. When was ancient Rome founded?
A. 776 BC
B. 753 BC
C. 752 BC
D. 742 BC

Explanation : According to legend, Ancient Rome was founded by the two brothers, and demi-gods, Romulus and Remus, on 21 April 753 BCE. The legend claims that, in an argument over who would rule the city (or, in another version, where the city would be located) Romulus killed Remus and named the city after himself.

12. When was Bulgaria founded?
A. 681
B. 864
C. 917
D. 923

Explanation : The First Bulgarian Empire was a medieval Bulgarian state that existed in Southeastern Europe between the 7th and 11th centuries AD. It was founded in 681 when Bulgar tribes led by Asparuh moved to the northeastern Balkans.

13. When was NATO signed?
A. 1949
B. 1990
C. 1948
D. 1950

Explanation : The organization implements the North Atlantic Treaty that was signed on 4 April 1949. NATO constitutes a system of collective defence whereby its independent member states agree to mutual defence in response to an attack by any external party.

14. In which year, Alexander the Great become the king of Macedonia
A. 336 BC
B. 323 BC
C. 350 BC
D. 200 BC

Explanation : Alexander the Great become the king of Macedonia in 336 BC.

15. When was Socrates born?
A. 469 BC
B. 465 BC
C. 460 BC
D. 449 BC

Explanation : Socrates was born circa 469 BC in Athens, Greece to Sophroniscus, a stone mason and sculptor, and Phaenarete, a midwife.

16. When was Sputnik 1 launched?
A. 1970
B. 1957
C. 1980
D. 1990

Explanation : History changed on October 4, 1957, when the Soviet Union successfully launched Sputnik I. The world’s first artificial satellite was about the size of a beach ball (58 cm.or 22.8 inches in diameter), weighed only 83.6 kg. or 183.9 pounds, and took about 98 minutes to orbit the Earth on its elliptical path.

17. The world’s first drainage system was build by the people of
A. Egyptian civilization
B. Indus Valley civilization
C. Chinese civilization
D. Mesopotamian civilization

Explanation : Indus Valley Civilisation System of underground drainage was the most unique feature of town planning in the Indus Valley Civilization. It is regarded as oldest drainage system having prominent features such as covering of Slab and Manhole.

18. Which of the following group of thinkers influenced Fascism?
A. Plato Machiavelli and Herbet Spencer
B. Aristotle St Augustine and T.H Green
C. Kant Fichte Hegel and Rosenberg
D. Karl Marx Engels and Lenin

Explanation : Kant, Fichte, Hegel and Rosenberg are idealist and supposed authority of state.

19. From which language, has the term ‘democracy’ been derived?
A. Greek
B. Hebrew
C. English
D. Latin

Explanation : The word democracy is derived from Greek word “Demokratia” which means “Rule of People’.

20. Who made the famous statement “Man is born free, but everywhere he is in chains.”
A. John Locke
B. Mirabeau
C. Voltaire
D. Jean Jacques Rousseau

Explanation : In The Social Contract (1762) Rousseau argues that laws are binding only when they are supported by the general will of the people. His famous idea, ‘man is born free, but he is everywhere in chains’ challenged the traditional order of society.

21. Napoleon-I and the Duke of Wellington fought the famous
A. Battle of Austerlitz
B. Battle of Leipzig
C. Battle of Borodini
D. Battle of Waterloo

Explanation : The Battle of Waterloo was fought on Sunday, 18 June 1815 near Waterloo in Belgium, part of the United Kingdom of the Netherlands at the time. A French army under the command of Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated by two of the armies of the Seventh Coalition: a British-led allied army under the command of the Duke of Wellington, and a Prussian army under the command of Field Marshal Blücher. The battle marked the end of the Napoleonic Wars.

22. Which Mountain’s volcano buried Pompeii city with ash in 79 AD
A. Mount Pelee
B. Mount Tambora
C. Mount Etna
D. Mount Vesuvius

Explanation : Mount Vesuvius, a volcano near the Bay of Naples in Italy, is hundreds of thousands of years old and has erupted more than 50 times. Its most famous eruption took place in the year 79 A.D., when the volcano buried the ancient Roman city of Pompeii under a thick carpet of volcanic ash.

23. When was the All Red Line inaugurated?
A. 1901
B. 1902
C. 1922
D. 1872

Explanation : The All Red Line was an informal name for the system of electrical telegraphs that linked much of the British Empire. It was inaugurated on 31 October 1902.

24. Who was the king during the french revolution
A. Napoleon
B. Louis XV
C. Louis XVI
D. Charles IX

Explanation : Louis XVI (23 August 1754 – 21 January 1793), born Louis-Auguste, was the last King of France before the fall of the monarchy during the French Revolution. He was referred to as Citizen Louis Capet during the four months before he was guillotined.

25. Genghis Khan died in the year
A. 1209
B. 1219
C. 1227
D. 1232

Explanation : Genghis Khan died in August 1227, during the fall of Yinchuan, which is the capital of Western Xia. The exact cause of his death remains a mystery, and is variously attributed to being killed in action against the Western Xia, illness, falling from his horse, or wounds sustained in hunting or battle.

26. Who was a founder member of the Russian Populist Movement “Anarchism”?
A. Mikhail Bakunin
B. Gorkhy
C. Leo Tolstoy
D. Turganew

Explanation : Mikhail Bakunin was a founding member and the Prominent leader of the Russian Populist Movement “Anarchism”. He is regarded as the Father of Modern Terrorism.

27. Fascism believes in the application of the principle of
A. Dictatorship
B. Democracy
C. Utilitarianism
D. Totalitarianism

Explanation : Fascism is a forum of government which is governed by the principles of right wing totalitarianism. Fascists are against democracy. Mussolini and Hitler are the two first fascist leaders.

28. Whom did Henry Tudor defeat in 1485?
A. Edward IV
B. Richard I
C. Richard III
D. Edward V

Explanation : The battle of Bosworth, which took place on 22 August 1485, was the last significant clash of the Wars of the Roses. The armies of Yorkist king Richard III were defeated by Henry Tudor (later Henry VII), which heralded the end of the Plantagenet dynasty and marked the birth of the Tudor age.

29. Queen Elizabeth I of England belongs to which dynasty
A. Stuart
B. York
C. Tudor
D. Normandy

Explanation : Queen Elizabeth I of England belongs to Tudor dynasty. Elizabeth was born in 1533 at Greenwich, England. She was the daughter of King Henry VIII of England and his second wife, Anne Boleyn. She had an older half-sister Mary, and, later, a younger half-brother Edward. Elizabeth was given a good education.

30. Who proclaimed the First Crusade?
A. Alexios I Komnenos
B. Peter the Hermit
C. Pope Gregory VII
D. Pope Urban II

Explanation : On November 27, 1095, Pope Urban II makes perhaps the most influential speech of the Middle Ages, giving rise to the Crusades by calling all Christians in Europe to war against Muslims in order to reclaim the Holy Land, with a cry of “Deus vult!” or “God wills it!”.

31. Which one was the capital city of Byzantine Empire
A. Venice
B. Rome
C. Vienna
D. Constantinople

Explanation : Constantinople was re-inaugurated in 324 from ancient Byzantium as the new capital of the Roman Empire by Emperor Constantine the Great, after whom it was named, and dedicated on 11 May 330. The city was located in what is now the European side and the core of modern Istanbul.

32. When was ‘Hammer of the Witches’ published?
A. 1414
B. 1471
C. 1484
D. 1487

Explanation : The Malleus Maleficarum, a Latin book written in 1486 and 1487, is also known as “The Hammer of Witches”. This is a translation of the title. Authorship of the book is credited to two German Dominican monks, Heinrich Kramer and Jacob Sprenger. It was published in 1487.

33. Pearl Harbour, an American Naval and Airforce base was attacked by
A. Germany
B. Japan
C. France
D. England

Explanation : Pearl Harbor attack, (December 7, 1941), surprise aerial attack on the U.S. naval base at Pearl Harbor on Oahu Island, Hawaii, by the Japanese that precipitated the entry of the United States into World War II. The strike climaxed a decade of worsening relations between the United States and Japan.

34. When did Henry Tudor seize the crown?
A. 1420
B. 1431
C. 1453
D. 1485

Explanation : Henry VII (Welsh: Harri Tudur; 28 January 1457 – 21 April 1509) was the King of England and Lord of Ireland from his seizure of the crown on 22 August 1485 to his death on 21 April 1509. He was the first monarch of the House of Tudor. He was the last king of England to win his throne on the field of battle.

35. Who was the King of Britain during the First World War ?
A. Philip I
B. Anarew VIII
C. George V
D. Jonn Vll

Explanation : George V (George Frederick Ernest Albert; 3 June 1865 – 20 January 1936) was king of the United Kingdom and the British Dominions, and Emperor of India, from 6 May 1910 until his death in 1936. He became king-emperor on his father’s death in 1910.

36. Who was the first to distinguish between cause and immediate origins of an event?
A. Herodotus
B. Pericles
C. Plutarch
D. Thucydides

Explanation : Thucydides was an Athenian historian and general. His history of the Peloponnesian War recounts the fifth-century BC war between Sparta and Athens until the year 411 BC. Thucydides has been dubbed the father of “scientific history” by those who accept his claims to have applied strict standards of impartiality and evidence-gathering and analysis of cause and effect, without reference to intervention by the deities, as outlined in his introduction to his work.

37. The famous painting ‘Monalisa’ was the creation of
A. Michael Angelo
B. Leonardo-da-Vinci
C. Picasso
D. Van Gogh

Explanation : Monalisa is the famous creation of Italian Renaissance artist Leonardo-da-Vinci. It is acclaimed as the most livable work of art.

38. Who was popularly known as Africa’s Gandhi?
A. Mir Karzai
B. Firoz Gandhi
C. Nelson Mandela
D. M.K.Gandhi

Explanation : Nelson Mandela is known as “South African Gandhi”. He also used the Gandhian principles of ‘Passive Resistance’ and ‘Satyagraha’ as effective political tool.

39. Who made tripartite periodisation standard?
A. Andreas Cellarius
B. Christoph Cellarius
C. Flavio Biondo
D. Genseric

Explanation : The alternative term medieval derives from medium aevum, tripartite periodisation became standard after the German 17th-century historian Christoph Cellarius. This threefold periodization was first employed by George Hornius, a Dutch historian in his Arca Noae (1666), and became widely known later through Christophorus Cellarius, a German historian, in his Historia nova, hoc est XVI et XVII saeculorum (1696).

40. In which year Napoleon I crowned himself as Emperor of France
A. 1799
B. 1804
C. 1807
D. 1812

Explanation : On the 2nd of December 1804 Napoleon crowned himself Emperor Napoleon I at Notre Dame de Paris. According to legend, during the coronation he snatched the crown from the hands of Pope Pius VII and crowned himself, thus displaying his rejection of the authority of the Pontiff.

41. Who united Norway, Denmark and, Sweden?
A. Albert King of Sweden
B. Eric of Pomerania
C. Haakon VI of Norway
D. Margaret I of Denmark

Explanation : Margaret I, (born 1353, Søborg, Den.—died Oct. 28, 1412, Flensburg), regent of Denmark (from 1375), of Norway (from 1380), and of Sweden (from 1389), who, by diplomacy and war, pursued dynastic policies that led to the Kalmar Union (1397), which united Denmark, Norway, and Sweden until 1523 and Denmark and Norway until 1814.

42. The policy of racial discrimination followed in South Africa was called
A. Non-Aligned
B. Civil Rights Movement
C. Apartheid
D. Suffrage

Explanation : Apartheid was the policy of racial segregation and discrimination that governed the relations between the white minority and the non-white majority in South Africa.

43. Who was the US President during World War II
A. Winston Churchill
B. Joseph Stalin
C. Franklin D Roosevelt
D. Harry S Truman

Explanation : President Franklin Delano Roosevelt and Vice President Henry A. Wallace won the election of 1940, and were at the helm of the nation as it prepared for and entered World War II.

44. One of the important factors that led to the World War-II the humiliating provisions in one of the following treaties. Which is that treaty?
A. Treaty of Paris
B. Treaty of Versailles
C. Treaty of Lorraine
D. Treaty of Brussels

Explanation : Treaty of Versailles brought World War-I to an end, it was also one of the cause of World War-II. The leaders of the Allied and associated powers, as well as representatives from Germany, gathered in the Hall of Mirrors at the Palace of Versailles to sign the final treaty.

45. Who is the oldest British monarch to sit on the Throne?
A. Queen Victoria
B. Queen Elizabeth-II
C. Queen Mary Tudor
D. Queen Anne

Explanation : Queen Elizabeth-II is the oldest British Monarch to sit on the throne. She was 91 years old when she ascended the throne in 1952.

46. Who officially instituted the first system of imperial examinations in China?
A. Han Wu Di
B. Huo Qubing
C. Wei Qing
D. None

Explanation : This system was initially adopted by the succeeding Han dynasty (206 bce–220 ce), but in 124 bce, under the reign of the Han emperor Wudi, an imperial university was established to train and test officials in the techniques of Confucian government.

47. Democracy is a “government in which everyone has a share” was the opinion of
A. Jeovans
B. Seeley
C. Plato
D. Abraham Lincoln

Explanation : “Democracy is a government in which everyone has a share” was the opinion of Abraham Lincoln. According to Abraham Lincoln, democracy gave people the right to make use of their thinking according to their capacity.

48. Marco Polo was a traveller from __________
A. Portugal
B. England
C. Italy
D. Spain

Explanation : Marco Polo, an Italian trader and traveler, became famous for his travels in central Asia and China. He wrote a book that gave Europeans some of their earliest information about China, which was then called Cathay. Marco was born in Venice. His father, Nicolo Polo, was a merchant.

49. The Second World War started in the year
A. 1940
B. 1939
C. 1941
D. 1942

Explanation : World War II also known as the Second World War, was a global war that lasted from 1939 to 1945.

50. The Hundred Years’ War (from 1337 to 1453) was fought between
A. England and France
B. Germany and Russia
C. America and Argentina
D. England and Germany

Explanation : The Hundred Years’ War was a long struggle between England and France over succession to the French throne. It lasted from 1337 to 1453, so it might more accurately be called the “116 Years’ War.”

51. Napoleon was exiled to the Saint Helena after the defeat in the war of
A. Russia
B. Waterloo
C. Peninsular
D. Rivoli

Explanation : France in early 1815 and raised a new Grand Army that enjoyed temporary success before its crushing defeat at Waterloo against an allied force under Wellington on June 18, 1815. Napoleon was subsequently exiled to the island of Saint Helena off the coast of Africa.

52. The tomb of Tutankhamun was discovered by Howard Carter and George Herbert in the year
A. 1920
B. 1922
C. 1998
D. 1930

Explanation : Howard Carter (9 May 1874 – 2 March 1939) was a British archaeologist and Egyptologist who became world-famous after discovering the intact tomb (designated KV62) of the 18th Dynasty Pharaoh, Tutankhamun (colloquially known as “King Tut” and “the boy king”), in November 1922.

53. Crimean War was started in the year
A. 1853
B. 1857
C. 1862
D. 1870

Explanation : Crimean War, (October 1853–February 1856), war fought mainly on the Crimean Peninsula between the Russians and the British, French, and Ottoman Turkish, with support from January 1855 by the army of Sardinia-Piedmont.

54. Cold War refers to
A. Tension between East and West
B. Ideological rivalry between Capitalist and Communist world
C. Tension between Superpowers
D. Tension between Superpowers

Explanation : The Cold War was a period of geopolitical tension between the Soviet Union with its satellite states (the Eastern Bloc), and the United States with its allies (the Western Bloc) after World War II.

55. When was the first of the Geneva Conventions on the treatment of war victims adopted?
A. 1832
B. 1857
C. 1864
D. 1909

Explanation : The First Geneva Convention for the amelioration of the condition of the wounded in armies in the field, held on 22 August 1864, is the first of four treaties of the Geneva Conventions. After the first treaty was adopted in 1864, it was significantly revised and replaced in 1906, 1929, and finally 1949.

56. The First Opium War was fought between British and __________
A. Chinese
B. Indian
C. Japanese
D. Thai

Explanation : The Opium Wars in the mid-19th century were a critical juncture in modern Chinese history. The first Opium War was fought between China and Great Britain from 1839 to 1942.

