MCQ Questions

History and Sport The Story of Cricket Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
There were revision of laws by MCC between 1770s and 1780s. They were:
(a) The weight of the ball and the width of the bat were specified
(b) The first leg-before law was published in 1774
(c) The third stump became common, and the first six seam cricket ball was created
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 2.
There was a quarrel between the Bombay Gymkhana (a Whites only club) and the ParsiClub, because :
(a) The Parsis complained that the public park was left unfit for cricket because the polopolies of the Gymkhana Club dug up the surface
(b) The colonial authorities were prejudiced in favour of their own White compatriots
(c) The White cricket elite in India offered no help to the enthusiastic Parsis
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 3.
When was the Marylebone Cricket Club founded?
(a) 1760
(b) 1787
(c) 1788
(d) 1895

Answer

Answer: (b) 1787

Question 4.
The reason that cricket has originated from the villages is/are
(a) Cricket matches had no time limit
(b) Vagueness of the size of the cricket ground
(c) Cricket’s most important tools are all made of pre-industrial materials
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 5.
The poor who played cricket for a living were called
(a) needy
(b) entertainers
(c) professionals
(d) commons

Answer

Answer: (c) professionals

Question 6.
In which of these countries was cricket established as a popular sport?
(a) South Africa, Zimbabwe
(b) Australia, New Zealand
(c) West Indies, Kenya
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Australia, New Zealand

Question 7.
What was the term ‘tournament’ called initially?
(a) Triangular
(b) Quadrangular
(c) Angular
(d) Pentangular

Answer

Answer: (b) Quadrangular

Question 8.
How did the cricket boards become rich?
(a) By organising large number of matches
(b) Through patronage from rich industrialists
(c) By selling television rights to television companies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) By selling television rights to television companies

Question 9.
When was the first World Cup successfully staged?
(a) 1972
(b) 1973
(c) 1974
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: (d) 1975

Question 10.
The first hockey club in India was started in
(a) Bombay
(b) Madras
(c) Bangalore
(d) Calcutta

Answer

Answer: (d) Calcutta

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Hindi Sparsh Chapter 13 गीत–अगीत with Answers

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Question 1.
गुलाब के हृदय में किस बात को लेकर कसक है?
(a) वह दोबारा कली क्यों नहीं बन सकता
(b) उसकी पंखुड़ियाँ क्यों झर जाती हैं
(c) विधाता ने उसको स्वर क्यों नहीं दिया।
(d) उसके साथ काँटे क्यों पैदा हो गए।

Answer

Answer: (c) विधाता ने उसको स्वर क्यों नहीं दिया।

Question 2.
किसके स्वर से पूरा वन मुखरित हो रहा है?
(a) तोते के स्वर से।
(b) कोयल के स्वर से
(c) ग्वालों के स्वर से
(d) आल्हा के गान से

Answer

Answer: (a) तोते के स्वर से।

Question 3.
शुकी का गीत कैसा है?
(a) शुकी का गीत मधुर है
(b) अगीत है
(c) शुष्क है
(d) नीरस है।

Answer

Answer: (b) अगीत है
शुकी का गीत अगीत है

Question 4.
शुकी कहाँ बैठकर अंडे में रही है?
(a) नदी के किनारे
(b) मकान की मुंडेर पर
(c) पेड़ के नीचे
(d) सघन पेड़ की छाया में बने अपने घोंसले में।

Answer

Answer: (d) सघन पेड़ की छाया में बने अपने घोंसले में।

Question 5.
प्रेमिका नीम की छाया में छिपी क्या सोचती है?
(a) कि विधाता ने उसे स्वर क्यों नहीं दिया
(b) वह सोचती है कि वह गीत की कड़ी क्यों नहीं बन पाई
(c) वह सोच रही है कि विधाता ने उसे पंख क्यों नहीं दिए
(d) वह वहाँ से भाग जाना चाहती है।

Answer

Answer: (b) वह सोचती है कि वह गीत की कड़ी क्यों नहीं बन पाई

Question 6.
प्रेमी किस प्रकार का गीत गाता है?
(a) प्रेमी आल्हा गाता है
(b) प्रेमी शृंगार गीत गाता है
(c) प्रेमी देश-भक्ति का गीत गाता है
(d) प्रेमी विरह का गीत गाता है।

