MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Challenges to Democracy with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Challenges to Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy

1. Which of the following represents a challenge to democracy?
(a) Women not allowed to take part in public activities in Saudi Arabia.
(b) Renewed violence in Sri Lanka following the breakdown of talks between the government and the LTTE.
(c) Money and muscle power during election.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


2. In the context of the “Challenge of Expansion”, which of the following ideas is correct?
(i) Ensuring greater power to local government.
(ii) Establishing a sovereign and functional state.
(iii) Extension of federal principles to all the units of federation.
(iv) Inclusion of women and minority groups.
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(c) (i), (iii), (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iv)

Answer

Answer: c


3. Which one of the following situations represents the success of democracy?
(a) US as the only Super power disregards the UN and takes unilateral action.
(b) General Pinochet government defeated, but army is still under control of many institutions.
(c) The King of Nepal Birendra accepted constitutional Monarchy.
(d) Integration of French speaking and Dutch speaking people in Belgium.

Answer

Answer: d


4. “Foundational challenge includes:
(a) Bringing down the existing non- democratic regimes.
(b) Strengthening of the institutions and practices of democracy.
(c) Establishing a sovereign and functional state.
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: a


5. Democracy does not stand for:
(a) Democratic Right
(b) Elections
(c) Violence
(d) Accommodation of diversity

Answer

Answer: c


6. In Bolivia, Morales a supporter of water struggle, becomes Prime Minister, MNCs threaten to leave the country.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of democracy
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: c


7. In Belgium, one round of constitutional change takes place, but the Dutch speakers, not satisfied, want more autonomy.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: b


8. In Nepal, Constituent Assembly about to be elected, unrest in Terai areas, Maoists have not surrendered arms.
(a) Foundational challenge
(b) Challenge of expansion
(c) Deepening of democracy

Answer

Answer: a


9. Looking at the expanded definition, which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
(a) The rulers elected by the people must take all the major decisions.
(b) Elections must offer a fair choice to the people to change the current rulers.
(c) The choice should be available to all people on an equal basis.
(d) To exercise this choice government must not be limited by basic rules of the Constitution and citizens’ rights.

Answer

Answer: d


10. All suggestions or proposals about overcoming various challenges to democracy are called _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: political reforms


11. The rule by the officials and organisations is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: bureaucracy


12. _____________ takes the major decision in a democracy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Elected Leaders


13. Difficulties which are very significant and which can be overcome signify _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: challenges


14. Carefully devised changes in law are called legal-constitutional changes. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


15. Every established democracy faces foundational change. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


16. The Right to Information Act empowers people to carry out democratic reforms. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


17. First priority of democracy is to form the government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


18. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Communist party adopts economic reforms but maintains monopoly over political power. (i) Sri Lanka
(b) Women not allowed to take part in public activities, no freedom of religion for minorities (ii) US Civil Rights
(c) The peace talks between the government and the LTTE breakdown. (iii) China
(d) Black have won equal rights but are still poor, less educated and marginalised. (iv) Belgium
(e) One round of constitutional change taken place, but the Dutch speakers were not satisfied they want more autonomy. (v) Saudi Arabia
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (v)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iv)


19. Explain the meaning of ‘challenge’ [Delhi 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A challenge is a difficulty, which carries within it an opportunity for further progress and which can be overcome.


20. If a non-democratic country wants to change into a democratic set up, then which kind of challenge would it face? [Delhi 2017(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Foundational challenge


21. Which type of challenge do established democracies face?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Challenge of expansion of democracy


22. Which is the very common challenge faced by a democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Deepening of democracy


23. How can democratic reforms be carried out by political conscious citizens.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They can provide effective feedback on democratic functioning, use their Right to Information to bring out transparency.


24. What are the legal ways of reforming politics?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Legal ways of reforming politics denotes carefully-devised changes in law.


25. Which type of laws are best for political reforms?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The best laws for political reforms are those which empower people to carry out activities that put a check on the functioning of the government machinery.


26. Name the Act which empowers the people to find out what is going on in the government.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Right to Information Act


27. How do we define a good democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A good democracy is the form of government in which people get equal status and opportunities in the decisionmaking process.


28. Which is the most common form of democracy in today’s world and why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The most common form of democracy in today’s world is representative democracy because most of the modem democracies involve large number of people in the decision-making process.


29. What distinguishes democracy from other forms of government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Democracy unlike other forms of government requires all its citizens to take part in the political process.


Fill in the Blanks

1. Democracy is a dominant form of government in the ……….. world.
2. At least ……….. of the globe is still not under democratic government.
3. Most of the established democracies face the challenge of ……….. .
4. ……….. requires an attempt to bring down the control of rich in making governmental decisions.
5. Most countries like India and the US face ……….. challenge.
6. ……….. constitutional changes by themselves cannot overcome challenges to democracy.
7. Laws to ban something are ……….. in politics.
8. ……….. is a law that acts as a watchdog of democracy.
9. All suggestions or proposals about overcoming challenges to democracy are called ……….. reforms.
10. Laws that give political leaders incentives to do good things have ……….. chances of working.

Answers

1. contemporary
2. one-fourth
3. expansion
4. Deepening of democracy
5. expansion
6. Legal
7. not successful
8. Right to information
9. political
10. more

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Challenges to Democracy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 8 Challenges to Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Outcomes of Democracy with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Outcomes of Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Economic growth depends on which of the following?
(a) Size of the population of the country
(b) Territory or area of the country
(c) Global scenario
(d) Co-operation among various nations

Answer

Answer: d


MCQ on Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 Question 2. Social outcomes cover the areas like
(i) Dignity and freedom of citizens
(ii) Untouchability and discrimination
(iii) Gender equality
(iv) Ban on child labour
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (ii), (i) and (iv)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i) only

Answer

Answer: b


3. The basic outcome of democracy is
(a) Political, social and economic outcome
(b) Military outcome
(c) Restricted and limited welfare policies.
(d) Elimination of poverty

Answer

Answer: a


4. If a government provides its citizens a right and means to examine the process of decision, it is
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsible government
(c) A transparent government
(d) A stable government

Answer

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 Questions and Answer: a


5. What do democracies ensure regarding decision making?
(a) Process of transparency
(b) Decisions taken by the head of the country
(c) Decision by the Council of Ministers
(d) Restricted popular participation in decision making

Answer

Answer: a


6. Which of the following is not true about democracy?
(а) It always worries about majorities and public opinion.
(б) It improves the quality of decision making.
(c) Decision making is faster and quicker.
(d) It allows a room to correct mistakes.