57. First war of Crusade was ended in the year
A. 1099
B. 1095
C. 1123
D. 1323

Explanation : The First Crusade (1095–1099) was the first of a number of crusades that attempted to recapture the Holy Land, called for by Pope Urban II at the Council of Clermont in 1095. Urban called for a military expedition to aid the Byzantine Empire, which had recently lost most of Anatolia to the Seljuq Turks. The First Crusade lasted from 1096 to 1099.

58. When did the Chinese Civil War begin?
A. 1927
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1937

Explanation : The Chinese Civil War was a war fought between the Kuomintang (KMT)-led government of the Republic of China and the Communist Party of China (CPC). Although particular attention is paid to the four years of Chinese Communist Revolution from 1945 to 1949, the war actually started in August 1927, with the White Terror at the end of Generalissimo Chiang Kai-shek’s Northern Expedition, and essentially ended when major hostilities between the two sides ceased in 1950.

59. Till when did the Hundred Years’ War last?
A. 1327
B. 1377
C. 1376
D. 1453

Explanation : The Hundred Years’ War was a series of conflicts waged from 1337 to 1453 between the House of Plantagenet, rulers of the Kingdom of England, against the House of Valois, rulers of the Kingdom of France.

60. Till when did the Wars of the Roses last?
A. 1420
B. 1431
C. 1453
D. 1487

Explanation : The term to refers to a civil war or series of conflicts in England that lasted from 1455-1487. These thirty years of warfare were even more destructive to England than the Hundred Years War had been in the previous century.

61. Who was the President of the Confederate States of America during the American Civil War?
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Jefferson Davis
C. Robert E. Lee
D. Stonewall Jackson

Explanation : Jefferson Davis, in full Jefferson Finis Davis, (born June 3, 1808, Christian county, Kentucky, U.S.—died December 6, 1889, New Orleans, Louisiana), president of the Confederate States of America throughout its existence during the American Civil War (1861–65).

62. When did Greco-Persian Wars end?
A. 460 BC
B. 449 BC
C. 447 BC
D. 424 BC

Explanation : Greco-Persian Wars, also called Persian Wars, (492–449 bce), a series of wars fought by Greek states and Persia over a period of almost half a century.

63. The war of Falklands was fought between which two countries
A. USA and Brazil
B. England and French
C. Japan and Korea
D. England and Argentina

Explanation : Falkland Islands War, also called Falklands War, Malvinas War, or South Atlantic War, a brief undeclared war fought between Argentina and England in 1982 over control of the Falkland Islands (Islas Malvinas) and associated island dependencies.

64. First Sino-Japanese War was fought in the year
A. 1848
B. 1894
C. 1901
D. 1896

Explanation : The First Sino-Japanese War (25 July 1894 – 17 April 1895) was fought between China and Japan primarily over influence in Korea.

65. American Civil War was started in the year
A. 1756
B. 1806
C. 1861
D. 1890

Explanation : The Civil War started because of uncompromising differences between the free and slave states over the power of the national government to prohibit slavery in the territories that had not yet become states. The event that triggered war came at Fort Sumter in Charleston Bay on April 12, 1861.

66. The Greek War of Independence against the Ottoman Empire started in the year
A. 1805
B. 1821
C. 1852
D. 1895

Explanation : The Greek War of Independence (1821–1829), also commonly known as the Greek Revolution, was a successful war by the Greeks who won independence for Greece from the Ottoman Empire. Muhammad Ali Pasha sent his son Ismail with a navy to help fight the Greeks.

67. When did the Vietnam war occur?
A. 1937
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1955

Explanation : The Vietnam War (Vietnamese: Chiến tranh Việt Nam), also known as the Second Indochina War, and in Vietnam as the Resistance War Against America (Vietnamese: Kháng chiến chống Mỹ) or simply the American War, was an undeclared war in Vietnam, Laos, and Cambodia from 1 November 1955 to the fall of Saigon on 30 April 1975

68. The Falklands War was fought in the year
A. 1973
B. 1977
C. 1982
D. 1989

Explanation : Falkland Islands War, also called Falklands War, Malvinas War, or South Atlantic War, a brief undeclared war fought between Argentina and Great Britain in 1982 over control of the Falkland Islands (Islas Malvinas) and associated island dependencies.

69. The Crimean War in 1854-1856 was fought between
A. Russia and Turkey
B. USA and England
C. Russia and Japan
D. England and France

Explanation : The Crimean War (1853-56) was the military conflict fought on the Crimean Peninsula between the Russian and the British, French and Ottoman Turkish and Saudinia. This war concluded without any result.

70. Which city was recaptured at the end of the first war of Crusade
A. Rome
B. Venice
C. Jerusalem
D. Vienna

Explanation : The First Crusade (1095–1099) was the first of a number of crusades that attempted to recapture the Holy Land, called for by Pope Urban II at the Council of Clermont in 1095. Urban called for a military expedition to aid the Byzantine Empire, which had recently lost most of Anatolia to the Seljuq Turks. The resulting military expedition of primarily Frankish nobles, known as the Princes’ Crusade, not only re-captured Anatolia but went on to conquer the Holy Land (the Levant), which had fallen to Islamic expansion as early as the 7th century, and culminated in July 1099 in the re-conquest of Jerusalem and the establishment of the Kingdom of Jerusalem.

71. When was Anglo-Zulu War fought?
A. 1879
B. 1898
C. 1899
D. 1900

Explanation : The Anglo-Zulu War was fought in 1879 between the British Empire and the Zulu Kingdom.

72. Treaty of Versailles was signed at the end of which of the following wars
A. Austro-Prussian War
B. First World War
C. Second World War
D. Russia-Japan War

Explanation : Germany had formally surrendered on November 11, 1918, and all nations had agreed to stop fighting while the terms of peace were negotiated. On June 28, 1919, Germany and the Allied Nations (including Britain, France, Italy and Russia) signed the Treaty of Versailles, formally ending the war.

73. The Opium wars were fought between
A. Britain and China
B. Britain and India
C. India and China
D. Britain and Japan

Explanation : Opium wars were series of two military conflicts between the British forces and the forces of Qing dynasty of China conflict over the Britain’s trade in China. These wars are also referred as Anglo-Cinese disputes – First Opium War (1839-1842) Second Opium war (1856-1860).

74. Who was the President of America during American Civil War
A. Abraham Lincoln
B. Andrew Jackson
C. George Washington

Explanation : Abraham Lincoln was succeeded by Vice President Andrew Johnson. Lincoln presided over the Union victory in the American Civil War, which dominated his presidency.

75. Which were the two countries that fought during the Falklands War
A. Britain and France
B. Germany and Austria
C. Argentina and Britain
D. Austria and Russia

Explanation : Falkland Islands War, also called Falklands War, Malvinas War, or South Atlantic War, a brief undeclared war fought between Argentina and Great Britain in 1982 over control of the Falkland Islands (Islas Malvinas) and associated island dependencies.

76. Punic Wars were fought between
A. Greece and Gaul
B. Greece and Rome
C. Rome and Gaul
D. Rome and Carthage

Explanation : The Punic Wars were a series of three wars fought between Rome and Carthage from 264 BC to 146 BC. At the time, they were some of the largest wars that had ever taken place.

77. The American Civil War saw the end of
A. Slavery
B. Landlordism
C. Monarchy
D. Apartheid

Explanation : American civil war was a struggle against slavery and controversy over state’s rights related to racial discrimination that started in April 1861 and lasted for 4 years till 1865.

78. Which war was formally ended with the Treaty of Portsmouth
A. World War I
B. World War II
C. Russo-Japanese War
D. China Japan War

Explanation : The Treaty of Portsmouth formally ended the 1904–05 Russo-Japanese War. It was signed on September 5, 1905 after negotiations lasting from August 6 to August 30, at the Portsmouth Naval Shipyard in Kittery, Maine, United States.

79. When did Warring States period begin in China?
A. 479 BC
B. 475 BC
C. 469 BC
D. 465 BC

Explanation : The Warring States Period (475–221 BC) was an era of division in ancient China. After the relatively peaceful and philosophical Spring and Autumn Period, various states were at war before the Qin state conquered them all, and China was reunited under the Qin Dynasty.

80. When did the Germans establish colonies in New Guinea?
A. 1884
B. 1898
C. 1899
D. 1900

Explanation : German New Guinea (German: Deutsch-Neuguinea) consisted of the northeastern part of the island of New Guinea and several nearby island groups and was the first part of the German colonial empire. The mainland part of the territory, called Kaiser-Wilhelmsland, became a German protectorate in 1884.

81. In which year Russo-Japanese war was started
A. 1894
B. 1898
C. 1904
D. 1907

Explanation : The war began on February 8, 1904, when the main Japanese fleet launched a surprise attack and siege on the Russian naval squadron at Port Arthur.

82. The Peloponnesian War was fought between which cities?
A. Athens and Macedonia
B. Carthage and Athens
C. Sparta and Carthage
D. Sparta and Athens

Explanation : The Peloponnesian War (431–404 BC) was an ancient Greek war fought by the Delian League led by Athens against the Peloponnesian League led by Sparta. Sparta defeated Athens in 404 BC.

83. The Russo-Turkish war was started in the year
A. 1762
B. 1768
C. 1773
D. 1782

Explanation : September 25 (October 6), 1768 began the Russo-Turkish war – one of the most significant wars between the Russian and Ottoman empires, as a result of which Kerch, Yenikale and Kinburn, the lands between the Dnieper and the Bug were attached to Russia and the Crimean Khanate gained independence under the protection of Russia.

84. The song ‘Jana-Mana’ composed by Rabindra Nath Tagore was first published in January 1912 under the title of
A. Jay He
B. Rashtra Jagriti
C. Bharat Vidhata
D. Matribhoomi

Explanation : Jana-Gana-Mana was composed by Rabindra Nath Tagore in Bengali language. Under the title of Bharat Vidhata it was first published in 1912 and sung in the (Calcutta session)1911.

85. The last constitutional provision (covering undivided India) passed by the House of Commons was
A. Government of India Act 1935
B. Cabinet Mission Plan
C. Mountabatten (or June 3) Plan
D. Indian Independence Bill

Explanation : The last constitutional provision (covering undivided India) passed by the House of Commons was Government of India Act 1935.

86. 1917 is known for
A. Battle of Trafalgar
B. Battle of Waterloo
C. End of the World War-I
D. The Russian Revolution

Explanation : 1917 is known for the series of revolutions in Russia collectively termed as The Russian Revolution.

87. The term ‘Cold War’ was coined by
A. Bernard Baruch
B. Prof. Lippmann
C. Palmer Perkins
D. Roosevelt

Explanation : Bernard Baruch, the multimillionaire financier and adviser to presidents from Woodrow Wilson to Harry S. Truman, coined the term “Cold War” to describe the increasingly chilly relations between two World War II Allies: the United States and the Soviet Union.

88. Which two countries were involved in a Hundred Years War?
A. Turkey and Austria
B. England and France
C. Palestine and Israel
D. Germany and Russia

Explanation : The kingdom of England and the kingdom of France was involved in a series of conflict form 1337 to 1453, it is referred as ” The Hundred Year War “.

89. The Franco-Prussian War (1870-1871) was ended with the signed of
A. Treaty of Vienna
B. Treaty of Munich
C. Treaty of Paris
D. Treaty of Versailles

Explanation : The Treaty of Versailles of 1871 ended the Franco-Prussian War and was signed by Adolphe Thiers, of the French Third Republic, and Otto von Bismarck, of the German Empire on 26 February 1871.

90. When did John Cabot visit Cape Breton Island?
A. 1497
B. 1500
C. 1524
D. 1350

Explanation : On June 24, 1497, 50 days into the voyage, Cabot landed on the east coast of North America. The precise location of Cabot’s landing is subject to controversy. Some historians believe that Cabot landed at Cape Breton Island or mainland Nova Scotia.

91. When was Charlemagne crowned as Roman Emperor?
A. 800
B. 860
C. 871
D. 899

Explanation : Charlemagne is crowned emperor – December 25, 800.

92. William Shakespeare was born in the year
A. 1487
B. 1523
C. 1564
D. 1588

Explanation : According to tradition, the great English dramatist and poet William Shakespeare is born in Stratford on Avon on April 23, 1564.

93. The Bloodless Revolution of 1688 was started in which country
A. England
B. Italy
C. Portugal
D. France

Explanation : The Glorious Revolution, also called “The Revolution of 1688” and “The Bloodless Revolution,” took place from 1688-1689 in England. It involved the overthrow of the Catholic king James II, who was replaced by his Protestant daughter Mary and her Dutch husband, William of Orange.

94. When did the Korean war end?
A. 1937
B. 1948
C. 1950
D. 1953

Explanation : The Korean War was a war between North Korea and South Korea. The fighting ended on 27 July 1953, when an armistice was signed.

95. Who switched on the world’s first large-scale electrical supply network?
A. Albert Einstein
B. Alexander Graham Bell
C. Benjamin Franklin
D. Thomas Edison

Explanation : Thomas Edison invented a less powerful incandescent lamp in 1879, and in September 1882 only a month before the inaugural issue of POWER magazine was published he established a central generating station at Pearl Street in lower Manhattan.

96. What was the reason for the breakup of the Carolingan Empire?
A. Charlemagne’s descendants were politically weak and disunited
B. Vikings began raiding northern France
C. Charlemagne’s grandsons divided the empire into three parts
D. All the above

Explanation : The breakup of the Carolingian Empire was accompanied by invasions, migrations, and raids by external foes. The Atlantic and northern shores were harassed by the Vikings who raided the British Isles and settled there as well as in Iceland.

97. Alexander was trained by
A. Socrates
B. Aristotle
C. Plato
D. Homer

Explanation : Alexander was educated by the great philosopher Aristotle of Stagira. The school at Mieza can still be visited (a little to the east and below modern Naousa).

98. Who give the famous quote ‘Government of the people, by the people, for the people, shall not perish from the Earth’
A. Winston Churchill
B. Abraham Lincoln
D. George Washington

Explanation : The words of Abraham Lincoln to honour the soldiers that sacrificed their lives in order “that government of the people, by the people, for the people, shall not perish from the earth” were spoken at Gettysburg, but these words apply as well to the countless soldiers that died for the cause of democracy in the following 150 years.

99. Who was the first sailor to sail around the world
A. Ferdinand Magellan
B. Vasco da Gama
C. Christopher Columbus
D. Amerigo Vespucci

Explanation : Ferdinand Magellan led the first expedition to sail all the way around the world. He also discovered a passage from the Atlantic Ocean to the Pacific Ocean that is today called the Straits of Magellan.

100. In which European country feudalism process was first started
A. Italy
B. England
C. French
D. Russia

Explanation : Feudalism was a combination of legal and military customs in medieval Europe that flourished between the 9th and 15th centuries. Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour. In French European country feudalism process was first started.

101. In which year George Washington became the first president of USA
A. 1735
B. 1765
C. 1770
D. 1789

Explanation : George Washington was an American political leader, military general, statesman, and Founding Father, who also served as the first president of the United States from 1789 to 1797.

102. Who took control of the kingdoms of Austrasia and Neustria in a coup of 753?
A. Carloman
B. Charles Martel
C. Pepin of Herstal
D. Pepin the Short

Explanation : Pepin the Short took control of the kingdoms of Austrasia and Neustria in a coup of 753.

103. The State is a necessary evil according to
A. Communists
B. Liberalists
C. Individualists
D. Anarchists

Explanation : The individualistic theory considers the State as ‘a necessary evil’. It is an evil because it encroaches upon the freedom of individuals. As it is an evil, it is better to have as little of it as far as possible. But at the same time, the State is regarded as ‘necessary’ because of selfish and egoistic nature of human beings. It is necessary in order to stop the anti-social activities of individuals in the society. But it should not be all powerful, omnipotent and omnicompetent. Hence it is considered as a ‘necessary evil”.

104. Who was the first christian emperor of the Roman Empire
A. Julius Caesar
B. Nero
C. Constantine
D. Domitian

Explanation : Constantine was the first Roman emperor to convert to Christianity. Although he lived much of his life as a pagan, and later as a catechumen, he joined the Christian faith on his deathbed, being baptised by Eusebius of Nicomedia.

105. When was Anglo-Russian Entente signed?
A. 1906
B. 1907
C. 1910
D. 1911

Explanation : Anglo-Russian Entente, (1907) pact in which Britain and Russia settled their colonial disputes in Persia, Afghanistan, and Tibet. It delineated spheres of influence in Persia, stipulated that neither country would interfere in Tibet’s internal affairs, and recognized Britain’s influence over Afghanistan.