Answer

Answer: (a) प्रेमी आल्हा गाता है

Question 7.
नदी तट से क्या कहना चाहती है?
(a) प्रेम निवेदन
(b) अपने मन की व्यथा
(c) पर्वतों की शिकायत
(d) ग्वालों की शिकायत।

Answer

Answer: (b) अपने मन की व्यथा

Question 8.
कवि को इस गीत में क्या दविधा दिखाई देती है?
(a) काव सोचता है कि क्या मनुष्य के अतिरिक्त और जीव भी प्यार करते हैं।
(b) कवि सोचता है कि प्रेम को किस प्रकार सब तक पहुँचाया जाए।
(c) कवि की दुविधा है कि वह अगीत सुंदर है जो गाया नहीं जा सका या ग्वाल-बाल द्वारा गाया जाने वाला गीत सुंदर है।
(d) कवि की कोई भी दुविधा नहीं है।

Answer

Answer: (c) कवि की दुविधा है कि वह अगीत सुंदर है जो गाया नहीं जा सका या ग्वाल-बाल द्वारा गाया जाने वाला गीत सुंदर है।

Question 9.
‘गीत-अगीत’ कविता में किसका चित्रण है?
(a) प्रकृति के सौंदर्य का
(b) जीव-जंतुओं के ममत्व का
(c) मानवीय राग और प्रेमभाव का
(d) उपर्युक्त सभी का।

Answer

Answer: (d) उपर्युक्त सभी का।

Question 10.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी कृति दिनकर जी की नहीं है?
(a) कुरुक्षेत्र
(b) लहर
(c) परशुराम की प्रतीक्षा
(d) संस्कृति के चार अध्याय।

Answer

Answer: (b) लहर
लहर प्रसाद जी की रचना है

Question 11.
रामधारी सिंह दिनकर का जन्म कब और कहाँ हुआ?
(a) 30 सितंबर सन् 1905 को बिहार के मुंगेर जिले के सिमरिया गाँव में
(b) 30 अगस्त सन् 1908 को बिहार के छपरा जिले में
(c) 30 नवंबर सन् 1902 को बिहार के बेगुसराय जिले में
(d) 30 सितंबर सन् 1908 को बिहार के मुंगेर जिले के सिमरिया गाँव में।

Answer

Answer: (d) 30 सितंबर सन् 1908 को बिहार के मुंगेर जिले के सिमरिया गाँव में।

Question 12.
‘गीत-अगीत’ कविता किसके द्वारा लिखी गई है?
(a) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
(b) अरुण कमल
(c) हरिवंशराय बच्चन
(d) सियाराम शरण गुप्त।

Answer

Answer: (a) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर

काव्यांश पर आधारित बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न

काव्यांशों को पढ़कर पूछे गए प्रश्नों के उचित विकल्प चुनकर लिखिए

गाकर गीत विरह के तटिनी
वेगवती बहती जाती है,
दिल हलका कर लेने को
उपलों से कुछ कहती जाती है।
तट पर एक गुलाब सोचता,
“देते स्वर यदि मुझे विधाता,
अपने पतझर के सपनों का
मैं भी जग को गीत सुनाता।”
गा-गाकर बह रही निर्झरी,
पाटल मूक खड़ा तट पर है।
गीत, अगीत, कौन सुन्दर है?

Question 1.
इन पंक्तियों के रचयिता कौन हैं?
(a) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर
(b) सियारामशरण गुप्त
(c) हरिवंशराय बच्चन
(d) अरुण कमल

Answer

Answer: (a) रामधारी सिंह दिनकर

Question 2.
नदी तट से क्या कहना चाहती है?
(a) प्रेम निवेदन
(b) अपने मन की व्यथा
(c) पर्वतों की शिकायत
(d) ग्वालों की शिकायत।

Answer

Answer: (b) अपने मन की व्यथा

Question 3.
गुलाब के हृदय में किस बात को लेकर कसक है?
(a) वह दोबारा कली क्यों नहीं बन सकता
(b) उसकी पंखुड़ियाँ क्यों झर जाती हैं
(c) विधाता ने उसको स्वर क्यों नहीं दिया
(d) उसके साथ काँटे क्यों पैदा हो गए।

Answer

Answer: (c) विधाता ने उसको स्वर क्यों नहीं दिया

Question 4.
गुलाब तट पर किस प्रकार खड़ा है?
(a) लहराते हुए
(b) झूमते हुए
(c) हँसते हुए
(d) चुपचाप