Answer

 

Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 MCQ With Answer: c


7. Why is democracy considered as the better form of government than dictatorship?
(a) Promotes equality and enhances dignity of the individual.
(b) Never allows room to correct mistakes.
(c) Majority community rule
(d) Provides methods to resolve conflicts

Answer

Answer: a


Outcomes of Democracy MCQ Question 8. Political outcome signifies:
(i) Accountable and responsible government .
(ii) Military rule
(iii) Legitimate government
(iv) Restricted popular participation
(a) (z), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (iii), (i) and (ii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (i) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: d


9. A government that takes decision by following norms and a proper procedure is:
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsible government
(c) A transparent government
(d) A stable government

Answer

Answer: c


10. A democratic government is:
(a) An accountable government
(b) A responsive government
(c) A legitimate government
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


MCQ of Outcomes of Democracy Question 11. When was democracy introduced in India?
(a) 1952
(b) 1950
(c) 1947
(d) 1949

Answer

Answer: b


12. Among the following which country tops in inequality of income?
(a) Hungary
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) UK

Answer

Answer: c


Multiple Choice Questions on Democracy Question 13. Among the following regimes which tops the rate of economic growth?
(a) All democratic regimes
(b) All dictatorial regimes
(c) Poor countries under dictatorship
(d) Poor countries under democracy

Answer

Answer: b


14. To measure democracies on the basis of expected outcomes, which of the following practices and institutions would one look for?
(a) Regular, free and fair elections
(b) Open public debate on major policies
(c) Citizens’ right to information about the government
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


15. The basic elements of democracy are:
A. Universal Adult Franchise
B. Fraternity and national unity
C. Liberty and equality
D. Dignity and freedom of an individual
(a) A, B & D
(b) A, C & D
(c) B, C & D
(d) A, B, C & D

Answer

 

Class 10 Civics Chapter 2 MCQ With Answer: d


16. In a democracy, a citizen has the right and means to examine the process of decision¬making. This is known as (a) Dictatorship
(b) Transparency
(c) Legitimacy
(d) Equality

Answer

Answer: b


17. Consider the following statements. Which of these do not hold true for non-democratic regimes?
(a) These do not have to bother about public opinion.
(b) These take less time at arriving at a decision.
(c) Principle of individual dignity has legal force.
(d) These often suppress internal social differences.

Answer

Answer: c


18. The most basic outcome of democracy is:
(a) It provides accountability to citizens.
(b) It addresses socio-economic and political problems.
(c) It produces good government.
(d) It accommodates religious differences.

Answer

Answer: a


19. Democratic government is better than non-democratic because
(a) it is a legitimate form of government.
(b) overwhelming support for the idea all over the world.
(c) it leads to a just distribution of goods and opportunities.
(d) it ensures faster economic growth.

Answer

Answer: a


20. ‘Equal treatment of women’ is a necessary ingredient of a democratic society. This means that:
(a) women are actually always treated with respect.
(b) it is now easier for women to legally wage struggle for their rights.
(c) most societies across the world are now increasingly women dominated.
(d) women are now treated as equals in the political arena.

Answer

Answer: b


21. Growth and development of the country in the way of providing better facilities and services to the individual signifies _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: economic development


22. Denial of opportunities to lead a long health, creative life and to enjoy a decent standard of living is related to _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: poverty


23. Decisions taken through the correct procedure by involving the people is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: transparency


24. The government ruled by the monarch or king of the country is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: monarchy


25. Privileges and rights to be valuable and important for the functioning of democratic society are called _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: civil liberties


26. A democratic government is an accountable government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


27. Democracies have successfully eliminated conflicts among people. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


28. The disadvantaged and discriminated castes have gained in strength due to democracy. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


29. Political outcome signifies Military rule. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


30. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) A democratic government is a (i) idea of political inequality
(b) A democracy is attentive to the needs of (ii) improves the quality of decision making
(c) Democracies have successfully eliminated (iii) legitimate government
(d) Democracy is considered a better form of government as it (iv) all citizens
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)


31. What are the basic elements of democracy in practical sense?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The basic elements of democracy are formal constitutions, regular, fair and free elections, political parties and fundamental rights to citizens.


32. How are most democracies different from each other?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Most democracies are different from each after in terms of their social systems, economic achievements and culture.


33. What should be the basic outcome of democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The basic outcome of democracy should be that it produces an accountable, responsive and legitimate government.


34. Why are non-democratic governments quick and efficient in decision-making and implementation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Non-democratic rulers do not bother about careful discussion and public opinion.


35. Why are decisions delayed in democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because democratic governments are based on the idea of deliberation and negotiation.


36. What do democracies ensure regarding decision-making?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Democracies ensure that decision-making is based on norms and procedures.


37. What is meant by transparency? [All India 2015]
Or
Explain the meaning of transparency in democracy. [All India 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In a democracy, the term transparency signifies that decisions are taken through the correct procedure.


38. In what aspects do the democracies have a greater success rate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Democracies have a greater success rate in setting up regular and free elections and providing conditions for an open public debate.


39. The record of democracies is not impressive on two counts. What are they?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) They are not attentive enough to the needs and demands of the people.
(b) The democracies are not free of corruption.


40. Why is there an overwhelming support for democracy all over the world?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because a democratic government is people’s own government.


41. List any two factors on which economic development depends.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Economic development depends on several factors as under:
(a) a country’s population size
(b) global situation
(c) cooperation from other countries
(d) economic priorities (any two)


42. What is political equality?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
All individuals have equal weight in electing representatives.


43. How can you say that democracies are based on political equality?[All India 2015]
Or
How is democracy based on political equality in India? [All India 2017(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
As they ensure and promote universal adult franchise.


44. ‘Democracy cannot solve all economic and social problems but still it is perceived.’ Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
‘No form of government can fully solve all economic and social problems. However, it is democracy that creates situations that help citizens to solve their social and economic problems.


45. What is economic inequality?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Economic inequality prevails when a small number of ultra-rich enjoy a highly disproportionate share of wealth and income.


46. Which country is suffering from the adverse form of economic inequality?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bangladesh


47. What is the unique plus point of democratic regions?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ability to handle social differences, divisions and conflicts.


48. How long can the democracy remain democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
As long as every citizen has a chance of being in majority at some point of time.


49. In what aspects does democracy stand much superior to any other from of government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Democracy stands much superior in promoting dignity and freedom of a person.


50. Trace any two provisions of Indian government to eradicate caste inequalities.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The following are the two provisions of Indian government to eradicate caste inequalities.
(a) Legal and moral rights have been granted to fight for equal status.
(b) The practice of untouchability has been banned.


51. List two valid points which promote dignity of women in a democratic government.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two valid points which promote dignity of women in a democratic government are as follows.
(a) Women empowerment through reservation and freedom
(b) Freedom to launch movements against social evils.


52. Which two sections of society get special emphasis in the Indian Constitution regarding equal status and equal opportunities?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Women, the disadvantaged and discriminated castes and tribes.


Outcomes of Democracy Class 10 Pdf Question 53. Name any two basic constituents of democracy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The basic constituents or aspects of democracy are:
(a) Political: government by consent.
(b) Social: social and economic equality.
(c) Economic: equal opportunity, equal status and equal distribution of income. (any two)


54. What is the dilemma regarding the practical aspect of democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The main dilemma regarding the practical aspect of democracy is that democracy is seen to be good in principle but felt to be not so good in practice.


55. List the countries which strongly believe in democracy and people’s rule. Which country has least belief in the strength of people’s vote?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
India and USA strongly believe in democracy and Pakistan has least belief in democracy.


Fill in the Blanks

1. Democracy is seen to be good in (i) …………… but not so good in its (ii) …………… .
2. We prefer democracy over dictatorships due to …………… reasons.
3. Democracies are different from each other in terms of the (i) …………… situations, their (ii) …………… achievements and their (iii) …………… .
4. The most basic outcome of democracy is that it produces a government that is …………… to the citizens.
5. Non-democratic governments are …………… in decision-making and implementation.
6. Democracy is based on the idea of …………… .
7. Democratic governments take …………… time to follow procedures before arriving at a decision.
8. Democratic governments …………… a very good record when it comes to sharing information with citizens.
9. Difference in the rate of economic development between less developed countries with dictatorship and less developed countries with democracies is …………… .
10. Democracies are mostly based on …………… equality.

Answers

1. (i) principle (ii) practice
2. both moral and prudential
3. (i) social (ii) economic (iii) cultures
4. accountable
5. quick
6. both deliberation and negotiation
7. more
8. do not have
9. negligible
10. political

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Outcomes of Democracy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 7 Outcomes of Democracy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Political Parties with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 6 Political Parties Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Political Parties Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 6 Political Parties

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Give the meaning of ‘Alliance’.
(a) Two parties together form the government.
(b) Leftist and Rightist together form the government.
(c) When state and national parties together form the government.
(d) When several parties in a multiparty system join for the purpose of contesting elections and winning power.