106. Who advanced Russia’s boundary to the Black Sea?
A. Catherine the Great
B. Elizabeth of Russia
C. Peter the Great
D. Peter III of Russia

Explanation : Catherine the Great extended Russian political control over the lands of the Polish–Lithuanian Commonwealth. Catherine successfully waged war against the Ottoman Empire and advanced Russia’s southern boundary to the Black Sea.

107. Whose model is based on the Mandate of Heaven?
A. Ban Gu
B. Li Ling
C. Qin Shi Huang
D. Sima Qian

Explanation : The Mandate of Heaven is an ancient Chinese belief and philosophical idea that Heaven granted emperors the right to rule based on their ability to govern well and fairly.

108. Aztec civilization was originated in which country
A. USA
B. Greece
C. Egypt
D. Mexico

Explanation : The Mexica were late-comers to the Valley of Mexico, and founded the city-state of Tenochtitlan on unpromising islets in Lake Texcoco, later becoming the dominant power of the Aztec Triple Alliance or Aztec Empire.

109. When did Congress pass the Sherman Antitrust Act?
A. 1890
B. 1911
C. 1900
D. 1872

Explanation : Approved July 2, 1890, The Sherman Anti-Trust Act was the first Federal act that outlawed monopolistic business practices. The Sherman Antitrust Act of 1890 was the first measure passed by the U.S. Congress to prohibit trusts.

110. Which civilization is known as the birthplace of democracy
A. Romans
B. Indian
C. Greeks
D. Persians

Explanation : The concept of a democratic society, such as the one our country enjoys today, began in the Greek capital some 8,000 years ago. The city of Athens is sometimes referred to as the cradle of Western civilization. Athens began as a hilltop fort on the Acropolis.

111. Which of the following is a wonder of the ancient world?
A. The statue of Jupiter Zeus at Olympia
B. The colosseum of Rome
C. The Leaning Tower of Pisa
D. The Mosque at St. Sophia (Constantinople)

Explanation : The statue of Jupiter Zeus, i.e. king of Gods was built around 432 B.C. as a shrine to Greek God Zeus. Olympic games got organized in the memory of Zeus.

A. 1970
B. 1972
C. 1973
D. 1971

Explanation : Modern Bangladesh was created after the liberation war 1971 fought between armies of Pakistan and India and hence East Pakistan was separated from Pakistan. Sheikh Mujib-ur-Rehman is known as national father of Bangladesh.

113. When did Battle of Marathon take place?
A. 490 BC
B. 480 BC
C. 479 BC
D. 475 BC

Explanation : Battle of Marathon, (September 490 bce), in the Greco-Persian Wars, decisive battle fought on the Marathon plain of northeastern Attica in which the Athenians, in a single afternoon, repulsed the first Persian invasion of Greece.

114. When did the Third Battle of Panipat take place?
A. 1707
B. 1761
C. 1751
D. 1765

Explanation : The Third Battle of Panipat took place on 14 January 1761 at Panipat, about 60 miles (97 km) north of Delhi, between a northern expeditionary force of the Maratha Empire and invading forces of the King of Afghanistan, Ahmad Shah Abdali, supported by two Indian allies—the Rohillas Najib-ud-daulah, Afghans of the Doab region and Shuja-ud-Daula-the Nawab of Awadh.

115. When did the Battle of Plassey take place?
A. 1707
B. 1751
C. 1757
D. 1765

Explanation : The Battle of Plassey was a major battle that took place on 23 June 1757 at Palashi, Bengal. It was an important British East India Company victory over the Nawab of Bengal and his French allies.

116. In U.S.A. the President is elected by
A. The Senate
C. The House of Representatives
D. The Congress

Explanation : The US President is elected indirectly and the elections are held in accordance with the system of Universal Adult Franchise.

117. Who is known as the father of American Constitution
B. George Washington
D. Thomas Jefferson

Explanation : James Madison is known as the Father of the Constitution because of his pivotal role in the document’s drafting as well as its ratification.

118. Who was the second Great Khagan of the Mongol Empire
A. Guyuk Khan
B. Ogedei Khan
C. Kublai Khan
D. Temur Khan

Explanation : Ogedei Khan

119. When did the Battle of Nicopolis take place?
A. 1396
B. 1453
C. 1305
D. 1378

Explanation : The Battle of Nicopolis took place on 25 September 1396 and resulted in the rout of an allied crusader army of Hungarian, Croatian, Bulgarian, Wallachian, French, English, Burgundian, German and assorted troops (assisted by the Venetian navy) at the hands of an Ottoman force, raising of the siege of the Danubian fortress of Nicopolis and leading to the end of the Second Bulgarian Empire.

120. What did the ninth-century Scandinavian invasions do in England?
A. Promoted various small kingdoms to merge into a large kingdom
B. Led to disintegration of a large kingdom into smaller kingdoms
C. Gave way to colonization by the Vikings
D. Brought down Anglo-Saxon alliance

Explanation : They promoted various small kingdoms to merge into a large kingdom. Their invasion of other countries was motivated by overpopulation, trade assets, and the lack of viable farmland in their homeland.

121. What was the name of the atom bomb dropped in Nagasaki city
A. Fat Boy
B. Fat Man
C. Scorpion
D. Death Kiss

Explanation : “Fat Man” was the codename for the nuclear bomb that was detonated over the Japanese city of Nagasaki by the United States on 9 August 1945. It was the second of the only two nuclear weapons ever used in warfare, the first being Little Boy, and its detonation marked the third nuclear explosion in history.

122. When was Hong Kong leased to Britain for 99 years by China
A. 1898
B. 1900
C. 1901
D. 1903

Explanation : In formal terms the answer lies in the second Convention of Peking, signed on 9 June 1898. The ailing Qing Dynasty leased the New Territories to Britain for 99 years, starting 1 July 1898. The new additions were to make up 90 per cent of Hong Kong’s land mass. The term of 99 years was fixed almost casually.

123. The Parliament of Great Britain was formed in the year
A. 1707
B. 1729
C. 1774
D. 1823

Explanation : The Parliament of Great Britain was formed in 1707 following the ratification of the Acts of Union by both the Parliament of England and the Parliament of Scotland.

124. Which city is known as the birthplace of the Renaissance
A. Florence
B. Venice
C. Rome
D. London

Explanation : Florence is often named as the birthplace of the Renaissance. The early writers and artists of the period sprung from this city in the northern hills of Italy. As a center for the European wool trade, the political power of the city rested primarily in the hands of the wealthy merchants who dominated the industry.

125. During 18th century who among the following philosophers said these famous words?, “Man is born free but is every where in chains.”
A. Voltaire
B. Jack Dareda
C. Jean Jacques Rousseaou
D. Montesqueue

Explanation : The forous quote ” Man is born free botis every where in chains ” is given by fomous philosopher Jean Jacques Rousseaou.

126. Who is regarded as the founder of modern Egypt
B. Ibrahim Pasha
C. Abbas I
D. Sa’id Pasha

Explanation : Muhammad Ali Pasha was the ruler of Egypt and Sudan. He is regarded “the founder of modern Egypt,” because of the dramatic reforms in the military, economic, and cultural spheres that he instituted.

127. Who is generally consider as the first pharaoh of Egypt
A. Menes
B. Semerkhet
C. Takelot I
D. Tutankhamun

Explanation : Menes is traditionally considered the first king of Ancient Egypt, Narmer has been identified by the majority of Egyptologists as the same person as Menes.

128. Sir William Wallace is known as the independence fighter of
A. Denmark
B. Scotland
C. Ireland
D. Italy

Explanation : Sir William Wallace is believed to be one of Scotlands greatest national heroes. He led the Rising of 1297, in an attempt to reverse the loss of Scottish independence to England. He was knighted and made Guardian of Scotland. He later resigned after The Battle of Falkirk when he was defeated by the English cavalry.

129. When was the Tripartite Pact signed?
A. 1939
B. 1940
C. 1941
D. 1945

Explanation : In 1940, the Axis powers are formed as Germany, Italy, and Japan become allies with the signing of the Tripartite Pact in Berlin. The Pact provided for mutual assistance should any of the signatories suffer attack by any nation not already involved in the war.

130. Napoleon got finally over thrown in the Battle of Waterloo in the year
A. 1814
B. 1813
C. 1815
D. 1816

Explanation : The Battle of Waterloo, which took place in Belgium on June 18, 1815, marked the final defeat of Napoleon Bonaparte, who conquered much of Europe in the early 19th century.

131. The Battle of Waterloo was fought in the year
A. 1800
B. 1805
C. 1807
D. 1815

Explanation : The Battle of Waterloo, which took place in Belgium on June 18, 1815, marked the final defeat of Napoleon Bonaparte, who conquered much of Europe in the early 19th century.

132. Who said “Liberty consists in obedience to the general will”?
A. Hobbes
B. Rousseau
C. Green

Explanation : Jean-Jacques Rousseau was a Swiss born French political philosopher gave the statement “Liberty consists in obedience to the general will”.

133. Who declared that Bolshevism must be “strangled in its cradle”?
B. Benito Mussolini
C. Franklin
D. Winston Churchill

Explanation : Winston Churchill declared that Bolshevism must be “strangled in its cradle”.

134. When did the British establish colonies in New Zealand?
A. 1814
B. 1840
C. 1872
D. 1830

Explanation : Whalers, missionaries, and traders followed, and in 1840 Britain formally annexed the islands and established New Zealand’s first permanent European settlement at Wellington. Originally part of the Australian colony of New South Wales, New Zealand became a separate colony in 1841 and was made self-governing in 1852.

135. What was the name of the atom bomb dropped in Hiroshima city
A. Fat Boy
B. Fat Man
C. Little Boy
D. Scorpion

Explanation : “Little Boy” was the code name for the type of atomic bomb dropped on the Japanese city of Hiroshima on 6 August 1945 during World War II. It was the first nuclear weapon used in warfare.

136. The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought by Alexander the Great against
A. King Darius III
B. Bessus
C. King Porus
D. Spitamenes

Explanation : The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought in 326 BC between Alexander the Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdom on the banks of the river Jhelum (known to the Greeks as Hydaspes) in the Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day Punjab, Pakistan).

137. Like Vedic Aryans, the custom of Sacrificial fire was also followed by
A. Romans
B. Greeks
C. Iranians
D. All of the above

Explanation : The custom of sacrificial fire was also followed by Romans, Greeks, Iranians along with Vedic Aryans.

138. Constantinople, the capital of Roman Empire was captured by Turks in the year
A. 1385
B. 1415
C. 1453
D. 1469

Explanation : The capital of the Eastern Roman Empire, Constantinople was conquered by the Ottoman Army, under the command Ottoman Sultan Mehmed II on 29th May 1453. With this conquest Ottomans became an Empire and one of the most powerful empires, The Eastern Roman Empire fell and lasted.

139. Pablo Picasso, the famous painter was
A. French
B. Italian
C. Flemish
D. Spanish

Explanation : Pablo Picasso (October 25, 1881 to April 8, 1973) was a Spanish painter, sculptor, printmaker, ceramicist and stage designer considered one of the greatest and most influential artists of the 20th century and the co-creator, along with Georges Braque, of Cubism.

140. The Law of Twelve Tables was concerned with which civilization
A. Egypt
B. Greece
C. Rome
D. China

Explanation : The Twelve Tables (aka Law of the Twelve Tables) was a set of laws inscribed on 12 bronze tablets created in ancient Rome in 451 and 450 BCE. They were the beginning of a new approach to laws where they would be passed by government and written down so that all citizens might be treated equally before them.

141. Of the following, in which did Napolenic France suffer final defeat?
A. Battle of Trafalgar
B. Battle of Wagram
C. Battle of Pyramids
D. Battle of Austerlitz

Explanation : Battle of Trafalgar 1805 was an Naval engagement of Napolenic wars. In this Naval battle British fleet was headed by Lord Nelson who defeated the combined French and Spanish fleets near Strait of Gibraltor. This was the battle which established the naval supermacy of Britishers.

142. The chief advocate of Fascism was
A. Mussolini
C. St. Simon
D. Robert Owen

Explanation : Fascism is an Italian word. It is a political ideology propounded by Benito Mussolini. The three main principles of fascist philosophy are-
(i) Every thing in the state.
(ii) Nothing outside the state.
(iii) Nothing against the state.

143. Indonesia was a colony of which of the following countries?
A. Dutch
B. Portugal
C. Spain
D. Belgium

Explanation : The Dutch East Indies (or Netherlands East-Indies; Dutch: Nederlands(ch)-Indië; Indonesian: Hindia Belanda) was a Dutch colony consisting of what is now Indonesia. It was formed from the nationalised colonies of the Dutch East India Company, which came under the administration of the Dutch government in 1800.

144. When was Seville incorporated into the Christian Kingdom of Castile?
A. 1200
B. 1248
C. 1203
D. 1261

Explanation : During the Muslim rule in Spain, Seville came under the jurisdiction of the Caliphate of Córdoba before becoming the independent Taifa of Seville; later it was ruled by the Muslim Almoravids and the Almohads until finally being incorporated into the Christian Kingdom of Castile under Ferdinand III in 1248.

145. The Industrial Revolution in England represented the climax of the transition from
A. Slavery to feudalism
B. Feudalism to capitalism
C. Capitalism to socialism
D. Socialism to market socialism

Explanation : The increase in trade, mode of production urbanization during industrialization led to the fall of feudalism and the rise of capitalism in England.

146. Who was the first Roman emperor who converted to Christianity
A. Augustus
B. Caligula
C. Constantine the Great
D. Cicero

Explanation : Constantine was the first Roman emperor to convert to Christianity. Although he lived much of his life as a pagan, and later as a catechumen, he joined the Christian faith on his deathbed, being baptised by Eusebius of Nicomedia.

147. Hernan Cortez was a Conquistador from
A. England
B. Holland
C. Portugal
D. Spain

Explanation : Hernán Cortés was a Spanish conquistador and explorer who defeated the Aztec empire and claimed Mexico for Spain. He first set sail to the New World at the age of 19. Cortés later joined an expedition to Cuba. In 1518, he set off to explore Mexico.

148. Which monarch is known as ‘the Sun King’ and also the longest of monarchs of major countries in European history
A. Louis XIV of France
B. Henry III of England
C. Louis XIII of France
D. Edward I of England

Explanation : Louis XIV of France, also known as the Sun-King, ruled for 72 years and 110 days, the longest of any European monarch. He ruled 1643 to 1715.

149. Which one of the following is included in the rights of serfs?
A. The right to work on certain land and pass the lands to their heirs
B. The right to move from one manor to another
C. The right to marry whomever they wanted to marry
D. All the above

Explanation : Serfdom is the status of peasants under feudalism. It was a condition of bondage which developed primarily during the High Middle Ages in Europe. The right to work on certain land and pass the lands to their heirs was included in it.

150. Who is the first crowned Czar (Tsar) of Russia
A. Peter I
B. Ivan IV (the Terrible)
C. Nicholas I

Explanation : The first Russian ruler to be formally crowned as Tsar of Russia was Ivan IV, until then known as Grand Prince of all the Russia’s.

151. The capital city of Umayyad Caliphate was
C. Kahira
D. Damascus

Explanation : The Barada River flows through Damascus. First settled in the second millennium BC, it was chosen as the capital of the Umayyad Caliphate from 661 to 750. After the victory of the Abbasid dynasty, the seat of Islamic power was moved to Baghdad.

152. When was “The Communist Manifesto” written?
A. 1848
B. 1872
C. 1890
D. 1882

Explanation : On February 21, 1848, The Communist Manifesto, written by Karl Marx with the assistance of Friedrich Engels, is published in London by a group of German-born revolutionary socialists known as the Communist League.

153. Slash and burn agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in
A. Venezuela
B. Brazil
C. Central Africa
D. Mexico and Central America

Explanation : The slash and burn agriculture is known as ‘Milpa’ in Mexico and Central America, ‘Conuco’ in Venezuela, ‘Roca’ in Brazil, ‘Masole’ in Central Africa, ‘Ladang’ in Indonesia, ‘Ray’ in Vietnam.

154. In which year British East India Company established Singapore
A. 1808
B. 1819
C. 1832
D. 1849

Explanation : On 6 February 1819, Stamford Raffles, Temenggong Abdu’r Rahman and Sultan Hussein Shah of Johor signed a treaty that gave the British East India Company (EIC) the right to set up a trading post in Singapore.