Answer

Answer: (d) चुपचाप

Question 5.
निर्झरी किस प्रकार बह रही है?
(a) धीरे-धीरे
(b) गा-गाकर
(c) चुपचाप
(d) शोर करते हुए

Answer

Answer: (b) गा-गाकर

सही कथन के सामने (✓) गलत कथन के सामने (✗) का चिह्न लगाइए।

(क) शुक के गीत गाने पर अपने पंख फैलाकर अंडे सेने में मग्न हो जाती है।

Answer

Answer: (✓)

(ख) प्रेमी के गीत गाने पर प्रेमिका की भी गीत गाने की इच्छा होती है।

Answer

Answer: (✗)
प्रेमिका की गीत की कड़ी बनने की इच्छा होती है

(ग) सब कुछ गीत होता है अगीत कुछ भी नहीं होता।

Answer

Answer: (✓)

(घ) इस कविता से हमें प्रकृति से दूर रहने की प्रेरणा मिलती है।

Answer

Answer: (✗)
प्रकृति के पास रहने की प्रेरणा मिलती है

(ङ) कवि ने गुलाब, शुकी, नदी और प्रेमी के गीत को अगीत कहा है।

Answer

Answer: (✓)

मंजूषा से उपयुक्त पंक्ति चुनकर कविता पूरी कीजिए

(क) गाकर गीत विरह के तटिनी ……………..

Answer

Answer: वेगवती बहती जाती है

(ख) दिल हल्का कर लेने को ……………

Answer

Answer: उपलों से कुछ कहती जाती है।

(ग) तट पर एक गुलाब सोचता …………..

Answer

Answer: देते स्वर यदि मुझे विधाता

(घ) अपने पतझर के सपनों का ……………..

Answer

Answer: मैं भी जग को गीत सुनाता

(ङ) गा-गाकर बह रही निर्झरी, …………….. गीत, अगीत कौन सुंदर है

Answer

Answer: पाटल मूक खड़ा तट पर है।

Peasants and Farmers Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
In which year was the mechanical reaper invented?
(a) 1830
(b) 1831
(c) 1832
(d) 1833

Answer

Answer: (b) 1831

Question 2.
Which method of cultivation was adopted by the white settlers in the USA?
(a) shifting cultivation
(b) primitive cultivation
(c) intensive agriculture
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) shifting cultivation

Question 3.
Which country was not involved in the triangular trade?
(a) England
(b) China
(c) India
(d) America

Answer

Answer: (d) America

Question 4.
Which country became the bread basket of the world?
(a) England
(b) America
(c) Japan
(d) France

Answer

Answer: (b) America

Question 5.
The white settlers swept into the Great Plains across the River Mississippi after the
(a) 1830s
(b) 1840s
(c) 1850s
(d) 1860s

Answer

Answer: (d) 1860s

Question 6.
The continuous movement of the pastoral communities helps in
(a) Recovery of the pastures
(b) prevention of their overuse
(c) Reduction in the demand of houses
(d) both A and B

Answer

Answer: (d) both A and B

Question 7.
why did the white settlers want to push away the Indian Americans from their lands?
(a) The land possessed by the Indians could be turned into cultivated fields
(b) Forest timber could be exported, animals hunted for skins, mountains mined for gold and Minerals
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) It was a committed policy of the US Government

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 8.
Which of these reasons led to a radical transformation of the landscape by the early 20th century?
(a) White Americans had moved westward
(b) Local tribes were displaced
(c) Entire landscape was carved into different agricultural belts in the USA
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 9.
In the 19th century, the two major commercial crops India came to produce for the world Market were
(a) indigo
(b) opium
(c) maize
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) both (a) and (b)

Question 10.
Name the US President who said “Plant more wheat, wheat will win the war.”
(a) President Roosevelt
(b) President Clinton
(c) President Bush
(d) President Wilson

Answer

Answer: (d) President Wilson

Question 11.
In 1831, Cyrus McCormick invented the first mechanical reaper. What was its most Important advantage?
(a) In could harvest 50 acres of wheat
(b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks
(c) It could cut grass on large areas
(d) It could prepare the ground for cultivation

Answer

Answer: (b) 500 acres of wheat could be harvested in two weeks

Question 12.
What did the settlers of the Great Plains realise after the 1930s?
(a) Using older methods of cultivation were better than modern machines
(b) Competition with other countries was not healthy
(c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) They had to respect the ecological conditions of each region