Answer

Answer: d


2. The political party which believes in Marxism-Leninism is [AI2011]
(a) Nationalist Congress Party.
(b) Communist Party of India.
(c) Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (DMK)
(d) Bahujan Samaj Party

Answer

Answer: b


3. Which one of the following is considered the best form of government? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Democracy
(b) Dictatorship
(c) Monarchy
(d) Military Rule

Answer

Answer: a


4. Select the statement related to the advantages
of multiparty system
(a) Multi-party system provides limited choice to voters.
(b) There is a chance of conflict.
(c) Provides choice to the voters.
(d) In Multi-party system regional parties get the representation.

Answer

Answer: c


5. Political parties are allotted symbols by [CBSE 2012]
(a) The government of India
(b) The constitution of India
(c) The party leaders
(d) The Election Commission

Answer

Answer: d


6. A recognised political party is one that
(a) is registered with the Election Commission of India.
(b) is given a unique Election symbol
(c) gets some other facilities recognised by the Election Commission
(d) All of these

Answer

Political Parties Class 10 MCQ with Answer: d


7. An Affidavit signifies (Legal);
(a) Signed document where a person makes a sworn statement regarding his or her antecedents.
(b) A law to check the menace.
(c) Legal document to declare the academic qualification.
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: a


8. What is an ideological one-party system?
(a) Party based on suppression of other parties.
(b) Party based on coercion.
(c) Party based on ideological reasons; coercion and suppression of other parties.
(d) Party based on communist ideology.

Answer

Answer: c


9. Name the oldest political party of India.
(a) Bahujan Samaj Party
(b) Indian National Congress (Congress Party)
(c) The Communist Party
(d) Bharatiya Janata Party

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ on Political Parties Question 10. Recognised political parties stand for:
(a) Parties recognised by the Election Commission with all the privileges and facilities.
(b) Parties that are present in only one of the federal units.
(c) Parties that are present in several and all units of the federation.
(d) Communal parties based on regional diversities.

Answer

Answer: a


11. Political parties are most visible institutions in a democracy because
(a) even less educated citizens know about political parties.
(b) for ordinary citizens democracy is equal to political parties.
(c) parties have become identified with social : and political divisions.
(d) most people in a democracy are not critical of political parties.
Which of the above statements is false?

Answer

Answer: d


12. The number of political parties registered with the Election Commission of India is
(a) 750 parties
(b) more than 750 parties
(c) Less than 750 parties
(d) 705 parties

Answer

Answer: b


13. Which party is only allowed to rule in China?
(a) Socialist party
(b) Communist party
(c) Liberal party
(d) Maoist party

Answer

Answer: b


14. How many parties are needed in any democratic system to compete in elections and provide a fair chance for the competing parties ; to come to power?
(a) Less than two
(b) At least two parties
(c) More than two parties
(d) At least three parties

Answer

Answer: b


Political Parties MCQ Question 15. An example of a country where two-party system exists
(a) India
(b) United Kingdom
(c) China
(d) Pakistan

Answer

Answer: b


16. An example of a country having the multi party system is
(a) China
(b) USA
(c) India
(d) United Kingdom

Answer

Answer: c


17. The term ‘partisan’ means:
(a) A group of people who come together to promote common beliefs.
(b) Affair of the state or the science of governance.
(c) A person who is strongly committed to a party.
(d) The ruling party which runs the government.

Answer

Answer: c


18. A recognised political party is
(a) a party that is present in only one of the federal units.
(b) a party that is present in several and all units of the federation.
(c) a party that is based on regional and communal diversities.
(d) a party recognised by the ‘Election Commission’ with all the privileges and facilities.

Answer

Answer: d


19. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: ruling party


20. The UK and USA have ____________ party system.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: two party


21. The Constitution was amended to stop ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: defection


22. ____________ is the tendency to take a side and inability to take a balanced view on an issue.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Partisan


23. One of the demerits, of multiparty, is that it often appears very messy and leads to political ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: instability


MCQ of Chapter Political Parties Class 10 Question 24. Communist Party of India is the oldest political party. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


25. Opposition parties are known as political minority. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


26. Trinamool congress is a regional party of Odisha. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


27. Bahujan Samaj Party was founded by Kanshi Ram in 1984. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


28. The UK and USA have a Two Party system. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


29. What is one of the most visible institutions in a democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Political parties.


30. What is democracy equal to for most common people?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
For most common people democracy is equal to political parties.


31. To what have the political parties been identified with?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In the recent decades, political parties have been identified with social and political divisions.


MCQs on Political Parties Question 32. Explain the meaning of ‘Political Party’. [All India 2017 (C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A political party is a group of people who come together to contest elections and hold power in the government. For e.g. Indian National Congress, Bharatiya Janata Party


33. Define ‘Partisan’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A person strongly committed to a party, group or faction is called partisan.


34. Name the three components of political parties.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The leaders, the active members and the followers.


35. Mention the difference between the party system of USA and India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In USA, members and supporters of a party choose its candidates whereas in India, top party leaders choose candidates for contesting elections.


36. What provides policy direction to be formulated by the government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A large number of similar opinions grouped together.


37. In what way do political parties play the role of an opposition?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By voicing different views and criticising the government for its failures or wrong policies.


38. Why do parties have to be responsive to people’s needs and demands?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because the people can reject them is the next elections.


39. What led to the rise of political parties?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Emergence of representative democracy


40. What do you mean by two-party or bi-party system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A political system where there are two major parties.


41. Define multiparty system.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A political system where more than two parties exist and contest elections to come to power.


42. Can we have party less Democracy? Why/ Why not. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
No it is not possible to have a party-less democracy because political parties are necessary to conduct elections and to make parliamentary system more systematic.


43. Why do we have a multiparty system in India? [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because of its social and geographical diversity that cannot be absorbed by two or three parties.


44. On what basis does a country choose its party system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A country chooses its party system on the basis of the:
(a) nature of society
(b) history of elections
(c) social differences


45. Which two kinds of political parties do the democracies have all over the world?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Parties that are present only in the federal units
(b) Parties that are present in several or all units of the federation


46. Why are some political parties called national parties?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because all their units in the country follow the same policies and programmes and strategies that are decided at the national level.


47. Which organisation does recognise ‘Political Parties’ in India? [Delhi 2017 (C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Election Commission


48. How many recognised national parties are there in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
There are seven recognised national parties in India.


49. Which party emerged as the fourth largest party in the 2014 Lok Sabha elections?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The All India Trinamool Congress (AITC)


50. Which party played a dominant role in Indian politics at the national and state level for several decades after India’s Independence?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Indian National Congress


51. How was the Bharatiya Janta Party formed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
BJP was founded in 1980 by reviving the erstwhile Bharatiya Jana Sangh, formed by Syama Prasad Mukherjee in 1951.


52. What is the main philosophy of Bharatiya Janta Party?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To build a strong and modem India by drawing inspiration from India’s ancient culture and values.


53. Name the party that adopted the concept of Hindutva(cultural nationalism) in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bharatiya Janta Party


54. Under whose leadership was the Bahujan Samaj Party formed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Kanshi Ram


55. Which political party seeks to represent and secure power for dalits, OBCs and adivasis?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Bahujan Samaj Party (BSP)


MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science with Answers Pdf Question 56. Which two parties were formed after their split with the parent party?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two parties formed after their split with parent party are
(a) The Communist Party of India-Marxist (CPI-M) from Communist Party of India (CPI) in 1964.
(b) The Nationalist Congress Party (NCP) from the Indian National Congress (INC) in 1999.