155. Which dynasty of China began the construction of the Great Wall
A. Ming Dynasty
B. Qin Dynasty
C. Shun Dynasty
D. None of the above

Explanation : Construction of the wall began in the Qin Dynasty (221-206 BCE) under the First Emperor Shi Huangdi and continued over hundreds of years throughout many different dynasties.

156. When did Otto I secure recognition of his title?
A. 936
B. 972
C. 973
D. 967

Explanation : Otto I (23 November 912 – 7 May 973), traditionally known as Otto the Great (German: Otto der Große, Italian: Ottone il Grande), was German king from 936 and Holy Roman Emperor from 962 until his death in 973. He was the oldest son of Henry I the Fowler and Matilda.

157. D-Day is the day when
A. Germany declared war on Britain
B. US dropped the atom bomb on Hiroshima
C. Allied Troops landed in Normandy
D. Germany surrendered to the allies

Explanation : The day (6th June 1944) during the world war-II is referred as D-Day. On this day Allied Troops invaded France. This day is also called ‘the day of the Normandy landings’.

158. The world’s oldest continuously inhabited city is
A. Jerusalem
C. Istanbul
D. Damascus

Explanation : Damascus is the capital city of Syria and the oldest inhabited city in the world.

159. How many years did Elizabeth I reign England
A. 32 Years
B. 36 Years
C. 40 Years
D. 44 Years

Explanation : Queen Elizabeth I (September 7, 1533 to March 24, 1603) claimed the throne in 1558 at the age of 25 and held it until her death 44 years later.

160. Which Goddess was worshipped as the “Goddess of Wisdom” by the Greeks
A. Athena
B. Apollo
C. Zeus
D. Diana

Explanation : Athene, also known as Minerva by the Romans, was the ancient Greek Goddess of wisdom, crafts, weaving, war, and the cultivation of the olive tree. She was particularly worshipped in Athens, which derived its name from that of the goddess.

161. When did Europe capture Jerusalem?
A. 1081
B. 1088
C. 1095
D. 1099

Explanation : John France recounts the against-the-odds narrative of the capture of the Holy City by the forces of the First Crusade. On Tuesday, June 7th, 1099, the First Crusade arrived before the city of Jerusalem and began a siege which would end with its capture on Friday, July 15th.

162. When did Saladin capture Jerusalem?
A. 1118
B. 1187
C. 1193
D. 1203

Explanation : The Siege of Jerusalem was a siege on the city of Jerusalem that lasted from September 20 to October 2, 1187, when Balian of Ibelin surrendered the city to Saladin.

163. When Alexander invaded India, Taxila was ruled by
A. Ambhi
B. Porus
C. Ashoka
D. Bimbisara

Explanation : When Alexander invaded India, Taxila was ruled by Ambhi.

164. When did the Sasanian Empire rise?
A. 226
B. 238
C. 280
D. 285

Explanation : Ardashir was aided by the geography of the province of Fars, which was separated from the rest of Iran. Crowned in 224 at Ctesiphon as the sole ruler of Persia, Ardashir took the title shahanshah, or “King of Kings” (the inscriptions mention Adhur-Anahid as his Banbishnan banbishn, “Queen of Queens”, but her relationship with Ardashir has not been fully established), bringing the 400-year-old Parthian Empire to an end, and beginning four centuries of Sassanid rule.

165. When did the Soviet Union collapse?
A. 1970
B. 1980
C. 1990
D. 1991

Explanation : On December 25, 1991, the Soviet hammer and sickle flag lowered for the last time over the Kremlin, thereafter replaced by the Russian tricolor.

166. Who was the first president of the Republic of China?
A. Chiang Kai-shek
B. Mao Zedong
C. Sun Yat-sen
D. Yuan Shikai

Explanation : After the outbreak of the Wuchang Uprising against Qing rule in 1911, the revolutionaries elected Sun Yat-sen as the “provisional president” of the transitional government, with the Republic of China officially established on January 1, 1912.

167. When was the last Bulgarian noble surrendered to the Byzantine Empire?
A. 924
B. 927
C. 1014
D. 1018

Explanation : From ca. 970 until 1018, a series of conflicts between the Bulgarian Empire and the Byzantine Empire led to the gradual conquest of Bulgaria by the Byzantines, who thus re-established their control over the entire Balkan peninsula for the first time since the 7th-century Slavic invasions. The struggle began with the incorporation of eastern Bulgaria after the Russo–Byzantine War (970–971). Bulgarian resistance was led by the Cometopuli brothers, who based in the unconquered western regions of the Bulgarian Empire led it until its fall under Byzantine rule in 1018.

168. Whom did Henry Tudor defeat in 1485?
A. Edward IV
B. Richard I
C. Richard III
D. Edward V

Explanation : The battle of Bosworth, which took place on 22 August 1485, was the last significant clash of the Wars of the Roses. The armies of Yorkist king Richard III were defeated by Henry Tudor (later Henry VII), which heralded the end of the Plantagenet dynasty and marked the birth of the Tudor age.

169. When did William I conquer England?
A. 1066
B. 1084
C. 1105
D. 1111

Explanation : William built a large fleet and invaded England in September 1066, decisively defeating and killing Harold at the Battle of Hastings on 14 October 1066. After further military efforts William was crowned king on Christmas Day 1066, in London.

170. Who is known as the founder of the Rome city in 753 BC
A. Julius Caesar
B. Augustus
C. Romulus and Remus
D. Camillus

Explanation : According to legend, Ancient Rome was founded by the two brothers, and demi-gods, Romulus and Remus, on 21 April 753 BCE. The legend claims that, in an argument over who would rule the city (or, in another version, where the city would be located) Romulus killed Remus and named the city after himself.

171. Who was the founder of the Satavahana dynasty?
A. Gautamiputra Satakarni
B. Deimachus
C. Nahapana
D. Simuka

Explanation : Founder of the Satavahana dynasty was Simuka. He and his successors established their authority from the mouth of the Krishna to the entire Deccan plateau. According to the Puranas, the Satavahana king killed the last Kanva ruler of Magadha and presumably took possession of his kingdom.

172. When did Henry Tudor seize the crown?
A. 1420
B. 1431
C. 1453
D. 1485

Explanation : Henry VII (Welsh: Harri Tudur; 28 January 1457 – 21 April 1509) was the King of England and Lord of Ireland from his seizure of the crown on 22 August 1485 to his death on 21 April 1509. He was the first monarch of the House of Tudor. He was the last king of England to win his throne on the field of battle.

173. In which year Napoleon I crowned himself as Emperor of France
A. 1799
B. 1804
C. 1807
D. 1812

Explanation : On the 2nd of December 1804 Napoleon crowned himself Emperor Napoleon I at Notre Dame de Paris. According to legend, during the coronation he snatched the crown from the hands of Pope Pius VII and crowned himself, thus displaying his rejection of the authority of the Pontiff.

174. Who united Norway, Denmark and, Sweden?
A. Albert King of Sweden
B. Eric of Pomerania
C. Haakon VI of Norway
D. Margaret I of Denmark

Explanation : Margaret I, (born 1353, Søborg, Den.—died Oct. 28, 1412, Flensburg), regent of Denmark (from 1375), of Norway (from 1380), and of Sweden (from 1389), who, by diplomacy and war, pursued dynastic policies that led to the Kalmar Union (1397), which united Denmark, Norway, and Sweden until 1523 and Denmark and Norway until 1814.

175. The policy of racial discrimination followed in South Africa was called
A. Non-Aligned
B. Civil Rights Movement
C. Apartheid
D. Suffrage

Explanation : Apartheid was the policy of racial segregation and discrimination that governed the relations between the white minority and the non-white majority in South Africa.

176. In which year the Act of Union passed which joined England and Scotland into a single United Kingdom
A. 1702
B. 1707
C. 1715
D. 1756

Explanation : With only minor amendments the Scottish Parliament passed the treaty in January 1707, and the English passed it soon after. The royal assent was given on March 6, and the union went into effect on May 1, 1707.

177. On which island of France, Napoleon was born
A. Saint Helena
B. Corsica
C. Elba
D. Oleron

Explanation : Napoleon was born on 15 August 1769, to Carlo Maria di Buonaparte and Maria Letizia Ramolino, in his family’s ancestral home Casa Buonaparte in Ajaccio, the capital of the island of Corsica. He was their fourth child and third son.

178. Cortez discovered Mexico in the year
A. 1506
B. 1519
C. 1532
D. 1560

Explanation : Cortez discovered Mexico in the year 1519.

179. The Triple Alliance agreement between Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy was formed in the year
A. 1882
B. 1889
C. 1901
D. 1909

Explanation : The Triple Alliance was an agreement between Germany, Austria-Hungary, and Italy. It was formed on 20 May 1882 and renewed periodically until it expired in 1915 during World War I.

180. When did the king Ferdinand VII die?
A. 1808
B. 1829
C. 1833
D. 1898

Explanation : When Ferdinand died in September 1833, Isabella was recognized as the sovereign, but his widow was obliged to lean on the liberals as Don Carlos asserted his claims from Portugal and thus began the First Carlist War.

181. When did the Nanking Massacre start?
A. 1935
B. 1936
C. 1937
D. 1939

Explanation : The Nanking Massacre was an episode of mass murder and mass rape committed by Japanese troops against the residents of Nanking during the Second Sino-Japanese War.

182. When did the Indian Rebellion begin?
A. 1818
B. 1857
C. 1858
D. 1819

Explanation : The Indian Rebellion of 1857 is also called the Indian Mutiny, the Sepoy Mutiny, North India’s First War of Independence or North India’s first struggle for independence. It began on 10 May 1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company’s army.

183. From which port of England, Titanic started its journey
A. Liverpool
B. Southampton
C. Manchester
D. Sunderland

Explanation : Titanic, in full Royal Mail Ship (RMS) Titanic, British luxury passenger liner that sank on April 14–15, 1912, during its maiden voyage, en route to New York City from Southampton, England, killing about 1,500 passengers and ship personnel.

184. Pearl Harbour, where the American Pacific Fleet was stationed, was attacked by Japanese in
A. 1935
B. 1939
C. 1941
D. 1944

Explanation : Pearl Harbor, naval base and headquarters of the U.S. Pacific Fleet, Honolulu county, southern Oahu Island, Hawaii, U.S. in U.S. history the name recalls the surprise Japanese air attack on December 7, 1941, that temporarily crippled the U.S. Fleet and resulted in the United States’ entry into World War II.

185. Who was one of the teachers of Alexander the Great
A. Plato
B. Aristotle
C. Socrates
D. None of the above

Explanation : In 343 B.C., King Philip II hired the philosopher Aristotle to tutor Alexander at the Temple of the Nymphs at Meiza. Over the course of three years, Aristotle taught Alexander and a handful of his friends philosophy, poetry, drama, science and politics.

186. In which country the revolution of 1848 first begins that lead to a series of revolutions
A. Italy
B. Germany
C. French
D. Austria

Explanation : The 1848 Revolutions in the Italian states, part of the wider Revolutions of 1848 in Europe, were organized revolts in the states of the Italian peninsula and Sicily, led by intellectuals and agitators who desired a liberal government.

187. In which year Russian Revolution happened
A. 1912
B. 1915
C. 1917
D. 1921

Explanation : The Russian Revolution was a pair of revolutions in Russia in 1917 which dismantled the Tsarist autocracy and led to the rise of the Soviet Union. The Russian Empire collapsed with the abdication of Emperor Nicholas II and the old regime was replaced by a provisional government during the first revolution of February 1917 (March in the Gregorian calendar; the older Julian calendar was in use in Russia at the time).

188. Which one of the following is not a salient features of the renaissance age
A. Humanism
B. Feudalism
C. Rationalism
D. Scientific Temperament

Explanation : Feudalism is not a salient features of the renaissance age. Feudalism was a combination of legal and military customs in medieval Europe that flourished between the 9th and 15th centuries. Broadly defined, it was a way of structuring society around relationships derived from the holding of land in exchange for service or labour.

189. The Great Wall of China was built by
A. Li-tai-pu
B. Shih Huang-ti
C. Lao-tze
D. Confucius

Explanation : The Great Wall of China was built by the three kingdoms and was rebuilt by at least six dynasties Emperor Qin Shihuang of the Qin Dynasty was the first emperor Unit the Great Wall of China.

190. When did the Battle of France take place?
A. 1940
B. 1941
C. 1945
D. 1942

Explanation : Germany invaded western Europe in May 1940. In the six weeks from 10 May 1940, German forces defeated Allied forces by mobile operations and conquered France, Belgium, Luxembourg and the Netherlands, bringing land operations on the Western Front to an end until 6 June 1944. Italy entered the war on 10 June 1940 and invaded France over the Alps.

191. ‘Anti Semitism’ to Adolf Hitler meant
A. Anti Black policy
B. Anti Jewish policy
C. Anti Protestant policy
D. Anti German policy

Explanation : Anti-Semitism means prejudice a from of racism or hatred against Jews, just because of their Jewish heritage. Nazi leader Hitler was anti-semitic and considered jews as inferior and threat to Aryans.

192. When did the Soviet Union disintegrated into Independent Republics?
A. 1990
B. 1991
C. 1992
D. 1993

Explanation : The Union of Soviet Socialist Republics of Soviet Union dissolved into fifteen separate countries in December 1991.

193. Which country emerged as the biggest colonial power at the end of the nineteenth century?
A. France
B. Spain
C. Britain
D. Germany

Explanation : By the end of nineteenth century Britain emerged as the biggest colonial power. About one fifth of the world’s land and one quarter of world’s population came under the control of the British Empire.

194. John F. Kennedy is the __________th President of United State of America
A. 25
B. 29
C. 32
D. 35

Explanation : Elected in 1960 as the 35th president of the United States, 43-year-old John F. Kennedy became the youngest man and the first Roman Catholic to hold that office.

195. Which king of England was forced to signed the ‘Magna Carta’
A. King Richard I
B. King Louis
C. Henry III
D. King John

Explanation : King John met the barons on June 15, 1215 at Runnymede, a neutral site just west of London. Here the barons demanded that King John sign a document called the Magna Carta guaranteeing them certain rights.

196. Communist Revolutionary Che Guevara was born in the city
A. Havana
B. Rosario
C. Matanzas
D. San Juan

Explanation : Ernesto Guevara de la Serna, known worldwide as Che, was born on June 14, 1928, into a middle-class family in Rosario, northeast Argentina. He had a left-leaning, and literary, family life before beginning his studies in medicine at Buenos Aires University in 1948.

197. When were ancient Olympic games held first?
A. 776 BC
B. 780 BC
C. 790 BC
D. 800 BC

Explanation : Olympic games were first held in 776 BC by the Greeks in honour of God Zeus at Mount Olympus in Greece.

198. When did Japanese invasion of Manchuria begin?
A. 1931
B. 1935
C. 1936
D. 1939

Explanation : The Japanese invasion of Manchuria began on 19 September 1931, when the Kwantung Army of the Empire of Japan invaded Manchuria immediately following the Mukden Incident. After the war, the Japanese established the puppet state of Manchukuo.

199. When was the Fourth Crusade diverted from the Holy Land to Constantinople?
A. 1203
B. 1204
C. 1261
D. 1291

Explanation : The city was captured in 1204 setting up the Latin Empire of Constantinople. The diversion of the Fourth Crusade from the Holy Land to attack, capture, and pillage the Byzantine city of Constantinople divided and dissipated the efforts of the Christians to maintain the war against the Muslims.

200. Independence movement of Vietnam was headed by
A. Ngo Dinh Diem
B. Zhou Enlai
C. Pol Pot
D. Ho Chi Minh

Explanation : Ho Chi Minh was the communist leader and former Prime Minister of Vietnam. He headed the independence movement of Vietnam. In the late 1950s, Ho Chi Minh organized a communist guerrilla movement in the South, called the Viet Cong.

201. When did the Battle of Kosovo take place?
A. 1261
B. 1366
C. 1389
D. 1396

Explanation : The Battle of Kosovo took place on 15 June 1389[A] between an army led by the Serbian Prince Lazar Hrebeljanović and an invading army of the Ottoman Empire under the command of Sultan Murad Hüdavendigâr.

202. When were concave spectacles invented?
A. 1286
B. 1320
C. 1360
D. 1000

Explanation : The first glasses were invented in Italy in the late 13th century. Some people date the invention of glasses to 1286, though some estimate put the invention of glasses somewhere between 1268 and 1300.