Question 13.
In 1839, who was sent by the Emperor to Canton as a Special Commissioner to stop the opium trade?
(a) I-tsing
(b) Lin Ze-xu
(c) Lao-Tsu
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) None of the above

Question 14.
What did the enclosure imply?
(a) It meant green fields
(b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides
(c) It meant open fields
(d) Vast area of marshy land

Answer

Answer: (b) Piece of land enclosed from all sides

Question 15.
Opium was exported from India to:
(a) China
(b) Rome
(c) U.K.
(d) Portugal

Answer

Answer: (a) China

Pastoralists in the Modern World Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
The Maru Raikas herded
(a) camels
(b) goats
(c) sheep
(d) all the three

Answer

Answer: (a) camels

Question 2.
Banjaras were not found in
(a) Punjab
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Delhi
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (c) Delhi

Question 3.
The Massais are located in the
(a) east Africa
(b) west africa
(c) north Africa
(d) South Africa

Answer

Answer: (a) east Africa

Question 4.
The warriors consisted of
(a) elder people
(b) younger people
(c) children
(d) healthy people

Answer

Answer: (b) younger people

Question 5.
Why were some forests classified as “protected”?
(a) In these the customary grazing rights of pastorals were granted but their movements were severely restricted.
(b) The colonial officials believed that grazing destroyed the saplings and young shoots of trees that germinated on the forest floor.
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)

Question 6.
Which of these are the pastoral communities of the mountains?
(a) Gujjars
(b) Gaddis
(c) Bhotiyas and Sherpas
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 7.
Dhangars were an important pastoral community of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) U.P.
(d) Assam

Answer

Answer: (b) Maharashtra

Question 8.
Where were the Banjaras found?
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Punjab, Rajasthan
(c) Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 9.
According to the ‘Wasteland Rules’
(a) uncultivated lands were taken over and given to select individuals
(b) these individuals were granted various concessions and encouraged to settle these lands
(c) some of them were made headmen of villages in the newly cleared areas
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above

Question 10.
Which of the following statements best explains pastoralist nomads?
(a) The villagers who move from one place to another
(b) The people who do not have a permanent place to live in
(c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd
(d) The people who visit many places for enjoyment

Answer

Answer: (c) The herdsmen who move from one place to another looking for pasture for their herd

Question 11.
What was the result of overgrazing pastures due to restrictions on pastoral movements?
(a) The quality of pastures declined
(b) This created deterioration of animal stock
(c) Underfed cattle died in large numbers during scarcity and famine
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of these are the pastoral communities of Africa?
(a) Bedouins, Berbers
(b) Maasai, Somali
(c) Boran, Turkana
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 13.
Which of these statements is true?
(a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves
(b) Pastoralists were not allowed to enter these reserves
(c) Serengeti National Park was created over 14,760 km of Maasai grazing land
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Large areas of grazing land were turned into game reserves

Question 14.
How was the authority of both elders and warriors adversely affected by the British efforts to administer the affairs of the Maasai?
(a) The British appointed chiefs of different sub-groups of Maasai
(b) These chiefs were made responsible for the affairs of the tribe
(c) The British imposed various restrictions on raiding and warfare
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 15.
Which seasonal movements affect the Dhangars of Maharashtra?
(a) Cold and snow
(b) Climatic disturbance
(c) Drought and flood
(d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons

Answer

Answer: (d) Alternate monsoon and dry seasons

Question 16.
Nomadic tribes need to move from one place to another because of:
(a) Seasonal changes
(b) In search of pastures
(c) To maintain ecological balance
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) In search of pastures

Question 17.
Raika pastoral community belongs to:
(a) Himachal Pradesh
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: (b) Rajasthan

Forest Society and Colonialism Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

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Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Tendu leaves are used in making
(a) bidis
(b) plates
(c) baskets
(d) umbrellas

Answer

Answer: (a) bidis

Question 2.
The railway network expanded rapidly in India from the
(a) 1820s
(b) 1830s
(c) 1850s
(d) 1860s

Answer

Answer: (d) 1860s

Question 3.
The Imperial Forest Research Institute was set up at
(a) Allahabad
(b) Darjeeling
(c) Dehradun
(d) Shimla

Answer

Answer: (c) Dehradun

Question 4.
Baigas are a forest community of
(a) Central India
(b) North India
(c) South india
(d) North-east india