57. Name the party that believes that high offices in government should be confined to natural bom citizens of the country.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Nationalist Congress Party


58. Give the meaning of state or regional party.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A party which is present in only one of the federal units and is identified with that region only


59. Name any two State/Regional parties of Bengal.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Forward Block
(b) Trinamool Congress


60. If all the decisions of a political party are made by a single family and all other members are neglected, then what challenge is being faced by that party? [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In this situation the party faces the challenge of dynastic succession.


61. Define defection.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It means leaving a political party to join another for some personal gains.


62. Define an ‘affidavit’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a signed document submitted to an offices, where a person makes a sworn statement regarding his/her personal information.


63. Do political parties educate people?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, political parties educate people through various means like debates, discussions, etc.


64. How do political parties shape public opinion?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Political parties shape public opinion by raising and highlighting public issues with the help of their activists and members spread all over the country.


65. Which party can be referred to as a recognised party?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A party which gets registered with the Election Commission with a unique election symbol and other facilities can be referred to as a recognised party.


66. Define mono-party system.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The one-party or mono-party system is such a political system in which only one party is allowed to control and run the government, for example, Communist Party in China.


67. Name any one political party that has national level political organisation but is not recognised as the national political party.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Samajwadi Party, Samta Party and Rashtriya Janata Dal.


68. Why is one-party political system not considered a good option in democratic system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One-party political system not considered a good option in democratic system.


Fill in the Blanks

1. In some countries, such as …………, members and supporters of a party choose its candidates.
2. A political party is a group of people who come together with a view to promote …………. .
3. A government is expected to base its policies on the line taken by the
4. Formally, laws are debated and passed in the …………. .
5. The parties that lose in the elections play the role of …………. to the party in power by criticising its failures.
6. Many of the …………. groups are extensions of political parties among different sections of societies.

Answers

1. The USA
2. collective good
3. ruling party
4. legislature
5. opposition
6. pressure

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Political Parties with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 6 Political Parties Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Popular Struggles and Movements with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Popular Struggles and Movements Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements

1. How did King Gyanendra take advantage of the weak democratically elected government? [CBSE 2012]
(a) He dissolved the Parliament
(b) He dismissed the Prime Minister
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) He rigged the elections

Answer

Answer: c


2. The word MNC is related to which issue:
(a) Nepal’s popular struggle
(b) Bolivia water war
(c) Environmental movement
(d) Narmada Bachao Andolan

Answer

Answer: b


3. Which one of the following is the ‘Third Wave’ country that had won democracy in 1990? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Bolivia
(b) Belgium
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

Answer

Answer: d


4. What were the aims of the movement started by SPA?
(a) Restoration of Parliament
(b) Unlimited power to monarch
(c) Power to an all-party government
(d) A new Constituent Assembly

Answer

Answer: a


5. Who were Maoists?
(a) Communists who believe in the ideology of Mao
(b) Democrats who believe in the democratic form of government
(c) Members of SPA group
(d) Members of royal family

Answer

Answer: a


6. Which pressure group seeks to promote collective good?
(a) Sectional Interest (Pressure Group)
(b) Public Interest Group
(c) Movement Groups
(d) Loose Organisation

Answer

Answer: b


7. In which two ways, the Public Interest Groups achieve their aims? [CBSE 2012]
(i) They organise meetings to win the Public Support.
(ii) They raise slogans against the Government and disrupt public.
(iii) They try to influence the media by drawing their attention to their cause.
(iv) They set up the public property on fire.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: b


8. In Bolivia protest against water privatisation was led by: [CBSE 2012]
(a) Trade Unions
(b) FEDECOR
(c) Human Rights Organisation
(d) Anti-liquor movement

Answer

Answer: b


9. To which one of the following Continents, Bolivia belongs? [CBSE 2012]
(a) Africa
(b) Europe
(c) South America
(d) Asia

Answer

Answer: c


10. Backward and Minorities Community Employees Federation (BAMCEF) is an example of which one of the following? [Delhi 2011]
(a) Public interest group
(b) A movement for equality
(c) A sectional interest group
(d) A political party

Answer

Answer: a


11. Pressure groups are either formed or led by
(a) Political parties
(b) Trade Unions
(c) Students organisations
(d) Business groups

Answer

Answer: a


12. In most cases the relationship between political parties and interest groups is
(a) direct
(b) not opposed to each other
(c) in dialogue and negotiation
(d) opposed yet in dialogue

Answer

Answer: d


13. Which of the following statements is not true about democracy?
(a) Democracy evolves through popular struggle.
(b) Democratic conflict is resolved through mass mobilisation.
(c) Role of popular struggle comes to an end with the establishment of democracy.
(d) Public participation becomes effective with the help of organised politics.

Answer

Answer: c


14. Which of the following is not good for democracy?
(a) Demonstration
(b) Mass mobilization
(c) Multinational company
(d) Political organisation

Answer

Answer: c


15. Pressure groups and movements have deepened democracy by
(a) putting pressure on the public
(b) countering undue influence of the government
(c) non-accommodation of conflicting interests
(d) controlling and sharing political power

Answer

Answer: b


16. In a democracy direct participation in competitive politics is done by:
(a) forming organisations
(b) promoting interests
(c) contesting elections
(d) mobilising masses

Answer

Answer: c


17. Nepal witnessed an extraordinary popular movement in
(a) April 1990
(b) February 2005
(c) April 2006
(d) April 2004

Answer

Answer: c


18. Maoists are people who believe in
(a) absolute monarchy
(b) constitutional monarchy
(c) rule of peasants through armed revolt
(d) democratically elected government

Answer

Answer: c


19. People’s struggle in Bolivia was
(a) to establish democracy
(b) about foundation of country’s politics
(c) against privatisation of water
(d) against privatisation of electricity

Answer

Answer: c


20. In a democracy, spontaneous public partici-pation becomes effective with the help of
(a) Parliament
(b) Judiciary
(c) Organised politics
(d) Executive

Answer

Answer: c


21. In 2006 the party that came to power in Bolivia was
(a) SPA —Seven Party Alliance
(b) Socialist Party
(c) Communist Party
(d) Nationalist Party

Answer

Answer: b


22. In dealing with popular struggles and conflicting demands, which one of the following statements is not correct about democracy?
(a) Democracy almost invariably involves conflicts of interests and viewpoints.
(b) The conflicts and mobilisation are expressed in organised ways based on new political organisations.
(c) In a democracy significant decisions take place through consensus and do not involve any conflict at all.

Answer

Answer: a


23. ____________ led the struggle against ‘privatisation of water’ in Bolivia.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: FEDECOR


24. Democracy evolves through ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Popular Struggles


25. The government of ____________ sold water right to the MNC.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bolivia


26. ____________ are groups that attempt to influence government policies.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Pressure Groups


27. The movement in Nepal was to establish Democracy, while the struggle in Bolivia involved claims on elected democratic government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


28. Interest Groups are organisations that do not attempt to influence government policies. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


29. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a good example of Pressure group. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


30. On 24th April, 2004 the SPA chose King Birendra as the new Prime Minister of the interim government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


31. What was the main aim of the popular movement of April 2006, in Nepal? [All India 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Restoration of democracy


32. Who was chosen the new Prime Minister of the interim government of Nepal?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Girija Prasad Koirala


33. In which continent is Bolivia located?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: South America.


34. What was the main cause of Bolivia’s water war?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The main cause of Bolivia’s water war was the increased price of water by four times, after the Government of Bolivia sold its rights of water supply to a multinational company.