203. Where did the practice of Shadow Cabinet originate?
A. United States of America
B. Great Britain
C. Italy
D. France

Explanation : As with most other components of the Australian political system, Shadow Cabinet evolved from an informal process in the British Parliament. From the mid-nineteenth century in Britain, a distinct and organised opposition began to emerge; a leadership group to coordinate its strategy soon followed.

204. When did the second Russian revolution start
A. August 1905
B. February 1917
C. October 1917
D. March 1921

Explanation : On November 6 and 7, 1917 (or October 24 and 25 on the Julian calendar, which is why the event is often referred to as the October Revolution), leftist revolutionaries led by Bolshevik Party leader Vladimir Lenin launched a nearly bloodless coup d’état against the Duma’s provisional government.

205. During which US President period, the Cuban Missile Crisis conflict was occurred
A. Lyndon
B. Johnson
C. Richard Nixon
D. John F. Kennedy

Explanation : The Kennedy administration had been publicly embarrassed by the failed Bay of Pigs Invasion in May 1961, which had been launched under President John F.

206. When was the building of the Parthenon at Athens started?
A. 447 BC
B. 424 BC
C. 404 BC
D. 399 BC

Explanation : Construction began in 447 BC when the Athenian Empire was at the peak of its power. It was completed in 438 BC, although decoration of the building continued until 432 BC. It is the most important surviving building of Classical Greece, generally considered the zenith of the Doric order.

207. When was the Ottonian dynasty replaced by the Salian dynasty?
A. 1024
B. 1084
C. 1105
D. 1111

Explanation : When the Saxon-based Ottonian dynasty of emperors died off with the childless Emperor Henry II, Conrad was elected to succeed him as King in 1024 at the age of 34. Conrad founded his own dynasty of rulers, known as the Salian dynasty, which ruled the Holy Roman Empire for over a century.

208. Who defeated Hannibal at Battle of Zama?
A. Cato the Elder
B. Scipio Aemilianus
C. Scipio Africanus
D. Hasdrubal

Explanation : The Battle of Zama—fought in 202 BC near Zama —marked the end of the Second Punic War. A Roman army led by Publius Cornelius Scipio Africanus, with crucial support from Numidian leader Masinissa, defeated the Carthaginian army led by Hannibal.

209. In which year Christopher Columbus discovered america
A. 1502
B. 1339
C. 1405
D. 1492

Explanation : Christopher Columbus discovered America in 1492. Columbus led his three ships – the Nina, the Pinta and the Santa Maria – out of the Spanish port of Palos on August 3, 1492. His objective was to sail west until he reached Asia (the Indies) where the riches of gold, pearls and spice awaited.

210. Marxian materialism came from the idea of
A. Hegel
B. Feuerbach
C. Drwin
D. Engels

Explanation : Marxian materialism came from the idea of Feuerbach. The Ludwig Feuerbach had rejected. Hegel’s idealestic philosophy and advocated materialism.

211. Porus was defeated by Alexander at the battle of __________
A. Herat
B. Kabul
C. Hydaspes
D. Arbela

Explanation : Porus fought against Alexander the Great in the Battle of the Hydaspes (326 BC), thought to be fought at the site of modern-day Mong, Punjab, which is now part of the modern country of Pakistan. After the defeat and arrest of Porus in the war, Alexander asked Porus how he would like to be treated.

212. Who among the following played a prominent role during the “Reign of Terror” in France?
A. Voltaire
B. Marat
C. Robespierre
D. Montesquieu

Explanation : The period of the French Revolution (5 sep, 1793 – 27 july, 1794) is referred as ‘Reign of Terror’, ‘The Terror’ and ‘French La Terreur’ French lawyer and politician Maximilian Robespierre played a prominent role during the French Revoulution.

213. Who is known as the founder of the ‘Republic of Turkey’
A. Ismet Inonu
B. Fevzi Cakmak
C. Mustafa Kemal Ataturk
D. None of the above

Explanation : The history of modern Turkey begins with the foundation of the republic on October 29, 1923, with Kemal as its first president. The government was formed from the Ankara-based revolutionary group, led by Mustafa Kemal Atatürk and his colleagues.

214. Who has called the Prime Minister Primus inter pares (first among equlas)?
A. Morely
B. Harcourt
D. Lowell

Explanation : Lord Morely described the Prime Minister ‘Primus inter pares’ (first among equal).

215. Who is known as the founder of Tudor dynasty in England
A. Elizabeth I
B. Richard III
C. Henry VII
D. None of the above

Explanation : The dynasty started when Henry Tudor defeated Richard III at the Battle of Bosworth Field. This was the final stage of the Wars of the Roses and made him Henry VII, king of England.

216. Total number of theses written by Martin Luther on Power of Indulgences are
A. 81
B. 87
C. 95
D. 101

Explanation : The Ninety-five Theses or Disputation on the Power of Indulgences is a list of propositions for an academic disputation written in 1517 by Martin Luther, professor of moral theology at the University of Wittenberg, Germany.

217. Who was the author of United States Declaration of Independence
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. George Washington
C. Abraham Lincoln
D. Benjamin Franklin

Explanation : Thomas Jefferson (April 13, 1743 – July 4, 1826) was an American statesman, diplomat, architect, and Founding Father who served as the third president of the United States from 1801 to 1809. Previously, he had served as the second vice president of the United States from 1797 to 1801. The principal author of the Declaration of Independence, Jefferson was a proponent of democracy, republicanism, and individual rights motivating American colonists to break from the Kingdom of Great Britain and form a new nation; he produced formative documents and decisions at both the state and national level.

218. Zend-Avesta is the sacred book of the
A. Parsis
B. Jains
C. Jews
D. Buddhists

Explanation : Zend Avesta is the sacred book of the Parsis(Zoroastrianism). It contains the cosmogony, law and liturgy and the teachings of the prophet Zoroaster.

219. Hitler became the Chancellor of Germany in
A. 1930
B. 1929
C. 1936
D. 1933

Explanation : President Paul von Hindenburg had already appointed Hitler as Chancellor on 30 January 1933 after a series of parliamentary elections and associated backroom intrigues.

220. Who was the chairperson of the Chinese Communist Party at the time of liberation of China?
A. Zhou Enlai
B. Deng Xiaoping
C. Mao Zedong
D. Liu Shaoqi

Explanation : Mao Zedong was Marxist theorist, statesman and soldier who lead the Chinese Communist Party’s revolution from 1935 until his death. The communist party led by Mao established People’s Republic of China on 1st October,1949.

221. When was the Treaty of Versailles signed?
A. 1918
B. 1919
C. 1920
D. 1923

Explanation : Treaty of Versailles, peace document signed at the end of World War I by the Allied and associated powers and by Germany in the Hall of Mirrors in the Palace of Versailles, France, on June 28, 1919; it took force on January 10, 1920.

222. Who is the first European to reach New Zealand
A. Abel Tasman
B. James Cook
C. Willem Janszoon
D. Anthony van Diemen

Explanation : Abel Tasman is officially recognised as the first European to ‘discover’ New Zealand in 1642. His men were the first Europeans to have a confirmed encounter with Māori.

223. When did the USS ‘Panay’ incident happen?
A. 1935
B. 1936
C. 1937
D. 1939

Explanation : The USS Panay incident was a Japanese attack on the American gunboat Panay while it was anchored in the Yangtze River outside Nanking (now spelled Nanjing), China on 12 December 1937. Japan and the United States were not at war at the time.

224. 1911 Revolution of China resulted in
A. Establishment of a Republic
B. Federalism
C. Democracy
D. Increased problems of people

Explanation : The 1911 Revolution was a great victory because it overthrew the Qing Dynasty, ended the autocratic monarchy that had ruled China for more than 2,000 years and led to the establishment of the Republic of China. The 1911 Revolution emancipated the minds of the Chinese people.

225. Who said, “The State exists because crime exists in society, otherwise there would be no need of a State”?
A. Herbert Spencer
B. J.S. Mill
C. John Locke
D. Tocqueville

Explanation : Herbert Spencer, an English philosopher had given the quote “The state exists because crime exist in society”, other wise there would be no need of a state.

226. Who was the last Byzantine Emperor during the fall of Constantinople in 1453
A. Manuel II
B. John V
C. John VIII
D. Constantine XI

Explanation : The fall of Constantinople was when the Ottoman Empire took over Constantinople, the capital city of the Byzantine Empire, on 29 May 1453. The Ottomans were commanded by 21-year-old Ottoman Sultan Mehmed II, who defeated an army commanded by Byzantine Emperor Constantine XI Palaiologos.

227. Where did the February Revolution take place
A. Moscow
C. Paris
D. London

Explanation : In Russia, the February Revolution (known as such because of Russia’s use of the Julian calendar) begins on this day in 1917, when riots and strikes over the scarcity of food erupt in Petrograd (now St. Petersburg). By 1917, most Russians had lost faith in the leadership ability of the czarist regime.

228. When was the construction of Great Wall of China started?
A. 294 BC
B. 252 BC
C. 249 BC
D. 221 BC

Explanation : When Emperor Qin Shi Huang ordered construction of the Great Wall around 221 B.C., the labor force that built the wall was made up largely of soldiers and convicts. It is said that as many as 400,000 people died during the wall’s construction; many of these workers were buried within the wall itself.

229. “The word impossible is found, in the dictionary of fools” was the famous quote of
A. Hitler
B. Alexander the Great
C. Julius Caesar
D. Napoleon

Explanation : French Emperor Napoleon Bonaparte quoted “The word impossible is found in the dictionary of fools.”

230. Who wrote the book Ninety-Five Theses, which is regarded as initial catalyst for the Protestant Reformation
A. Michelangelo
B. Martin Luther
C. John Calvin
D. Huldrych Zwingli

Explanation : “Disputation of Martin Luther and the Power and Efficacy of Indulgences” became the principle catalyst for the coming Protestant Reformation. This became known as the Ninety-Five Theses and was enclosed in a letter protesting indulgences that Luther wrote to Archbishop Albrecht in October of 1517.

231. Which one was the last city founded in the Russian Empire
A. Arkhangelsk
B. Vologda
C. Veliky Novgorod
D. Murmansk

Explanation : Founded just a year before the Bolshevik Revolution on Oct. 4, 1916, Murmansk was initially named Romanov-on-Murman and was actually the last city established in the Russian Empire.

232. Who founded the city of Singapore?
A. Francis Light
B. Herman Willem Daendels
C. Lee Kuan Yew
D. Stamford Raffles

Explanation : Sir Thomas Stamford Bingley Raffles, FRS (6 July 1781 – 5 July 1826) was a British statesman, Lieutenant-Governor of the Dutch East Indies (1811–1816) and Lieutenant-Governor of Bencoolen (1818–1824), best known for his founding of Singapore and the British Malaya.

233. In which year Francis II, founded the Empire of Austria
A. 1804
B. 1809
C. 1820
D. 1822

Explanation : In 1804, the Holy Roman Emperor Francis II, who was also ruler of the lands of the Habsburg Monarchy, founded the Empire of Austria, in which all his lands were included

234. Who is known as the founder of the Durrani Empire
A. Timur Shah Durrani
B. Zaman Shah Durrani
C. Mahmud Shah Durrani

Explanation : Ahmad Shāh Durrānī (c. 1722 – 16 October 1772) was the founder of the Durrani Empire and is regarded as the founder of the modern state of Afghanistan.

235. Which one is the first dynasty that ruled China
A. Shang dynasty
B. Xia dynasty
C. Qin dynasty
D. Ming dynasty

Explanation : The Xia Dynasty was the first Chinese Dynasty. The Xia ruled from around 2070 BC to 1600 BC when the Shang Dynasty took control.

236. Who was the first Tudor monarch of England
A. Elizabeth I
B. Mary I
C. Henry VII
D. Edward VI

Explanation : Henry VII (Welsh: Harri Tudur; 28 January 1457 – 21 April 1509) was the King of England and Lord of Ireland from his seizure of the crown on 22 August 1485 to his death on 21 April 1509. He was the first monarch of the House of Tudor.

237. In which year, the RMS Titanic sank in the North Atlantic Ocean after colliding with an iceberg
A. 1905
B. 1910
C. 1911
D. 1912

Explanation : RMS Titanic was a British passenger liner that sank in the North Atlantic Ocean in 1912, after colliding with an iceberg during her maiden voyage from Southampton to New York City.

238. Who was the first chairman of Central Committee of the Communist Party of China
A. Mao Zedong
B. Liu Shaoqi
C. Hua Guofeng
D. Hu Yaobang

Explanation : Mao Zedong was the first to hold the office of State Chairman. He was elected at the founding session of the National People’s Congress in 1955. At the 2nd NPC in 1959, Mao was succeeded by Liu Shaoqi, first Vice Chairman of the Communist Party.

239. Absolute sovereign power of the Monarch was advocated by
A. Thomas Hobbes
B. Rousseau
C. John Locke
D. Karl Marx

Explanation : Thomas Hobbes is considered one of the founder of Modern Political Theory. He advocated the sovereign power of Monarch i.e. a monarch would have unlimited power to rule and punish.

240. Which one is the last of the ruling Chinese dynasties
A. Zhou Dynasty
B. Shang Dynsaty
C. Han Dynasty
D. Qing Dynasty

Explanation : The Qing Dynasty was the final imperial dynasty in China, lasting from 1644 to 1912. It was an era noted for its initial prosperity and tumultuous final years, and for being only the second time that China was not ruled by the Han people.

241. Which of the following group of thinkers influenced Fascism?
A. Plato Machiavelli and Herbet Spencer
B. Aristotle St Augustine and T.H Green
C. Kant Fichte Hegel and Rosenberg
D. Karl Marx Engels and Lenin

Explanation : Kant, Fichte, Hegel and Rosenberg are idealist and supposed authority of state.

242. Napoleon-I and the Duke of Wellington fought the famous
A. Battle of Austerlitz
B. Battle of Leipzig
C. Battle of Borodini
D. Battle of Waterloo

Explanation : The Battle of Waterloo was fought on Sunday, 18 June 1815 near Waterloo in Belgium, part of the United Kingdom of the Netherlands at the time. A French army under the command of Napoleon Bonaparte was defeated by two of the armies of the Seventh Coalition: a British-led allied army under the command of the Duke of Wellington, and a Prussian army under the command of Field Marshal Blücher. The battle marked the end of the Napoleonic Wars.

243. Who was the king during the french revolution
A. Napoleon
B. Louis XV
C. Louis XVI
D. Charles IX

Explanation : Louis XVI (23 August 1754 – 21 January 1793), born Louis-Auguste, was the last King of France before the fall of the monarchy during the French Revolution. He was referred to as Citizen Louis Capet during the four months before he was guillotined.

244. Genghis Khan died in the year
A. 1209
B. 1219
C. 1227
D. 1232

Explanation : Genghis Khan died in August 1227, during the fall of Yinchuan, which is the capital of Western Xia. The exact cause of his death remains a mystery, and is variously attributed to being killed in action against the Western Xia, illness, falling from his horse, or wounds sustained in hunting or battle.

245. Taoism, is an ancient tradition of Philosophy and religious belief deeply rooted in
A. Taiwanese custom and world view
B. Chinese custom and world view
C. Japanese custom and world view
D. Vietnamese custom and world view

Explanation : Taoism, is the ancient religion of China. It is an ancient tradition of Philosophy and religious deeply rooted in chinese custom and world view. Dao de Jing (The way of power and virtue scripture) is the main religious text of Taoism.

246. Queen Elizabeth I of England belongs to which dynasty
A. Stuart
B. York
C. Tudor
D. Normandy

Explanation : Queen Elizabeth I of England belongs to Tudor dynasty. Elizabeth was born in 1533 at Greenwich, England. She was the daughter of King Henry VIII of England and his second wife, Anne Boleyn. She had an older half-sister Mary, and, later, a younger half-brother Edward. Elizabeth was given a good education.

247. With the fall of which among the following the French Revolution began?
A. Bastille
B. Communes
C. Jacobin Club
D. Pilinitz

Explanation : Bastille was a fortress in Paris, it was the most hated symbol of Monarchy and was used as the prison to held political prisoners on 14 July, 1789, Revolution arise steamed Bastille. The fall of Bastille was the flash point of the French Revolution.

248. When did the Space Age bring the first human spaceflight?
A. 1961
B. 1970
C. 1975
D. 1980

Explanation : The first human spaceflight was launched by the Soviet Union on 12 April 1961 as a part of the Vostok program, with cosmonaut Yuri Gagarin aboard. Humans have been continuously present in space for 18 years and 121 days on the International Space Station.