Answer

Answer: (a) Central India

Question 5.
The colonial power in Indonesia were the
(a) English
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Answer

Answer: (b) Dutch

Question 6.
Who were the colonial power in Indonesia?
(a) British
(b) Dutch
(c) French
(d) Portuguese

Answer

Answer: (b) Dutch

Question 7.
Where did the Dutch start forest management in Indonesia?
(a) Java
(b) Sumatra
(c) Bali
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Java

Question 8.
The Kalangs resisted the Dutch in
(a) 1700
(b) 1750
(c) 1770
(d) 1800

Answer

Answer: (c) 1770

Question 9.
What was the system of ‘blandongdiensten’?
(a) A system of education
(b) Industrialisation
(c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) First imposition of rent on land and then exemption

Question 10.
What was the policy followed by the British in India towards forests during the First and the Second World Wars?
(a) The forest department cut trees freely to meet British war needs
(b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British
(c) More and more trees were planted to give employment to Indians
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Cutting of trees was strictly prohibited for everyone, including the British

Question 11.
Who wrote the book ‘The Forests of India’ in the year 1923?
(a) David Spurr
(b) E.P. Stebbing
(c) Verrier Elvin
(d) John Middleton

Answer

Answer: (b) E.P. Stebbing

Question 12.
Indian Forest Service was set up in the year:
(a) 1865
(b) 1864
(c) 1854
(d) 1884

Answer

Answer: (b) 1864

Question 13.
The system of scientific forestry stands for:
(a)System whereby the local farmers were allowed to cultivate temporarily within a plantation
(b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones
(c) Division of forest into three categories
(d) Disappearance of forests

Answer

Answer: (b) System of cutting old trees and plant new ones

Question 14.
In South-East Asia shifting agriculture is known as:
(A) Chitemene
(b) Tavy
(c) Lading
(d) Milpa

Answer

Answer: (c) Lading

Question 15.
Forests consisting of which type of trees were preferred by the Forest Department?
(a) Forests having trees which provided fuel, fodder and leaves
(b) Forests having soft wood
(c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways

Answer

Answer: (c) Forests having trees suitable for building ships and railways

Question 16.
Which of the following is a community of skilled forest cutters?
(a) Maasais of Africa
(b) Mundas of Chotanagpur
(c) Gonds of Orissa
(d) Kalangs of Java

Answer

Answer: (d) Kalangs of Java

Question 17.
Wooden planks lay across railway tracks to hold these tracks in a position are called:
(a) Beams
(b) Sleepers
(c) Rail fasteners
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Sleepers

Question 18.
Which of the following is a commercial crop?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Cotton
(d) Maize

Answer

Answer: (c) Cotton

Nazism and the Rise of Hitler Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

by

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Where is the Wall Street Exchange?
(a) America
(b) Britain
(c) France
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: (a) America

Question 2.
Which country was defeated after the First World War?
(a) France
(b) Germany
(c) Russia
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (b) Germany

Question 3.
The time span of the First World War was
(a) 1911-1914
(b) 1914-1918
(c) 1918-1921
(d) 1920-1925

Answer

Answer: (b) 1914-1918

Question 4.
The Nazi Party had become the largest party by the
(a) 1920
(b) 1925
(c) 1926
(d) 1932

Answer

Answer: (d) 1932

Question 5.
Hitler became the Chancellor or Germany in the year
(a) 1931
(b) 1932
(c) 1933
(d) 1934

Answer

Answer: (c) 1933

Question 6.
The country that dropped atom bomb on Hiroshima in Japan was
(a) France
(b) America
(c) Germany
(d) Britain

Answer

Answer: (b) America

Question 7.
Who could enter Jungvolk?
(a) Ten-year-old boys
(b) Twelve-year-old boys
(c) Fourteen-year-old boys
(d) Eighteen-year-old boys

Answer

Answer: (a) Ten-year-old boys

Question 8.
Who were the worst sufferers in Nazi Germany?
(a) Jews
(b) Poles
(c) Russians
(d) Gypsies

Answer

Answer: (a) Jews

Question 9.
A bronze cross was given to the woman who produced
(a) two children
(b) four children
(c) six children
(d) eight children

Answer

Answer: (b) four children

Question 10.
The game Hitler glorified was
(a) wresting
(b) kabaddi
(c) hockey
(d) boxing