35. Name other political organisation which participated in the Bolivia’s water war.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The Socialist Party


36. What does the term FEDECOR signify?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The term FEDECOR signifies an organisation in Bolivia comprising local professionals, including engineers and environmentalists.


37. State the difference between Bolivia’s war and Nepal’s popular movement?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bolivia’s water war was about one specific policy, while the popular struggle in Nepal was about the foundations of the country’s politics.


38. Which international organisation pressurised the Bolivian government to give up its control of water supply?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The World Bank


39. Name any two sectional interest groups. [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two sectional interest groups of India are HindMazdoor Sabha and Bengal Jute Mill Workers’ Union.


40. What is NAPM?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National Alliance for Peoples’ Movements (NAPM) is an organisation of organisations which coordinates the activities of a large number of peoples’ movements in our country.


41. What does an issue-specific movement imply?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
An issue-specific movement implies a single-objective movement within a limited time frame.


42. What are generic movements?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Generic movements are long-term movements that involve more than one issue.


43. Distinguish between pressure groups and political parties by stating any one point of distinction. [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Pressure groups resort to agitational politics like marches, demonstrations and strikes to achieve their aims. Political parties use only constitutional means to achieve their aims.


44. Give two examples of political parties that grew out of movements.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two examples of such political parties are Asom Gana Parishad and All India Anna Dravida Munnetra Kazhagam (AIADMK).


45. Which Nepalese king accepted the constitutional monarchy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
King Birendra accepted the constitutional monarchy.


46. Who dissolved the popularly elected parliament in February 2005, in Nepal?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
King Gyanendra dissolved the popularly elected Parliament in February 2005, in Nepal.


47. Who formed a Seven Party Alliance (SPA) in Nepal? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Seven Party Alliance (SPA) was formed by all the major political parties that had some members in the parliament.


Fill in the Blanks

1. Defining moments of democracy usually ………… involve between those groups who have exercised power and those who j aspire for share in power.
2. Defining moments of democracy come when the country is going through ………… to democracy or ………… of democracy.
3. ………… are organisations that influence government policies.
4. ………… have a loose organisation and their decision making is informal.
5. ………… aim to directly control or share political power.
6. The protest against water privatisation in Bolivia was led by ………… .

Answers

1. conflicts
2. transition, deepening
3. Pressure Groups
4. Movements
5. Political Parties
6. FEDECOR

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Popular Struggles and Movements with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 5 Popular Struggles and Movements Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Print Culture And The Modern World with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Print Culture And The Modern Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Print Culture And The Modern Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 7 Print Culture And The Modern World

Print Culture and The Modern World Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 1. Who was Marcopolo?
(a) German scientist
(b) English philosopher
(c) Spanish explorer
(d) Italian traveller/explorer

Answer

Answer: d


MCQ Of Print Culture And Modern World Question 2. Who wrote about the injustices of the caste system in ‘Gulamgiri’? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Raja Rammohan Roy
(b) Jyotiba Phule
(c) Balgangadhar Tilak
(d) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ Of Chapter Print Culture And The Modern World Questions 3. Which of the following refers to print revolution?
(a) Invention of printing press
(b) Shift from hand printing to mechanical printing
(c) Revolt of people against printed matters
(d) Handwritten manuscripts for printed books

Answer

Answer: b


Print Culture And The Modern World MCQ Question 4. Aim of Protestant Reformation was to:
(a) reform religion
(ft) reform the Catholic church
(c) reform Jewish religion
(d) to protest against all reform

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ On History Print Culture And The Modern World Question 5. Why was James Augustus Hickey persecuted by Governor General Warren Hastings?
(a) For poor editing of Bengal Gazette
(b) For publishing a lot of gossip about company’s Senior Official
(c) For publishing substandard material
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: b


CBSE Class 10 History Print Culture and The Modern World MCQ Question 6. By whom was ‘ Sambad Kaumudi’ published in 1821?
(a) Iswer Chandra Vidyasagar
(b) C.R. Das
(c) Raja Rammohun Roy
(d) Swami Vivekanand

Answer

Answer: c


Class 10 History Chapter 7 MCQ With Answers Question 7. In ancient India which of the following material was used for writing manuscripts?
(a) Parchments
(b) Vellum
(c) Palm leaves
(d) Paper

Answer

Answer: b


Print Culture and Modern World MCQ Question 8. Which one of the following is the oldest Japanese book? [CBSE 2014]
(a) Sutta Pitaka
(b) Diamond Sutra
(c) Mahavamsa
(d) Dipavamsa

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ For Class 10 History Print Culture Question 9. The reformation movement was launched against the corrupt practices of which of the following group?
(a) Feudal Lords
(b) Protestant Church
(c) Catholic Church
(d) Absolute rulers

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ Questions On Print Culture 10. Who among the following was not a women novelist?
(a) Jane Austen
(b) Bronte Sisters
(c) George Eliot
(d) Maxim Gorky

Answer

Answer: d


Class 10 CBSE SST Objectives For Print Culture Question 11. Name the country which remained the major producer of printed material for a long time:
(a) The Imperial State of China
(b) Germany
(c) Korea
(d) Japan.

Answer

Answer: a


Assertion And Reason Questions For Class 10 Social Science Question 12. Buddhist missionaries from China had introduced one of the following in Japan. Pick up the correct one from the list given below:
(a) Tripitakas (religious canons —three basic Buddhist principles)
(b) Hand printing technology
(c) Buddhism
(d) Teachings of Buddha

Answer

Answer: b


Print Culture And The Modern World NCERT Question Answers Question 13. Complete the sentence with one out of the following words:
The Chinese paper reached Europe through
(a) Silk Route
(b) Sea route
(c) Buddhist missionaries
(d) Merchants

Answer

Answer: a


Class 10 Print Culture Question 14. Where from did the Italians get the technology of wood block printing?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) India
(d) Korea

Answer

Answer: a


Print Culture And The Modern World Notes Question 15. Merchants and students in the University towns bought cheaper printed copies of books in Europe. What kind of books were bought by the aristocrats? Pick out the correct answer.
(a) Handwritten books on silk.
(b) Books made out of papyrus leaves.
(c) Handwritten books on very expensive vellum (a parchment made from the skin of animals).
(d) Books engraved on copper plates.

Answer

Answer: c


1 Mark Question Of Print Culture Question 16. Which of the following was not a reason for the limited popularity of handwritten manuscripts in Europe:
(a) Manuscripts were fragile.
(b) They were awkward to handle and could I not be carried around easily.
(c) The content of manuscripts was rebellious and seditious.
(d) Copying manuscripts was expensive and time-consuming.

Answer

Answer: c


Print Culture And Modern World Imp Questions Question 17. Who invented the first known printing press and where?
(a) Henry Ford, USA
(b) Leo Tolstoy, Russia
(c) Sir Henry Morton Stanley, America
(d) Johann Gutenberg, Germany

Answer

Answer: d


Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Important Questions And Answers Question 18. Not everyone welcomed the printed book.
There was widespread criticism. What could have been the reason? Find the correct answer from the options given below:
(a) It was feared that if there was no control over what was printed and read, then rebellious and irreligious thoughts might spread.
(b) Books will corrupt the minds of young i readers.
(c) It will divide the society into intellectuals i and non-intellectuals.
(d) Time will be wasted in reading books and it will hamper the work of daily life.

Answer

Answer: a


Print Culture Class 10 Questions and Answers Question 19. Many historians have argued that print j culture created the conditions within which French Revolution occurred. Choose the correct statement in this regard from the list; given below:
(a) Print culture promoted the idea of Conservatism.
(b) It motivated the masses to protest old norms and values.
(c) Print culture created public opinion in favour of despotic power of the State.
(d) Print popularized the ideas of enlightened ; thinkers who attacked the despotic power of the State.