249. Who speaks of Cabinet system as “the steering wheel of the ship of state”?
A. Lowell
B. Muin
C. Marriot
D. Bagehot

Explanation : John Muin a Scottish – American naturalist considered the cabinet system is the steering wheel of the ship of state.

250. Synagogue is the place of worship of
A. Zorastrianism
B. Taoism
C. Judaism
D. Shintoism

Explanation : Synagogue is a community house of worship in Judaism. The synagogue is the Jewish place of worship, but is also used as a place to study, and often as a community centre as well.

251. From which European country did Belgium gain independence in 1830
A. Italy
B. England
C. Portugal
D. Netherlands

Explanation : Belgium declared its independence from the Netherlands, and it was recognized in 1831 as a separate nation. For several years the Greeks had been fighting for their independence from the Ottoman Empire, and in 1832 the European powers recognized Greece as an independent sovereign state.

252. In Greek mythology, Apollo is the god of what?
A. Prophecy
B. Medicine
C. Love
D. Peace

Explanation : The national divinity of the Greeks, Apollo has been variously recognized as a god of music, truth and prophecy, healing, the sun and light, plague, poetry, and more. Apollo is the son of Zeus and Leto, and has a twin sister, the chaste huntress Artemis.

253. What is the name of the World’s smallest republic which has an area of 21 sq. km only?
A. Nauru
B. Palermo
C. Vatican City
D. Namur

Explanation : Nauru is the world’s smallest republic. It has an area of 21 sq. km only and 10,084 residents.

254. When did the Battle of Crecy take place?
A. 1327
B. 1337
C. 1346
D. 1376

Explanation : It was the first of three famous English successes during the conflict, followed by Poitiers in 1356 and Agincourt in 1415. The battle was fought on 26 August 1346 near Crécy, in northern France.

255. When did the Nawabs of Bengal surrender to the British East India Company?
A. 1707
B. 1751
C. 1757
D. 1765

Explanation : In the Battle of Plassey 1757, Nawab of Bengal surrendered his dominions to the Company. Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Biharin 1765.

256. What according to Communism is the chief enemy of the society?
A. Private property
B. Religion
C. Surplus value
D. Capitalist class

Explanation : According to communism capitalist class is the chief enemy of the society.

257. When did China start the Civil Services Examination?
A. 605
B. 1905
C. 1920
D. 1949

Explanation : China started the civil services examination in 605 A.D. They established the system of chinese imperial examination to select the candidates for the state bureaucracy.

258. Who was the first Chancellor of Germany
A. Leo von Caprivi
C. Otto von Bismarck
D. Hans Luther

Explanation : The office was created in the North German Confederation in 1867, when Otto von Bismarck became the first Chancellor. With the unification of Germany and establishment of the German Empire in 1871, the Confederation evolved into a German nation-state and the office became known as the Chancellor of Germany.

259. Who was the first to distill petroleum?
A. Benjamin Silliman
B. Cathryn J. Prince
C. Edward Hitchcock
D. James Dwight Dana

Explanation : Benjamin Silliman Sr had been the first person to use the process of fractional distillation, and, in 1854, Benjamin Silliman Jr became the first person to fractionate petroleum by distillation.

260. Who founded the Great Seljuq Empire in 1037
A. Seljuq Beg
B. Tughril Beg
C. Alp Arslan
D. Malik-Shah I

Explanation : The Seljuk empire was founded by Tughril Beg (1016–1063) in 1037. From their homelands near the Aral Sea, the Seljuks advanced first into Khorasan and then into mainland Persia, before eventually conquering eastern Anatolia.

261. Which of the following countries is regarded as the home of ‘Fabian Socialism’?
A. Russia
B. England
C. France
D. Italy

Explanation : The Fabian society was the socialist that was founded in 1884. The society was established with its aim of establishing democratic socialist state in Great Britain.

262. Who defined the “Long Nineteenth Century”?
A. Benedict Anderson
B. Ernest Gallner
C. Eric Hobsbawm
D. Karl Marx

Explanation : The long 19th century is a term coined for the period between the years 1789 and 1914 by Russian literary critic and author Ilya Ehrenburg and British Marxist historian and author Eric Hobsbawm.

263. Who brought the education available in the monasteries of Northumbria?
A. Alcuin
B. Bede
C. Einhard
D. Rabanus Maurus

Explanation : Alcuin is also called Ealhwine, Albinus or Flaccus. He was an English scholar, ecclesiastic, poet and teacher from York.

264. Who was known as the Morning star of Renaissance
A. Montesquieu
B. Dante
C. Shakespeare
D. Geoffrey Chaucer

Explanation : Edward Albert calls him “The earliest of the great moderns” Chaucer stands at the end of the Middle ages and the beginning of the modern age. He has been called “The Morning Star of the Renaissance ” His poetry reflects the medieval spirit. It also reflects the Italian Renaissance.

265. The National Emblem of Italy is
A. Eagle
B. White Eagle
C. White Lily
D. Lily

Explanation : The National Emblem of Italy is White Lily.

266. When did Abyssinian crisis end?
A. 1935
B. 1936
C. 1937
D. 1939

Explanation : Abyssinia crisis resulted from the ongoing conflict between the Kingdom of Italy and the Empire of Ethiopia. It ended in 1937.

267. When was Byzantines recaptured?
A. 1204
B. 1261
C. 1291
D. 1225

Explanation : By 1291 all the crusader states had been captured or forced from the mainland. In 1261 the Byzantines recaptured Constantinople and re-established the Byzantine Empire.

268. Which philosopher said about the Holy Roman Empire that “it is neither Holy nor Roman nor Empire”
A. Voltaire
B. Montesquieu
C. Diderot
D. Rousseau

Explanation : Voltaire was once asked what he thought about the Holy Roman Empire. His witty response was that “it is neither holy, nor Roman nor empire.

269. Who was the second President of America
A. Thomas Jefferson
B. Andrew Jackson
C. Abraham Lincoln

Explanation : John Adams (1735-1826) was a leader of the American Revolution, and served as the second U.S. president from 1797 to 1801. He then served a term as the nation’s second president. He was defeated for another term by Thomas Jefferson (1743-1826).

270. The Wailing wall is situated in
A. Berlin
B. Beijing
C. Jerusalem
D. Tel Aviv

Explanation : The Wailing wall, Jerusalem is the holy site of Jews. It derived its name from Arabic term el- Mabka which means “place of weeping”.

271. When was the kingdom between the Rhine and Rhone rivers created?
A. 843
B. 864
C. 876
D. 877

Explanation : The kingdom between the Rhine and Rhone rivers was created in 843. A kingdom between the Rhine and Rhone rivers was created for Lothair by the Treaty of Verdun. It was first of the treaties that divided the Carolingian Empire into three kingdoms.

272. Ho Chi Minh was a leader of
A. North Vietnam
B. South Vietnam
C. North Korea
D. South Korea

Explanation : Since 1945, Ho Chi Minh became a prime minister and president of the Democratic Republic of Vietnam (North Vietnam).

273. Who is the Duchess of Cornwall?
A. Diana
B. Camilla
C. Anne
D. Margaret

Explanation : Camilla, Duchess of Cornwall, GCVO, CSM, PC is a member of the British royal family. She is the second wife of Charles, Prince of Wales, heir apparent to the British throne. Instead of using the title Princess of Wales, she uses the title Duchess of Cornwall, her husband’s secondary designation.

274. Who was the first Roman Emperor
A. Caligula
B. Claudius
C. Augustus
D. Nero

Explanation : Augustus; 23 September 63 BC – 19 August AD 14 was a Roman statesman and military leader who was the first Emperor of the Roman Empire, controlling Imperial Rome from 27 BC until his death in AD 14.

275. When did the atomic bombings of Hiroshima and Nagasaki happen?
A. 1941
B. 1942
C. 1945
D. 1940

Explanation : During the final stage of World War II, the United States detonated two nuclear weapons over the Japanese cities of Hiroshima and Nagasaki on August 6 and 9, 1945, respectively.

276. In which year the Battle of the Hydaspes was fought between Alexander and Porus
A. 302 BC
B. 310 BC
C. 312 BC
D. 326 BC

Explanation : The Battle of the Hydaspes was fought in 326 BC between Alexander the Great and King Porus of the Paurava kingdom on the banks of the river Jhelum (known to the Greeks as Hydaspes) in the Punjab region of the Indian subcontinent (modern-day Punjab, Pakistan).

277. Japan’s Parliament is known as
A. Diet
B. Dail
C. Yuan
D. Shora

Explanation : The National Diet is Japan’s bicameral legislature. It is composed of a lower house called the House of Representatives, and an upper house, called the House of Councillors. Both houses of the Diet are directly elected under parallel voting systems.

278. John Locke profounded
A. Social Contract Theory
B. Theory of Divine Rights
C. Patriarchal Theory
D. Theory of Force

Explanation : A study of the ‘Social Contract Theory’ as given by John Locke in his famous book Two Treatises on Civil Government (1690) wherein he emphasizes on ‘Law’ to be an expression of the will of the people.

279. ‘Mein Kampf’ is the autobiography of
A. Maxim Gorky
C. Oscar Wilde
D. Winston Churchill

Explanation : ‘Mein Kampf is a 1925 autobiographical book by Nazi Party leader Adolf Hitler. The work describes the process by which Hitler became antisemitic and outlines his political ideology and future plans for Germany.

280. When was the first communist manifesto written by Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels
A. 1848
B. 1859
C. 1872
D. 1890

Explanation : The Communist Manifesto (originally Manifesto of the Communist Party) is an 1848 political pamphlet by the German philosophers Karl Marx and Friedrich Engels.

281. Which pharaoh build the largest pyramid known as Great Pyramid of Giza
A. Sneferu
B. Tutankhamun
C. Khufu
D. None of the above

Explanation : Egyptologists believe the pyramid was built as a tomb for the Fourth Dynasty Egyptian pharaoh Khufu (often Hellenized as “Cheops”) and was constructed over a 20-year period. Khufu’s vizier, Hemiunu (also called Hemon) is believed by some to be the architect of the Great Pyramid.

A. 1924
B. 1922
C. 1920
D. 1921

Explanation : Vladimir Ilyich Ulyanov (22 April 1870 – 21 January 1924), better known by the alias Lenin, was a Russian revolutionary, politician, and political theorist. He Died in 21 January 1924.

283. East Timor, in Indonesian, Archipelago, was the former colony of
A. Dutch
B. English
C. French
D. Portuguese

Explanation : The former Dutch colony emerged as the independent Republic of Indonesia in the 1950s, while East Timor remained under Portuguese control until 1975. While 90% of Indonesians are Muslim, the East Timorese are primarily Roman Catholic, a result of Portugese influence.

284. Who was the last Emperor (Tsar) of Russia
A. Alexander III
B. Nicholas II
C. Alexander II
D. Nicholas I

Explanation : Nicholas II or Nikolai II, known as Saint Nicholas the Passion-Bearer in the Russian Orthodox Church, was the last Emperor of Russia, ruling from 1 November 1894 until his forced abdication on 15 March 1917.

285. The famous painting ‘Last Supper’ is a creation of
A. Michaelangelo
B. Vincent van Gogh
C. Leonardo Da Vinci
D. Sandro Botticelli

Explanation : The Last Supper is a late 15th-century mural painting by Italian artist Leonardo da Vinci housed by the refectory of the Convent of Santa Maria delle Grazie in Milan, Italy. It is one of the western world’s most recognizable paintings.

286. In which country the Head of the State gets his office by the law of hereditary succession?
A. China
B. Sri Lanka
C. France
D. Japan

Explanation : The Emperor of Japan is the head of the Imperial Family and the head of state of Japan. Under the 1947 constitution, he is defined as “the symbol of the State and of the unity of the people.” Historically, he was also the highest authority of the Shinto religion.

287. Who said “Spanish ulcer was the cause of my ruin”
A. Matternich
B. Napoleon
C. Marshal Fouch
D. Chamberlain

Explanation : Napoleon said “Spanish ulcer was the cause of my ruin”.

288. Who is known as the Artist of the world famous painting ‘Mona Lisa’
A. Filippo Brunelleschi
B. Michelangelo
C. Vincent van Gogh
D. Leonardo da Vinci

Explanation : The title of the painting, which is known in English as Mona Lisa, comes from a description by Renaissance art historian Giorgio Vasari, who wrote “Leonardo undertook to paint, for Francesco del Giocondo, the portrait of Mona Lisa, his wife.”

289. In which year Bastille of Paris stormed by the people which lead to the French Revolution
A. 1746
B. 1779
C. 1789
D. 1808

Explanation : The Storming of the Bastille took place in Paris, France on July 14, 1789. This violent attack on the government by the people of France signaled the start of the French Revolution. The Bastille was a fortress built in the late 1300s to protect Paris during the Hundred Years’ War.

290. “The Three Emperors League” 1873 was also known as
A. Dreikaiserbund Treaty
B. Triple Alliance
C. Reinsurance Treaty
D. The Dual Alliance

Explanation : The Three Emperors’ League, or Dreikaiserbund, was part of the diplomatic web created by Otto Bismarck (1815–1898) to keep France isolated. An initial agreement between Alexander II of Russia, William I of Prussia, and Francis-Joseph of Austria-Hungary was reached in September 1873.

291. When was the League of Nations established?
A. In 1918
B. In 1920
C. In 1939
D. In 1914

Explanation : League of Nation was estalibished in 1920 at the end of first world war as a result of Paris Peace Conference. The League of Nations was an international organization, headquartered in Geneva, Switzerland, created after the First World War to provide a forum for resolving international disputes.

292. The declaration that Democracy is a Government ‘of the people, by the pebple’ was made by
A. George Washington
B. Winston Churchill
C. Abraham Lincoln
D. Theodore Roosevelt

Explanation : The words of Abraham Lincoln to honour the soldiers that sacrificed their lives in order “that government of the people, by the people, for the people, shall not perish from the earth” were spoken at Gettysburg, but these words apply as well to the countless soldiers that died for the cause of democracy in the following 150 years.

293. Who was the commander of ‘Seventh Coalition’ army that defeated Napoleon in the Battle of Waterloo
A. Arthur Wellesley
B. Jean-de-Dieu Soult
C. Robert Clive
D. John Carnac

Explanation : Coalition under the command of British Field Marshall Arthur Wellesley, Duke of Wellington, defeated Napoleon Bonaparte’s Imperial French Army at the Battle of Waterloo, Belgium.

294. The city of Alexandria was founded by Alexander the Great in the year
A. 331 BC
B. 325BC
C. 322 BC
D. 365 BC

Explanation : Alexandria is believed to have been founded by Alexander the Great in April 331 BC as Alexandreia. Alexander’s chief architect for the project was Dinocrates. Alexandria was intended to supersede Naucratis as a Hellenistic center in Egypt, and to be the link between Greece and the rich Nile valley.

295. World renowned philosopher Karl Marx was born in the country
A. Austria
B. Germany
C. Russia
D. Italy

Explanation : Karl Marx (German: 5 May 1818 – 14 March 1883) was a German philosopher, economist, historian, sociologist, political theorist, journalist and socialist revolutionary. Born in Trier, Germany, Marx studied law and philosophy at university. He married Jenny Von Westphalen in 1843.

296. Who was the original inventor of roller spinning?
A. John Kay
B. Lewis Paul
C. Richard Arkwright
D. Samuel Crompton

Explanation : Lewis Paul was the original inventor of roller spinning, the basis of the water frame for spinning cotton in a cotton mill.

297. Which one was the slogan during French Revolution
A. Liberty Authority Fraternity
B. Liberty Equality Fraternity
C. Liberty Equality Freedom
D. Liberty Law Fraternity

Explanation : Liberty, equality, fraternity. They cannot be treated separately or weighed one against the other. Liberty among unequals is an oxymoron.

298. When was the commercial colonization of India commenced?
A. 1707
B. 1751
C. 1765
D. 1757

Explanation : Company rule in India (sometimes, Company Raj, “raj”, lit. “rule” in Hindustani) refers to the rule or dominion of the British East India Company over parts of the Indian subcontinent. This is variously taken to have commenced in 1757, after the Battle of Plassey, when Mir Jafar, the new Nawab of Bengal enthroned by Robert Clive, became a puppet in the Company’s hands; in 1765, when the Company was granted the diwani, or the right to collect revenue, in Bengal and Bihar; or in 1773, when the Company established a capital in Calcutta, appointed its first Governor-General, Warren Hastings, and became directly involved in governance.