Answer

Answer: (d) boxing

Question 11.
What was the response of the Germans to the new Weimar Republic?
(a) They held the new Weimar Republic responsible for Germany’s defeat and the disgrace at Versailles
(b) The republic carried the burden of war guilt and national humiliation
(c) It became the target of attacks in the conservative national circles
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 12.
Which of the following statements is false about soldiers in the World War I?
(a) The soldiers, in reality, led miserable lives in trenches, survived with feeding on the copra’s
(b) They faced poisonous gas and enemy shelling and loss of comrades
(c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory
(d) Aggressive propaganda glorified war

Answer

Answer: (c) All soldiers were ready to die for their country’s honour and personal glory

Question 13.
The Treaty of Versailles (1920) signed at the end of World War I, was harsh and humiliating for Germany, because
(a) Germany lost its overseas colonies, and 13 per cent of its territories
(b) It lost 75% of its iron and 26% of its coal to France, Poland, Denmark and Lithuania, was forced to paycompensation of 6 billion pounds
(c) The western powers demilitarised Germany and they occupied resource-rich Rhineland in the 1920s
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 14.
What was Hitler’s historic blunder and why?
(a) Attack on Soviet Union in 1941 was a historic blunder by Hitler
(b) He exposed his western front to British aerial bombing
(c) The Soviet Red Army inflicted a crushing and humiliating defeat on Germany atStalingrad
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 15.
Why did Helmut’s father kill himself in the spring of 1945?
(a) He was depressed by Germany’s defeat in Second World War
(b) He feared that common people would mishandle him and his family
(c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers
(d) He wanted to die because of the crimes he had committed during Nazi rule

Answer

Answer: (c) He feared revenge by the Allied Powers

Question 16.
Which of the following bodies was set up to try and prosecute the Nazi war criminals at the end of World War II?
(a) International Military Tribunal
(b) British Military Tribunal
(c) Allied Military Tribunal
(d) Allied Judicial Court

Answer

Answer: (a) International Military Tribunal

Question 17.
Why did the Nuremburg Tribunal sentence only 11 Nazis to death for such a massive genocide?
(a) Only these 11 Nazis were found guilty
(b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar
(c) Germany promised never to repeat such an act
(d) Germany was ready to pay a huge compensation to the Allied countries for these killings

Answer

Answer: (b) The Allies did not want to be harsh on the defeated Germany as they had been after WorldWar

Question 18.
What was the most important result of the Spartacus League uprising in Germany in 1918-19?
(a) The Weimar Republic crushed the rebellion
(b) The Spartacists founded the Communist Party of Germany
(c) The Weimar government accepted the demands of the Spartacus League
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)

Question 19.
War in 1917 led to the strengthening of Allies and the defeat of Germany because of entry of
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) the USA
(d) Spain

Answer

Answer: (c) the USA

Question 20.
What was ‘Dawes Plan’?
(a) A plan which imposed more fines on Germany
(b) A plan which withdrew all punishment from Germany
(c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) A plan which reworked the terms of reparation to ease financial burden on the Germans

Question 21.
What gave Nazi state its reputation as the most dreaded criminal state?
(a) Extra-constitutional powers were given to the newly organised forces like Gestapo, the SS and SD
(b) People could be detained in Gestapo torture chambers and sent to concentration camps
(c) No legal procedures were there for the arrested people
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above

Question 22.
What was the slogan coined by Hitler when he followed his aggressive foreign policy?
(a) Messenger from God
(b) Conquer the world
(c) One people, one empire, and one leader
(d) we are Aryans, the real rulers

Answer

Answer: (c) One people, one empire, and one leader

Question 23.
When and among which countries was the Tripartite Pact signed?
(a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan
(b) 1939, Germany, Austria and USSR
(c) 1940, England, France and USA
(d) 1938, England, Germany and USSR

Answer

Answer: (a) 1940, Germany, Italy and Japan

Question 24.
Which incident persuaded the USA to join the war?
(a) Hitler’s attack on Eastern Europe
(b) Hitler’s policy of genocide of the Jews
(c) Helplessness of England and France
(d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour

Answer

Answer: (d) Japan’s attack on the US base at Pearl Harbour

Question 25.
What was Hitler’s ideology of ‘lebensraum’ or living space?
(a) Multi-storeyed buildings should be built in Germany to increase the living space
(b) The world must be occupied enabling the material resources and power of the German nation.
(c) New territories had to be acquired for settlement
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)