Answer

Answer: d


MCQs For Class 10 Social Science Question 20. When did Printing Press come to India? Find the correct date from the list given below.
(a) Mid 16th century
(b) Late 14th century
(c) Beginning of 18th century
(d) 19th century

Answer

Answer: a


Multiple Choice Questions Social Science Class 10 Question 21. ‘The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress and public opinion is the force that will sweep despotism away.’ Who said these words?
(a) Manocchio
(b) Louise Sebastien Mercier
(c) Martin Luther
(d) Erasmus

Answer

Answer: b


Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Question Bank Question 22. How did print culture help poor people in India?
(a) Huge number of books which had flooded the markets led to the opening of hundreds of bookshops, where poor people got employed.
(b) Public libraries were set up, where jobs were offered to poor people.
(c) Cheap books were brought out which the poor people could afford to buy and read.
(d) Selling books with a small investment became a business for poor people.

Answer

Answer: c


Multiple Choice Questions On Culture Question 23. Why was the Vernacular Press Act passed by the British Government in India?
(a) The Vernacular Act was passed to promote vernacular languages.
(b) The Vernacular Act was passed by the British government to put some check on vernacular newspapers which had become assertively nationalist.
(c) The Vernacular Act was passed to please the Indians who wanted to promote Indian languages.
(d) The Vernacular Act was passed to consolidate British rule in India.

Answer

Answer: b


History Class 10 Print Culture Question 24. What made Governor-General Warren Hastings persecute James Hickey who edited the Bengal Gazette?
(a) He published articles supporting Indian nationalist leaders.
(b) He published advertisements related to import and sale of slaves.
(c) He published anti-religious articles.
(d) He published gossip about senior East India Company officials.

Answer

Answer: d


Kumar Academy Print Culture Question 25. The main theme of the book ‘Chhote aur Bade Ka Sawal’ written by Kashibaba, a Kanpur mill worker, was:
(a) The life of the elite upper castes.
(b) The link between caste and class exploitation.
(c) Restrictions on the Vernacular Press.
(d) Injustices of the caste system.

Answer

Answer: b


Print Culture And The Modern World Notes Pdf Question 26. Skilled hand writers were known as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: scribes


Print Culture Question Answer Question 27. ___________ was the Latin scholar who expressed deep anxiety about printed book.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Erasmus


Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10th Question 28. ‘Amar Jiban’ is the autobiography of ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rashsundari Debi


Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 Test Question 29. The first printing press was developed by ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Johann Gutenberg


Print Culture Class 10 Pdf Question 30. ___________ is an art of beautiful and stylised writing.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Calligraphy


Print Culture Solutions Question 31. Amar Jiban was the autobiography written by Rashsundari Debi. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


Class 10 Print Culture And Modern World Solutions Question 32. Vellum is the parchment made of animal skin. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


Print Culture Questions Question 33. Monnocchio said “The printing press is the most powerful engine of progress”. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


Print Culture And The Modern World Board Questions Question 34. American explorer Marco Polo brought back the knowledge of printing to Italy. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


Print Culture And The Modern World Class 10 PPT Question 35. ‘ Bengal Gazette ’ the weekly magazine was brought out byGangadhar Bhattacharya. (True/F alse)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


36. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Chapbook (i) Earlier name of Tokyo
(b) Gutenburg (ii) First printed book published in Europe
(c) Manuscript (iii) Pocket size cheap book
(d) Edo (iv) Handwritten original text
(e) Bible (v) Printing Press
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (v)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)
(e) (ii)


37. Where did the earliest kind of print technology i.e., the system of hand printing develop? [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The earliest kind of print technology was developed in China.


38. Name the Chinese traditional book which was folded and stitched at the side. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Accordion Book


39. Name the city in China, which became the hub of new print culture in the late nineteenth century.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Shanghai


40. How had hand printing technology introduced in Japan?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Buddhist missionaries from China introduced hand printing technology into Japan around 768 – 770 AD.


41. In early times how did silk and spices from China reach Europe?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Silk and spices from China reached Europe through the ‘Silk Route’


Learning Objectives Of Print Culture And Modern World Question 42. What is vellum?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Vellum is a parchment made from the skin of animals.


43. Who were scribes?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Skilled persons who used to write manuscript for the publishers were called scribes.


44. Why could not manuscripts satisfy the increasing demand of books in Europe during fourteenth century? [CBSE 2018(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They were handwritten and costly. Writing – them was a time consuming process.


45. Who developed the first known printing press?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Johann Gutenberg developed the first known printing press at Strasbourg, Germany in the 1430s.


46. What were ballads? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ballads are historical accounts or folk tales in the form of verses which were sung or recited.


47. How did publishers persuade the common people to welcome printed books?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They began publishing ballads and folk tales illustrated with pictures.


48. What are taverns?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Taverns are places where people gather to drink alcohol, to eat food and meet friends and exchange news.


49. What was the basis of widespread criticism of the new printed literature?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Spread of rebellious and irreligious thoughts that would destroy the authority of religious authorities and monarchs.


50. Who said ‘Printing is the Ultimate gift of God and the greatest one’? [CBSE 2011,2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:


51. What were the ‘heretical’ ideas according to the Roman Church?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Heretical ideas were the beliefs which do not follow the accepted teachings of the Church.


52. Why did the Roman Catholic Church impose control over publishers and booksellers? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They had a fear of losing their power and authority.


53. What were almanacs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
An annual publication giving astronomical data, information about the movement of the sun and moon, timing of full tides and eclipse etc.


54. What were chapbooks? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Chapbooks were pocket size books that were sold by travelling pedlars called chapmen.


55. What were Biliotheque Blue in France?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
‘Biliotheque Blue’ were low priced books, printed on cheap paper and bound in blue cover in France.


56. Define ‘despotism’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a system of governance where an individual exercises absolute power without any legal and constitutional checks.


57. Who said the following words: ‘Tremble, therefore, tyrants of the world! Tremble before the virtual writer!’

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Louise-Sebastien Mercier


58. Name two scholars whose writings created conditions of revolution in France.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Voltaire and Rousseau


59. What form of literature mocked the royalty and its morality?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cartoons and Caricatures


60. What type of publication was meant for women?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Penny magazines and manuals that taught housekeeping and proper behaviour.


61. Name any two best known women novelists in the 19th century.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Jane Austen, Bronke Sisters and George Eliot (any two)


62. What was the contribution of Richard M. Hoe to the art of printing?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Richard M. Hoe of New York perfected the power driven cylindrical press. It could print 8000 sheets per hour. It was useful for printing newspapers.


63. Mention any one characteristic feature of an offset press. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The offset press could print up to six colours at a time.


64. What were Shilling Series’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In the early 20th century, popular works in England were sold in cheap series called the Shilling Series.


65. Name the languages in which India had a rich and old tradition of handwritten manuscripts.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sanskrit, Arabic, Persian and various other vernacular languages.


66. Who brought the printing press first to Goa? [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Portuguese missionaries in the mid-sixteenth century.


67. Who brought out the first Tamil book?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Catholic priests printed the first Tamil book in 1579.


68. Which weekly magazine described itself as ‘a commercial paper open to all, but influenced by none’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bengal Gazette.


69. Who was the editor of Bengal Gazette published in 1780?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
James Augustus Hickey was the author of Bengal Gazette published in 1780.


70. Which was the first newspaper of India and by whom was it brought?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bengal Gazette brought by Gangadhar Bhattacharya


71. Name two Persian newspapers which were published from 1822 onwards.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Persian newspapers were
(a) Jam-l-Jahan Nama
(b) Shamsul Akhbar


72. Name the first edition of Indian religious text published in vernacular. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The first edition of the Indian religious text published in vernacular was the Ramcharitmanas of Tulsidas.