299. Who founded the philosophy of Stoicism in Athens?
A. Chrysippus
B. Cleanthes
C. Epictetus
D. Zeno of Citium

Explanation : Stoicism is a school of Hellenistic philosophy founded by Zeno of Citium in Athens in the early 3rd century BC. While Stoic physics are largely drawn from the teachings of the philosopher Heraclitus, they are heavily influenced by certain teachings of Socrates.

300. How did Saint Boniface help to shape the German church?
A. Preaching against divorce incest and polygamy
B. Preaching against the importance of monasteries
C. Writing the epic ‘Beowulf’
D. Writing ‘The Rule of Saint Benedict’

Explanation : Saint Boniface help to shape the German church by Preaching against divorce, incest, and polygamy.

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Electricity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

## Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 12 Electricity

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Question 1. A wire of length /, made of material resistivity ρ is cut into two equal parts. The resistivity of the two parts are equal to,
(a) ρ
(b) $$\frac{\rho}{2}$$
(c) 2 ρ
(d) 4 ρ

Explanation:
(a) Resistivity of the material depends only on the nature of material not dimensions.

2. The temperature of a conductor is increased. The graph best showing the variation of its resistance is

Explanation:
(a) Resistance is directly proportional to temperature of the conductor.

3. A battery of 10 volt carries 20,000 C of charge through a resistance of 20 Ω. The work done in 10 seconds is
(a) 2 × 103 joule
(b) 2 × 105joule
(c) 2 × 104 joule
(d) 2 × 102 joule

Explanation:
(b) W= qV= 20000 × 10 = 2,00, 000 = 2 × 105 J

4. A boy records that 4000 joule of work is required to transfer 10 coulomb of charge between two points of a resistor of 50 Ω. The current passing through it is
(a) 2 A
(b) 4 A
(c) 8 A
(d) 16 A

Explanation:
(c) Work done in transferring the charge
W= qV = qlR …….. (V = IR)

5. The resistance whose V-I graph is given below is

Explanation:
(b) Resistance = slope line of V-I graph =

6. To get 2 Ω resistance using only 6 Ω resistors, the number of them required is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 6

Explanation:
(b) Three resistors of 2 Ω is required to get 6 Ω because resultant is more than individual so they all must be connected in series.

Electricity MCQ Question 7. Two wires of same length and area made of two materials of resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 are connected in series to a source of potential V. The equivalent resistivity for the same area is

Electric Current And Its Effects Class 7 MCQ With Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) For same length and area of cross-section R ∝ p.
For series combination, equivalent resistance is
Rs = R1 + R2
⇒ Ps = ρ1 + ρ2

8. Two devices are connected between two points say A and B in parallel. The physical quantity that will remain the same between the two points is
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) resistance
(d) None of these

Explanation:
(b) In parallel combination, voltage remains same across two points.

9. The least resistance obtained by using 2 Ω, 4 Ω, 1 Ω and 100 Ω is
a) < 100 Ω
(b) < 4 Ω
(c) < 1 Ω (d) > 2 Ω

Electricity Class 10 MCQ With Answer: cExplanation:
(c) In parallel combination, the equivalent resistance is smaller than the least resistance used in the circuit.

10. Two wires of same length and area, made of two materials of resistivity ρ1 and ρ2 are connected in parallel V to a source of potential. The equivalent resistivity for the same length and area is

Explanation:
(b) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination is $$\frac{1}{R_{P}}=\frac{1}{R_{1}}+\frac{1}{R_{2}}$$
For the same length and area of cross-section, R ∝ p (resistivity)

Electricity Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 11. Calculate the current flows through the 10 Ω resistor in the following circuit.

(a) 1.2 A
(b) 0.6 A
(c) 0.2 A
(d) 2.0 A

Explanation:
(b) In parallel, potential difference across each resistor will remain same. So, current through 10 Ω resistor
I = $$\frac{V}{R}=\frac{6}{10}$$ = 0.6 A

12. Two resistors are connected in series gives an equivalent resistance of 10 Ω. When connected in parallel, gives 2.4 Ω. Then the individual resistance are
(a) each of 5 Ω
(b) 6 Ω and 4 Ω
(c) 7 Ω and 4 Ω
(d) 8 Ω and 2 Ω

Explanation:
(b) In series, Rs = R1 + R2 = 10 Ω

13. If R1 and R2 be the resistance of the filament of 40 W and 60 W respectively operating 220 V, then
(a) R1 < R2
(b) R2 < R1
(c) R1 = R2
(d) R1 ≥ R2

Explanation:
(b) Using power, P = $$\frac{V^{2}}{R}$$ or R = $$\frac{V^{2}}{P}$$
For the same voltage, R ∝ $$\frac{1}{P}$$
More the power, lesser the resistance.
Accordingly, R2 < R1

Electricity MCQ Class 10 Question 14. The resistance of hot filament of the bulb is about 10 times the cold resistance. What will be the resistance of 100 W-220 V lamp, when not in use?
(a) 48 Ω
(b) 400 Ω
(c) 484 Ω
(d) 48.4 Ω

Explanation:

15. If P and V are the power and potential of device, the power consumed with a supply potential V1 is

Explanation:

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity Question 16. A coil in the heater consume power P on passing current. If it is cut into halves and joined in parallel, it will consume power
(a) P
(b) $$\frac{P}{2}$$
(c) 2P
(d) 4P

Explanation:

17. A fuse wire repeatedly gets burnt when used with a good heater. It is advised to use a fuse wire of
(a) more length
(c) less length

Explanation:
(d) In order to get the working of heater properly, fused wire of higher rating must be used.

18. A cooler of 1500 W, 200 volt and a fan of 500 W, 200 volt are to be used from a household supply. The rating of fuse to be used is
(a) 2.5 A
(b) 5.0 A
(c) 7.5 A
(d) 10 A

Explanation:
(d) Total power used, P = P1 + P1 = 1500 + 500 = 2000 W.
Current drawn from the supply,

19. The effective resistance between A and B is

(a) 4Ω
(b) 6Ω
(c) May be 10 Ω
(d) Must be 10 Ω

Explanation:
(a) 6 Ω is shorted so effective resistance is 4 Ω.

MCQ Electricity Class 10 Question 20. A cell, a resistor, a key, and an ammeter are arranged as shown in the circuit diagrams. The current recorded in the ammeter will be [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) maximum in (i)
(b) maximum in (ii)
(c) maximum in (iii)
(d) same in all the cases

Explanation:
(d) Ammeter is always connected in series with in the circuit. The reading is independent from its location.

21. A current of 1 A is drawn by a filament of an electric bulb. Number of electrons passing through a cross-section of the filament in 16 seconds would be roughly [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 1020
(b) 1016
(c) 1018
(d) 1023

Explanation:
(a) Q = ne and Q = It
∴ ne = It

22. What is the maximum resistance which can be made using five resistors each of 1/5 W? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 1/5 Ω
(b) 10 Ω
(c) 5 Ω
(d) 1 Ω

Explanation:
(d) Series combination provide the maximum resistance.

23. A cylindrical conductor of length l and uniform area of cross-section A has resistance R. Another conductor of length 2l and resistance R of the same material has area of cross-section [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) A/2
(b) 3A/2
(c) 2A
(d) 3A

Explanation:

24. A student carries out an experiment and plots the V-I graph of three samples of nichrome wire with resistances R1 R2 and R3 respectively. Which of the following is hue? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

(a) R1 = R2 = R3
(b) R1 > R2 > R3
(c) R3 > R2 > R1
(d) R2 > R3 > R1

Explanation:
(c) Current is inversely proportional to the resistance for the same potential. So higher resistance would allow less current to pass through its which is shown by R3 as I3 < I2 < I1
∴ R3 >R2 > R1

25. If the current I through a resistor is increased by 100 % (assume that temperature remains unchanged), the increase in power dissipated will be [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 100%
(b) 200%
(c) 300 %
(d) 400 %

Explanation:

26. The resistivity does not change if [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) the material is changed
(b) the temperature is changed
(c) the shape of the resistor is changed
(d) both material and temperature are changed

Explanation:
(c) The resistivity does not change if the shape of resistor is changed because nature of material will remain same.

27. In an electrical circuit two resistors of 2 Ω and 4 Ω respectively are connected in series to a 6 V battery. The heat dissipated by the 4 Ω resistor in 5 s will be [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) 5 J
(b) 10 J
(c) 20 J
(d) 30 J

Explanation:
(c) Total resistance of the combination
Rs = 2 + 4 = 6 Ω
Current, I = $$\frac{V}{R_{s}}=\frac{6}{6}$$= 1
Heat dissipation in 4 Ω resistor,
H = I²Rt= 1² × 4 × 5 = 20 J

28. Electric potential is a:
(a) scalar quantity
(b) vector quantity
(c) neither scalar nor vector
(d) sometimes scalar and sometimes vector

Electricity Question 29. 1 mV is equal to:
(a) 10 volt
(b) 1000 volt
(c) 10-3 volt
(d) 10-6 volt

Electricity MCQ Question 30. Coulomb is the SI unit of:
(a) charge
(b) current
(c) potential difference
(d) resistance

31. When electric current is passed, electrons move from:
(a) high potential to low potential.
(b) low potential to high potential.
(c) in the direction of the current.
(d) against the direction of the current.

32. The heating element of an electric iron is made up of:
(a) copper
(b) nichrome
(c) aluminium
(d) iron

33. The electrical resistance of insulators is
(a) high
(b) low
(c) zero
(d) infinitely high

34. Electrical resistivity of any given metallic wire depends upon
(a) its thickness
(b) its shape
(c) nature of the material
(d) its length

Electricity Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 35. Which of the following is not correctly matched?

36. Electric power is inversely proportional to
(a) resistance
(b) voltage
(c) current
(d) temperature

MCQ Chapter Electricity Class 10 Question 37. What is the commercial unit of electrical energy?
(a) Joules
(b) Kilojoules
(c) Kilowatt-hour
(d) Watt-hour

38. Three resistors of 1 Ω, 2 ft and 3 Ω are connected in parallel. The combined resistance of the three resistors should be
(a) greater than 3 Ω
(b) less than 1 Ω
(c) equal to 2 Ω
(d) between 1 Ω and 3 Ω

Explaination:

39. An electric bulb is connected to a 220V generator. The current is 0.50 A. What is the power of the bulb?
(a) 440 W
(b) 110 W
(c) 55 W
(d) 0.0023 W

Explaination:
Here, V = 220 V, I = 0.50 A
∴ Power (P) = VI = 220 x 0.50 = 110 W

40. The resistivity of insulators is of the order of
(a) 10-8-m
(b) 101-m
(c) 10-6-m
(d) 106-m

41. 1 kWh = ……….. J
(a) 3.6 × 10-6 J
(b) $$\frac{1}{3.6}$$ × 106 J
(c) 3.6 × 106 J
(d) $$\frac{1}{3.6}$$ × 10-6 J

42. Which of the following gases are filled in electric bulbs?
(a) Helium and Neon
(b) Neon and Argon
(c) Argon and Hydrogen
(d) Argon and Nitrogen

43. 100 J of heat is produced each second in a 4Ω resistor. The potential difference across the resistor will be:
(a) 30 V
(b) 10 V
(c) 20 V
(d) 25 V

Direction (Q44 to Q48): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
44. Assertion: When a battery is short circuited, the terminal voltage is zero.
Reason: In short circuit, the current is zero.

Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

45. Assertion: Conductors allow the current to flow through themselves.
Reason: They have free charge carriers.

Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

46. Assertion: In an open circuit, the current passes from one terminal of the electric cell to another.
Reason: Generally, the metal disc of a cell acts as a positive terminal.

Explanation:
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

MCQ Questions on Electricity Class 10 Question 47. Assertion: The statement of Ohm’s law is K = IR
Reason: V = IR is the equation which defines resistance.

Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

48. Assertion: Bending of wire decrease the resistance of electric wire.
Reason: The resistance of a conductor depends on length, thickness, nature of material and temperature of the conductor.

Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

49. Connecting many resistors in parallel, will ____________ the resistance of the circuit.

Explanation:
(a) Equivalent resistance in parallel combination will be smaller than the lest resistance used in circuit.

50. Current is a ____________ quantity.

Explanation:
(b) Current is a scalar quantity as it has no particular direction of flow.

51. Presence of argon prolongs the life of ____________ .

Explanation: Filament of electric bulb

52. Work done on unit charge is called as ____________ .

Explanation: Potential difference

53. Two resistors are in parallel when they have ____________ common points.

Explanation: One

54. 746 watts make ____________ horse power.

Explanation: One

55. Rheostat used in series in a circuit can make a bulb to glow with varying brightness. [True/False]

Explanation: True

56. One common point and no sharing devices for that point are the conditions to be satisfied for two resistors to be in series. [True/False]

Explanation: True

57. When bulbs are connected in series, the lower power bulb glows brighter. [True/False]

Explanation: True

58. Nichrome is used for making standard resistances as it readily varies its resistance with temperature. [True/False]

Explanation: False

Electricity Class 10 Question 59. The equivalent resistance between two diametrically opposite points as a wire of 10 Ω resistance is made a circle is 2.5 Ω. [True/False]

Explanation: True

60. Devices of higher power used at home have lower resistance. [True/False]

Explanation: True

Class 10 Electricity MCQ Question 61. 12 V means the work done to carry a unit charge from one point to another is 12 joule. [True/False]

Explanation: True

Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
62.

 Column I Column II (i) Fuse wires A. Rheostat (ii) Bulbs B. Higher resistance (iii) Higher power C. Parallel (iv) Potential divider D. Series (v) Lower current E. Lower resistance

Explanation:
(i) → D, Fuse wire always connected in series with live wire.
(ii) → C, In household circuitrs, bulbs are connected in parallel to get the same p.d across each bulb for desired brightness.
(iii) → E, P = $$\frac{V^{2}}{R}$$
(iv) → A, Rheostat can also be used as a potential divider
(v) → B From Ohm’s law, I ∝ $$\frac{1}{R}$$.

63. Name the charge responsible for the conduction in a conductor?

Explanation: Electron.

64. When two ends of a metallic wire are connected across the terminals of a cell, some potential difference is set up between its ends. In which direction, electrons are flowing through the conductors?

Explanation:
Direction of flow of electron: From a lower potential end of a metallic conductor to its higher potential end.

65. Electric current flows through a metallic conductor from its one end A to other end B. Which end of the conductor is at higher potential? Why?

Explanation:
Current always flow from a higher potential to a lower potential end of the conductor. So end ‘A’ of the conductor is at a higher potential.

66. Is there any charge movement in a wire under normal conditions?

Explanation:
No, net motion is zero even though individual charge can move.

MCQ on Electricity Class 10 Pdf Question 67. Draw the following symbols:
(i) Battery
(ii) Open key
(iii) Resistor of resistance R
(iv) Bulb

Explanation:

68. What is ohm? Define it.

Explanation:
One ohm is that resistance offered by the wire carrying 1A of current when IV is applied across its ends.

69. Out of the two wires P and Q shown below, which one has greater resistance? Justify it.

Explanation:
Smaller the area of cross-section, greater will be resistance as R ∝ $$\frac{1}{A}$$ . …(For the same length)
So, wire has greater resistance.

70. What happens to resistance of a conductor when its area of cross-section is increased? [CBSE 2011]

Explanation:
Resistance decreases as R ∝ $$\frac{1}{A}$$.

71. The radius of conducting wire is doubled. What will be the ratio of its new specific resistance to the old one?

Explanation:
1 : 1, as it depends on the nature of material only.

72. A given length of a wire is doubled on itself and this process is repeated once again. By what factor does the resistance of the wire change? [CBSE 2011]

Explanation:
Length becomes one-fourth of the original length and area of cross-section becomes four times that of original.

73. Name the scientist who first studied
(i) current
(ii) resistance in detail.

Explanation:
(i) Andre – Marie, Ampere
(ii) Georg – Simon, Ohm.

74. Resistance of an incandescent filament of a lamp is comparatively much more than that when it is at room temperature. Why? [HOTS]

Explanation:
When bulb is switched on (i.e., incandescent state), the temperature of filament rises. As the temperature increases, the resistance of conductor also increases.

75. Why is magnanin used for making standard resistors?

Explanation:
Magnanin being an alloy has a low temperature coefficient of resistance.

76. A resistance of 1 k Ω has a current of 0.25 A throughout it when it is connected to the terminals of a battery. What is the potential difference across the ends of a resistor.

Explanation:
From Ohm’s law,
V = IR = 0.25 × 1000 = 250 V

77. Calculate the current in a circuit if 500 C of charge passes through it in 10 minutes.

Explanation:
Given: Q = 500 C, t = 10 min. = 10 × 60 = 600 s.

78. An electric iron draws a cu,.ent of 0.6 A when the voltage is 100 volt Calculate the amount of electric charge flowing through it in one hour.

Explanation:
As we know, Q = I × t
∴ Q = 0.6 × 3600 = 2160 C

79. Define the term resistivity. [DoE]

Explanation:
The resistance offered by a wire of unit length and unit cross-sectional area is called resistivity. It is expressed in terms of ohm-metre (Q-m).

80. Write S.I. unit of resistivity. [CBSE 2015]

Explanation: Ohm-metre.

81. How will the resistivity of a conductor change when its length is tripled by stretching it?

Explanation:
The resistivity of a metallic conductor does not depend on the length of the wire, so it will remain same.

82. When a battery is connected to a closed circuit, charge flow in the circuit almost instantaneously. Explain.

Explanation:
As soon as the battery is connected to the circuit and circuit is closed, a potential difference is felt over the entire circuit. This causes the charges begin to flow.

83. Why is closed path required for the flow of current?

Explanation:
It makes possible to move the electrons in a particular direction, so closed path is necessary for the flow of current.

84. A lamp draws a current of 0.5 A when it is connected to a 60 V source. What is the resistance of the lamp?

Explanation:

85. Why is a series arrangement not used for connecting domestic electrical appliances in a circuit?

Explanation:
If any one stops working due to some reason, other will also stop working.

86. A torch bulb is rated at 1.5 V, 500 mA. Find its resistance.

Explanation:

Fill in the Blanks

1. The SI unit of current is ……… .
2. According to ……… Law, the potential difference across the ends of a resistor is directly proportional to the ……… through it, provided its remains constant.
3. The resistance of a conductor depends directly on its ……… , inversely on its ……… and also on the ……… of the conductor.
4. The SI unit of resistivity is ……… .
5. If the potential difference across the ends of a conductor is doubled, the current flowing through it, gets ……… .

1. ampere
2. Ohm’s, current, temperature
3. length, area of cross-section, material
4. ohm-metre (Ω m)
5. doubled

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Electricity with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 12 Electricity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

## MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Human Eye and Colourful World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

## Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 11 Human Eye and Colourful World

Human Eye Class 10 MCQ Question 1.
The muscular diaphragm that controls the size of the pupil is
(a) cornea
(b) ciliary muscles
(c) iris
(d) retina

Explanation:
(c) Iris control the size of pupil.

2. Having two eyes facilitates in
A : Increasing the field of view
B : Bringing three-dimensional view
C : Developing the concept of distance/ size
Then the correct option is/are
(a) A only
(b) A and B only
(c) B only
(d) A, B and C

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ With Answer:
d

3. The black opening between the aqueous humour and the lens is called
(a) retina
(b) iris
(c) cornea
(d) pupil

Explanation:
(d) The black opening between the aqueous humour and the eye lens is called pupil.

4. Near and far points of a young person normal eye respectively are
(a) 0 and infinity
(b) 0 and 25 cm
(c) 25 cm and infinity
(d) 25 cm and 150 cm.

Explanation:
(c) Near point = 25 cm while far point = infinity.

5. The defect of vision in which the person is able to see distant object distinctly but cannot see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) Long-sightedness
(b) Far-sightedness
(c) Hypermetropia
(d) All above

Explanation:
(d) Hypermetropia is also called long-sightedness or far-sightedness.

Human Eye And Colourful World Class 10 MCQ Question 6. The ability of eye lens to adjust its focal length to form a sharp image of the object at varying distances on the retina is called
(a) Power of observation of the eye
(b) Power of adjustment of the eye
(c) Power of accommodation of the eye
(d) Power of enabling of the eye

Explanation:
(c) It is called power of accommodation of the eye.

7. Myopia and hypermetropia can be corrected by
(a) Concave and plano-convex lens
(b) Concave and convex lens
(c) Convex and concave lens
(d) Plano-concave lens for both defects.

Explanation:
(b) Myopia is corrected by using of suitable power of concave lens while hypermetropia is corrected by convex lens.

8. Bi-focal lens are required to correct
(a) astigmatism
(b) coma
(c) myopia
(d) presbyopia

Explanation:
(d) Bifocal lens are required to correct the presbyopia. Upper point of bifocal lens consists of concave lens used for distant vision while lower point consists of convex lens facilitate near vision.

MCQ On Human Eye With Answers Pdf Question 9. The defective eye of a person has near point 0.5 m and point 3 m. The power far corrective lens required for
(ii) seeing distant objects, respectively are:
(a) 0.5 D and +3D
(b) +2D and – $$\frac{1}{3}$$ D
(c) – 2D and + $$\frac{1}{3}$$D
(d) 0.5 D and-3.0 D

Explanation:

10. The image formed on the retina of the human eye is
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) real and inverted
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and erect

Explanation:
(b) Eye lens is convex in nature. So, image formed by it on the retina is real and inverted.

11. When white light enters a prism, it gets split into its constituent colours. This is due to
(a) different refractive index for different wavelength of each colour
(b) each colours has same velocity in the prism.
(c) prism material have high density.
(d) Scattering of light

Explanation:
(a) Dispersion takes place because refractive index of the material of prism is different for different wavelength.

Human Eye And Colourful World MCQ Question 12.
The air layer of atmosphere whose temperature is less then the hot layer behave as optically
(a) denser medium
(b) rarer medium
(c) inactive medium
(d) either denser or rarer medium

Explanation:
(a) The cold air layer of the atmosphere acts as a optically denser medium than hot air because the molecules are closely packed together.

13. Refraction of light by the earth’s atmosphere due to variation in air density is called
(a) atmospheric reflection
(b) atmospheric dispersion
(c) atmospheric scattering
(d) atmospheric refraction

Explanation:
(d) This phenomena is called atmospheric refraction.

14. The deflection of light by minute particles and molecules of the atmosphere in all direction is called ____________ of light.
(a) dispersion
(b) scattering
(c) interference
(d) tyndell effect

Explanation:
(b) The said phenomenon is called scattering of light.

15. One cannot see through the fog, because
(a) refractive index of the fog is very high
(b) light suffers total reflection at droplets
(c) fog absorbs light
(d) light is scattered by the droplets

Explanation:
(d) Objects are not visible through the fog because droplets scatter the light rays.

Multiple Choice Questions And Answers On Human Eye Question 16.
A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) + 0.5 D
(b) – 0.5 D
(c) + 0.2 D
(d) – 0.2 D

MCQ On Human Eye With Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Person cannot see distant objects clearly. So he is suffering from myopia. The defect is corrected by using concave lens of power
P = $$\frac{1}{f}=\frac{1}{-2 m}$$ =-0.5

MCQ Questions On Human Eye And Colourful World Pdf 17.
A prism ABC (with BC as base) is placed in different orientations. A narrow beam of white light is incident on the prism as shown in figure. In which of the following cases, after dispersion, the third colour from the top corresponds to the colour of the sky? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

Explanation:
(b) In figure (a) base BC of the prism is at the bottom, then violet colour lies at the bottom but in figure (b), the base BC is at the top, then violet would be at the top after dispersion, and third colour would be blue.

18. At noon the sun appears white as [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) light is least scattered
(b) all the colours of the white light are scattered away
(c) blue colour is scattered the most
(d) red colour is scattered the most

Explanation:
(a) At noon, the sun is at top and the light rays coming from the sun have to travel lens distance hence, all colours get scattered very less even blue and violet.

19. Twinkling of stars is due to atmospheric [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) dispersion of light by water droplets
(b) refraction of light by different layers of varying refractive indices
(c) scattering of light by dust particles
(d) internal reflection of light by clouds.

Explanation:
(b) Twinkling of star is due to atmospheric refraction of starlight caused by the gradual change in refractive index of different air layers at different height, the apparent position of star keeps on changing.

MCQs On Human Eye And Colourful World Question 20.
The clear sky appears blue because [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) blue light gets absorbed in the atmosphere.
(b) ultraviolet radiations are absorbed in the atmosphere.
(c) violet and blue lights get scattered more than lights of all other colours by the atmosphere.
(d) light of all other colours is scattered more than the violet and blue colour lights by the atmosphere.

Explanation:
(c) Violet and blue colour have shorter wavelength. So, they scattered more than lights of other colour by the molecules present in the atmosphere.

21. The danger signals installed at the top of tall buildings are red in colour. These can be easily seen from a distance because among all other colours, the red light [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) is scattered the most by smoke or fog
(b) is scattered the least by smoke or fog
(b) is absorbed the most by smoke or fog
(c) moves fastest in air

Explanation:
(b) Red colour has longer wavelength so least scattered by smoke or fog.

22. The bluish colour of water in deep sea is due to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) the presence of algae and other plants found in water
(b) reflection of sky in water
(c) scattering of light
(d) absorption of light by the sea

Explanation:
(c) The fine water molecules mainly scatter blue light due to its shorter wavelength.

23. When light rays enter the eye, most of the refraction occurs at the [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) crystalline lens
(b) outer surface of the cornea
(c) iris
(d) pupil

Explanation:
(b) Most of the refraction for light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of cornea which acts a primary lens converging in nature.

24. The focal length of the eye lens increases when eye muscles [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) are relaxed and lens becomes thinner
(b) contract and lens becomes thicker
(c) are relaxed and lens becomes thicker
(d) contract and lens becomes thinner

Explanation:
(a) Ciliary muscles modify the curvature of eye lens. When eye muscles are relaxed, eye lens becomes thinner thereby are relaxed, eye lens becomes thinner thereby increase in the focal length of eye lens.

MCQ On Human Eye Class 10 Direction (Q25 to Q30):
In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
25. Assertion: Blind spot is a small area of the retina which is insensitive to light where the optic nerve leaves the eye.
Reason: There are no rods or cones present at the junction of optic nerve and retina in the eye.

Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

26. Assertion: The near-point of a hypermetropic eye is more than 25 cm away.
Reason: Hypermetropia is corrected using spectacles containing concave lenses.

Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

27. Assertion: Myopia is the defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly.
Reason: This due to eye-ball being too short.

Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

28. Assertion: Concave mirrors are used as reflectors in torches, vehicle head-lights and in search lights.
Reason: When an object is placed beyond the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, the image formed is real and inverted.

Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

29. Assertion: The light emerges from a parallel-sided glass slab in a direction perpendicular with that in which enters the glass slab.
Reason: The perpendicular distance between the original path of incident ray and emergent ray coming out of glass slab is called lateral displacement of the emergent ray of light.

Explanation:
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

30. Assertion: When a pencil is partly immersed in water and held obliquely to the surface, the pencil appears to bend at the water surface.
Reason: The apparent bending of the pencil is due to the refraction of light when it passes from water to air.

Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

31. The least distance of distinct vision for a nor¬mal eye is
(a) infinity
(b) 25 cm
(c) 2.5 cm
(d) 25 m

32. A person cannot see distinctly objects kept beyond 2 m. This defect can be corrected by using a lens of power
(a) +0.5 D
(b) -0.5 D
(c) +0.2 D
(d) -0.2 D

33. The defect of vision in which a person cannot see the distant objects clearly but can see nearby objects clearly is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) bifocal eye

34. The splitting of white light into different colours on passing through a prism is called
(a) reflection
(b) refraction
(c) dispersion
(d) deviation

35. At noon, the Sun appears white as
(a) blue colour is scattered the most
(b) red colour is scattered the most
(c) light is least scattered
(d) all the colours of the white light are scattered away

36. Twinkling of stars is due to
(a) reflection of light by clouds
(b) scattering of light by dust particles
(c) dispersion of light by water drops
(d) atmospheric refraction of starlight

37. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is least for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) violet light
(d) red light

38. When white light enters a glass prism from air, the angle of deviation is maximum for
(a) blue light
(b) yellow light
(c) red light
(d) violet light

39. The amount of light entering the eye can be controlled by the
(a) iris
(b) pupil
(c) cornea
(d) ciliary muscles

40. What type of image is formed by the eye lens on the retina?
(a) Real and erect
(b) Virtual and inverted
(c) Real and inverted
(d) Virtual and erect

41. The medical condition in which the lens of the eye of a person becomes progressively cloudy resulting in blurred vision is called
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

42. The defect of the eye in which the eyeball becomes too long is
(a) myopia
(b) hypermetropia
(c) presbyopia
(d) cataract

43. The defect of vision in which the image of nearby objects is formed behind the retina, is
(a) myopia
(b) short-sightedness
(c) hypermetropia
(d) presbyopia

44. Which of the following is a natural phenomenon which is caused by the dispersion of sunlight in the sky?
(a) Twinkling of stars
(b) Stars seem higher than they actually are
(c) Advanced sunrise and delayed sunset
(d) Rainbow

Objectives Questions On Human Eye And The Colourful World 45.
Name the scientist who was the first to use a glass prism to obtain the spectrum of sunlight.
(a) Isaac Newton
(b) Einstein
(c) Kepler
(d) Hans Christian Oersted

46. Very fine particles scatter more of ____________ colour.

Explanation: blue

Human Eye Class 10 MCQ Question 47.
Red light is used for signals as it is ____________ scattered.

Explanation: less

48. Bi-focal lens is used to correct ____________ refractive error.

Explanation: presbyopic

49. Hypermetropic eye is corrected by using ____________ lens.

Explanation: convex

50. When light falls at critical angle on the surface of a rarer medium while coming from a denser medium, the refracting angle is ____________ .

Explanation: 90°

51. The dispersion of white light occurs because colours of white light at different ____________ through the glass prism.

MCQ Of Human Eye And Colourful World Answer: c
Explanation: speed

52. 28 frames are projected per second in motion picture. [True/False]

Explanation: False

53. Myopia is caused due to excessive curvature in cornea. [True/False]

Explanation: True

54. A lens of higher focal length has less power. [True/False]

Explanation: True

55. Power of accommodation for a normal eye is 4 dioptre. [True/False]

Explanation: True

56. The optical nerves carry signals to the brain. [True/False]

Explanation: True

MCQ Questions On Human Eye And Colourful World Direction:
Match Column I with Column II.
57.

 Column I Column II (i) Twinkling stars (A) Suspended water drops (ii) Blue sky (B) Group of colours (iii) Rainbow (C) Scattering (iv) Spectrum (D) Changing atmosphere

Explanation:
(i) → (D)
(ii) → (C)
(iii) → (A)
(iv) → (B)

58. In a human eye, name the following parts:
(a) a thin membrane which allows light to enter the eye.
(b) the muscles which help in changing the focal length of eye lens.

Explanation:
(a) Cornea
(b) Ciliary muscles

59. Name the part of our eyes that helps us to focus near and distant objects in quick succession.

Explanation:
Ciliary muscles help in changing the focal length of the eye lens.

60. In which direction, the near point of hypermetropic eye is shifted from the normal near point?

Explanation:
The near point of hypermetropic eye is shifted farther away from the normal near point.

61. Name the part responsible for the power of accommodation of the human eye.
Or
Name the component of eye that is responsible for the adjustment of eye lens? [DoE]

Explanation: Ciliary muscles

62. A person suffering from an eye defect uses lenses of power ID. Name the defect he is suffering from and the nature of lens used.

Explanation: Hypermetropia; convex lens.

63. What is the nature of eye lens of human eye and that of the image formed at the retina of the eye by it?

Explanation:
The nature of eye lens in human eye is convex nature of the image formed on the retina by it is real, inverted and diminished.

64. Mention the role of optic nerve in the human eye.

Explanation:
Role of optic nerve in human eye: It transmits the visual information in the form of electrical signal generated at retina to the brain.

65. What is the other name of old hypermetropia?

Explanation: Presbyopia.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The ability of the eye to focus both near and distant objects, by adjusting its focal length, is called the ……….. of the eye.
2. ……….. of light causes the blue colour of sky and reddening of the Sun at sunrise and sunset.
3. Most of the refraction of light rays entering the eye occurs at the outer surface of the ……….. .
4. Due to the greater converging power of the eye lens in a myopic eye, the image of distant object is formed ……….. the retina.
5. A person suffering from both myopia and hypermetropia uses ……….. leases.