73. Which literary forms entered the world of reading?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Novels, lyrics, short stories, essays etc.


74. Who wrote the autobiography A mar Jibanl

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rashsundari Debi


75. Name any two women writers who highlighted women experiences in the late 19th century.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kailashbashini Debi, Tarabai Shinde, Pandita Ramabai. (any two)


76. What was the subject matter of the writings of Tarabai Shinde and Pandita Ramabai?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Miserable lives of uppercaste Hindu women especially widows


77. What issues were discussed in the early 20* century journals in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Women’s education, widowhood, widow remarriage and national movement.


78. Name the book published by Rama Chadha in Punjab. What was the main theme of the book?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rama Chadha published the fast selling book Istri Dharam Vichar to teach women how to be obedient wives.


79. What was Battalal?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It was an area, in central Calcutta which was used to print popular books.


80. What was the main topic of Jyotiba Phule’s book Gulamgirfi?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In his book Gulamgiri, Jyotiba Phule wrote about the injustices of the caste system.


81. Who authored ChhoteAur Bade Ka Sawal in 1938?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kanpur millworker, Kashibaba


82. What were Sacchi Kavitayan?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A collection of poems by a Kanpur mill- worker under the name of Sudarshan Chakr


83. What was Vernacular Press Act? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Vernacular Press Act was passed to give extensive powers to the government to censor reports and editorials in Vernacular languages.


84. Who was the owner of Kesari?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Balgangadhar Tilak


85. What is lithography?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the process of printing from a surface i.e., from a stone or a metal plate, on which the image to be printed is ink receptive and blank area ink-repellent.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Print Culture And The Modern with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 7 Print Culture And The Modern Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science The Age of Industrialisation with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science The Age of Industrialisation MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation

The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 1. The person who got people from village, ensured them jobs, helped them settle in cities and provided them money in times of need was known as: [CBSE 2011]
(a) Stapler
(b) Fuller
(c) Gomastha
(d) Jobber

Answer

Answer: d


MCQ Of Chapter Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 2. Why did Manchester export to India decline after the First World War?
(a) People were busy fighting the war.
(b) Factories closed down due to security problem.
(c) Factories and mills were busy producing goods to fulfill the need of army.
(d) Export trade was restricted by the government.

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ On The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Question 3. Why were workers in England hostile to machines and new technology?
(a) They did not know how to use these.
(b) They feared that they would lose their jobs and livelihood.
(c) The workers were too poor to buy new machines.
(d) They were scared of machines.

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ Of The Age Of Industrialisation Question 4. Why were there frequent clashes between the gomastha and the weavers?
(a) The weavers hated foreigners.
(b) The gomastha forced the weavers to sell goods at a dictated price.
(c) Gomasthas were outsiders without long term social link with the village.
(d) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: c


MCQ On Age Of Industrialisation Question 5. From which of the following trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune?
(a) Textile trade
(b) China trade
(c) Trade in tea
(d) Industries

Answer

Answer: b


Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Question 6. Which of the following was a European managing agency?
(a) Tata Iron and Steel Company
(b) Andrew Yule
(c) Elgin Mill
(d) Birla industries

Answer

Answer: b


Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQs Question 7. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) The cotton crop perished
(b) Raw cotton exports increased
(c) Local markets shrank
(d) Export market collapsed

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ Questions On Age Of Industrialisation Question 8. In Victorian Britain the upper classes- aristocratic class and bourgeoisie preferred handmade goods because:
(a) they were made from imported material.
(b) the handmade goods came to symbolize refinement and class.
(c) they were better finished.
(d) only upper class could afford the expensive items.

Answer

Answer: b


The Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 9. By late 19th century why did the British manufacturers print calendars for advertisements?
(a) Indian people were fond of using calendars in their houses.
(b) Unlike newspapers and magazines, calendars were used even by people who did not know how to read or write.
(c) It was cheaper to advertise goods through calendars.
(d) It used to add beauty to the room.

Answer

Answer: b


Class 10 History Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 10. Which of the following innovations helped the weavers in increasing productivity and compete with mill sector?
(a) Spining jenny
(b) Fly shuttle
(c) Cotton Gin
(d) Roller

Answer

Answer: b


Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Question 11. In the 17th century, merchants from towns in Europe moved to the countryside to:
(a) supply money to peasants and artisans to persuade them to produce for international markets.
(b) persuade them to settle in towns.
(c) provide them with small workshops.
(d) stop them from working for other companies.

Answer

Answer: a


MCQ Of Chapter 5 History Class 10 Question 12. Name the first industrial country in the world:
(a) France
(b) Japan
(c) Britain
(d) Germany

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ Questions For Class 10 History With Answers Question 13. Why couldn’t the merchants expand production within towns?
(a) The powerful guilds did not allow them to do so.
(b) New merchants were not competent enough to carry on production work and trade.
(c) New merchants had inadequate capital.
(d) Competent weavers and artisans were not available in towns.

Answer

Answer: a


The Age Of Industrialisation MCQ Questions Question 14. Where was the first cotton mill established? ;
(a) Bombay
(b) Ahmedabad
(c) Kanpur
(d) Madras

Answer

Answer: a


Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Quiz Question 15. Who devised the Spinning Jenny?
(a) James Hargreaves
(b) James Watt
(c) Richard Arkwright
(d) Samuel Luke

Answer

Answer: a


1 Mark Question Of Age Of Industrialisation With Answers Question 16. How did urban merchants acquire trade monopoly?
(a) The old merchants had won over the weavers and artisans.
(b) The powerful members of the guilds had bribed the rulers.
(c) The rulers granted different guilds the ‘monopoly right’ and trade of specific products.
(d) The guilds were so powerful that they did not allow new merchants to enter into the field of trade.

Answer

Answer: c


Age Of Industrialisation 1 Mark Questions Question 17. Indian industrial growth increased after First World War because:
(a) British opened new factories in India.
(b) New technological changes occurred.
(c) Indian mills now had a vast home market to supply to.
(d) India became independent.

Answer

Answer: c


Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 MCQ Questions With Answers Question 18. Which of the following helped the production of handloom cloth?
(a) Imposition of export duties
(b) Technological changes
(c) Government regulations
(d) Import duties

Answer

Answer: b


MCQ For Class 10 History Question 19. Why was it difficult to get a job in a factory in 19th century Britain?
(a) Employers were looking for only skilled workers and they rejected inexperienced applicants.
(b) The number of jobs were less than the number of job seekers.
(c) Employers did not prefer migrants.
(d) Employers wanted educated workers.

Answer

Answer: b


Age Of Industrialisation Class 10 Questions Question 20. What made workers become hostile to the ‘Spinning Jenny’?
(a) Common people had not yet accepted machine-made products.
(b) To some people machines appeared as ‘monsters’.
(c) It had reduced the demand for labour.
(d) Hand-made goods were still popular.

Answer

Answer: c


21. Which of the following is not a reason why industrialists in 19th century Europe preferred hand labour over machines?
(a) There was abundance of labour, so wages were low.
(b) Hand labour produced uniform and standardised goods for a mass market.
(c) Machines required huge capital investment.
(d) Industries, where demand was seasonal, industrialists preferred hand labour.

Answer

Answer: b


22. After 1940s, building activity opened up greater opportunities of employment. What kind of work was introduced?
(a) Construction of big business houses.
(b) Construction of mills and factories.
(c) Construction of railway lines, railway stations and digging up of tunnels.
(d) Construction of cinema halls for entertainment.

Answer

Answer: c


23. Coarser cotton was produced in many countries but finer varieties came from:
(a) Persia
(6) India
(c) China
(d) Surinam

Answer

Answer: b


24. With the growth of colonial power, trade through the new ports of Bombay and Calcutta came to be controlled by:
(a) Indian merchants
(b) European companies
(c) The East India Company
(d) British Parliament.

Answer

Answer: b


25. Identify the incorrect option. Early entrepreneur of India:
(a) Dwarkanath Tagore of Bengal
(b) Seth Hukumchand of Calcutta
(c) Bhai Bhosle of Bombay
(d) Dinshaw Petit and Jamsetjee . Nusserwanjee—Parsis of Bombay.

Answer

Answer: c


26. How did the mill owners organize the recruitment of workers? Choose the correct answer from the list given below:
(a) They were recruited through tests/ examinations.
(b) Selection boards used to be set up.
(c) Owners employed through jobbers (very often the jobber was an old trustworthy worker).
(d) Family members of the owners were recruited.

Answer

Answer: c


27. Why did the weavers suffer from a problem of raw cotton?
(a) Raw cotton exports increased.
(b) The cotton crop perished.
(c) Local markets shrank.
(d) Export market collapsed.

Answer

Answer: a


28. Name the most dynamic industry in Britain.
(a) Food processing
(b) Leather goods production
(c) Cotton and metal industries
(d) Electronic goods production

Answer

Answer: c


29. How did the East India Company prevent the Indian weavers from dealing with other companies?
(a) Paid higher prices for their products.
(b) Bought them off as slaves.
(c) Offered them loans for their production.
(d) Imposed extra tarrif to discourage them to deal with other foreigners.

Answer

Answer: c


30. Which war materials were produced in India to supply to Britain during World War I?
(a) Gunpowder, cannons and other ammunition.
(b) Jute bags, cloth for army uniforms, tents and leather boots.
(c) Medicines for the wounded soldiers.
(d) Hammers, axes and other building material.

Answer

Answer: b


31. Guilds were associations of ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: traders


32. ___________ was a mechanical device used for weaving.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Fly shuttle


33. Manchester in England was well-known for ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: textile production


34. The yam produced in Indian industries was exported to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: China


35. The expansion of railways boosted the growth of ___________ and ___________ industries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: iron and steel


36. In Bengal, Dwarakanath Tagore made his fortune in China Trade. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


37. G.D. Birla was a Parsi entrepreneur who built huge industrial empire in India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


38. Advertisements make the products appear desirable and necessary. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


39. When there is plenty of labour, wages are low. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


40. In European society, members of the royal family are referred as ‘bourgeoisie’. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


41. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Gomasthas (i) Seth Hukumchand
(b) Spinning Jenny (ii) Official who acted as company’s agent
(c) Steam engine (iii) Richard Arkwright
(d) Cotton mill (iv) James Hargreaves
(e) First Indian jute mill (v) James Watt
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (v)
(d) (iii)
(e) (i)


42. What is proto-industrialisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Proto-industrialisation refers to the early phase of industrialisation in Europe and England where production was mainly done by hands.


43. Why the merchants from towns in Europe began to move countryside in seventeenth and eighteenth centuries? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To engage the peasants and artisans to produce goods for an international market.


44. What were the factors that led to an increased demand for goods?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Expansion of trade and acquisition of colonies in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries led to an increasing demand for goods.


45. What were trade guilds?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Associations of traders and merchants that trained crafts people, maintained control over production and regulated prices.


46. Who is a ‘stapler’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A stapler is a person who sorts wool according to its fibre.


47. Define Fuller.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A person who fulls or gathers a cloth by pleating is known as fuller.


48. Which city was known as finishing centre?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: London


49. What was the first symbol of the new era in England in the late 18th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cotton became the first symbol of the new era in England in the late 18th century.


50. Define Carding.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Carding is a process in which fibres, such as cotton or wool, are prepared before spinning.


51. Who created the first cotton mill?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Richard Arkwright


52. Which industries were the dynamic indus-tries of England during its earliest phase of industrialisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cotton and Iron and steel industries


53. Name any two non-mechanised sectors where ordinary and small innovations formed the basis of growth.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Food processing, building, pottery, glass work tanning, furniture making and production of implements. (any two)


54. Who improved upon the steam engine produced by Newcomen?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: James Watt


55. Who was regarded as the typical-worker in the mid-nineteenth century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A traditional craftsperson and labourer who did not operate machines.


56. Why did industrialists in Victorian Britain not want to introduce machines?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Machines reduced the requirement of human labour and inferred large capital investment.


57. Name the areas that demanded seasonal labour in England.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gas works, breweries and dockyards


58. Why did the American industrialists favour the use of mechanical power for production in nineteenth century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because countries like America had shortage of labour.


59. Who invented the Spinning Jenny? [CBSE 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: James Hargreaves


60. Name the Indian goods that dominated the Indian market before the age of machine industries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Silk and cotton


61. Name an eminent pre-colonial port. [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Surat


62. To which ports did Surat on the Gujarat coast connect India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Surat connected India to the Gulf and Red Sea Ports.


63. Mention the reason for the decline of the pre¬colonial ports i.e. Surat and Masulipatnam by the 1750’s.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The European companies became powerful by securing a variety of concessions from local courts and the monopoly rights to trade. Leading to the decline of the pre-colonial ports i.e. Surat and Masulipatnam.


64. Name two new ports which grew in importance after the decline of Surat and Hooghly.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bombay and Calcutta


65. Why was East India Company keen on expanding textile exports from India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
British cotton industries had not yet expanded and the Indian textiles were in great demand in Europe.


66. What is the monopoly of trade?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Monopoly of trade is the practice in which a country develops a system of management and control, eliminating competition, control costs, ensure regulated supply of products.


67. Why did the East India Company appoint Gomasthas? [CBSE 2018(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To supervise weavers, collect supplies and examine the quality of cloth.


68. Who was Henry Patullo? What did he say about the Indian textiles?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Henry Patullo was an East India Company official. He said that demand for Indian textile could never reduce, because no country produced goods of the same quality.


69. Why did Britain turn to India for cotton supplies by 1860s?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Britain turned to India for cotton supplies by 1860s as American civil war cut off the cotton supplies from US.


70. What was China trade?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The British in India began exporting opium to China and took tea from China to England. Many Indians participated in this trade, provided finance, procuring supplies and shipping consignments. It- was called China trade.


71. Who set up six joint stock companies in Bengal?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Dwarkanath Tagore


72. How did fly shuttle increase handloom cloth production in the 20th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It helped weavers to operate large looms and weave large pieces of cloth that increased the handloom production.


73. What did the Indian and British manufacturers do to expand their market?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They took the help of advertisement and tried to expand their market.


74. Why did the Manchester industrialists begin to put label on the cloth bundles that were sent to India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The label made the company’s name familiar to the buyers and also acted as the mark of quality.


75. Why were the images of gods and goddesses regularly appeared on the labels?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The labels carrying images of gods and goddesses gave divine approval to the goods being sold so that they appear somewhat familiar to Indian people.


76. What message did the Indian manufacturers try to give through advertisements?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Indian manufacturers tried to convey the message through advertisements that if you cared for the nation then buy Indian goods.


77. Who are the bourgeoisie?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The upper middle class in Europe is called the bourgeoisie.


78. How did handloom cloth production increase in early 20th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Handloom cloth production increased in the early 20th century due to new technology like looms with flying shuttle.


79. How did the early Indian entrepreneurs make their fortune?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The early entrepreneurs made their fortune through China trade.


80. For which trade did the early entrepreneurs make a fortune.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: China trade


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science The Age of Industrialisation with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 5 The Age of Industrialisation Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.