Poverty as a Challenge Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
NFWP is stand for:
(a) National Federation for Work and Progress
(b) National Forest for Wildlife Protection
(c) National Food and Wheat Processing
(d) National Food for Work Programme

Answer

Answer: (d) National Food for Work Programme


Question 2.
How many people in India live below the poverty line?
(a) 30 crores
(b) 26 crores
(c) 28 crores
(d) 24 crores

Answer

Answer: (b) 26 crores


Question 3.
Which social group is most vulnerable to poverty in India?
(a) Scheduled castes
(b) Scheduled tribes
(c) Casual labourers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 4.
Poverty line in rural areas is (As per 1999 – 2000 prices)
(a) Rs 328
(b) Rs. 370
(c) Rs 454
(d) Rs. 460

Answer

Answer: (a) Rs 328


Question 5.
What is the poverty ratio in the state of Orissa?
(a) 50%
(b) 47%
(c) 60%
(d) 57%

Answer

Answer: (b) 47%


Question 6.
In which state have the land reform measures helped to reduce poverty?
(a) Tamil Nadu
(b) Punjab
(c) West Bengal
(d) Kerala

Answer

Answer: (c) West Bengal


Question 7.
In which state is the public distribution system responsible for the reduction in poverty?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 8.
Which of the following is responsible for high poverty rates?
(a) Huge income inequalities
(b) Unequal distribution of land
(c) Lack of effective implementation of land reforms
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 9.
Nutritional level of food energy is expressed in the form of
(a) calories per day
(b) wheat consumption
(c) rice consumption per day
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) calories per day


Question 10.
Poverty ratio in India as compared to Pakistan is
(a) same
(b) half
(c) two times
(d) two and a half times

Answer

Answer: (c) two times


Question 11.
Which one from the following is considered as poor?
(a) A rich landlord
(b) A businessman
(c) A landless labourer
(d) A teacher

Answer

Answer: (c) A landless labourer


Question 12.
Which state has the largest percentage of poors in India?
(a) Bihar
(b) Orissa
(c) Kerala
(d) Punjab

Answer

Answer: (b) Orissa


Question 13.
Who advocated that India would be truly independent only when the poorest of its people become free of human suffering ?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Indira Gandhi
(c) Jawahar lal Nehru
(d) Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer

Answer: (a) Mahatma Gandhi


Question 14.
Who do not come under the category of urban poor?
(a) The casual workers
(b) The unemployed
(c) The shopkeepe
(d) Rickshawpullers

Answer

Answer: (c) The shopkeepe


Question 15.
Which scheme was started in 1993 to create self-employment opportunities for educated unemployed youth in rural areas and small towns?
(a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana
(b) National Rural Employment Guarantee Act
(c) Rural Employment Generation Programme
(d) Swarnajayanti Gram Swarojgar Yojana

Answer

Answer: (a) Prime Minister Rojgar Yojana


Question 16.
Which one of the social groups is vulnerable to poverty?
(a) Scheduled caste
(b) Urban casual labour
(c) Rural agricultural households
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 17.
Which one are not the major causes of income inequality in India?
(a) Unequal distribution of land
(b) Lack of fertile land
(c) Gap between rich and the poor
(d) Increase in population

Answer

Answer: (b) Lack of fertile land


Question 18.
The calorie requirement is higher in the rural areas because:
(a) they do not enjoy as much as people in the urban areas.
(b) food items are expensive.
(c) they are engaged in mental work.
(d) people are engaged in physical labour.

Answer

Answer: (d) people are engaged in physical labour.


Question 19.
Which of the following is not a valid reason for the poverty alleviation programme in India?
(a) Lack of proper implementation
(b) Lack of right targeting
(c) Corruption at the highest level
(d) Overlapping of schemes

Answer

Answer: (c) Corruption at the highest level


Question 20.
Which one from the following states is above the national average of poverty ratio?
(a) West Bengal
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

Answer

Answer: (a) West Bengal

People as Resource Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Which of the following is the most labour absorbing sectors of the Indian economy?
(a) Primary sector
(b) tertiary sector
(c) Secondary sector
(d) Private sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Primary sector


Question 2.
Which of the following is included in the primary sector?
(a) Manufacturing
(b) Tourism
(c) Forestry
(d) Communication

Answer

Answer: (c) Forestry


Question 3.
Which of the following is included in the tertiary sector?
(a) Fishing
(b) Trade
(c) Mining
(d) Health

Answer

Answer: (d) Health


Question 4.
Which of the following is included in the secondary sector?
(a) Poultry farming
(b) Manufacturing
(c) Transport
(d) Quarrying

Answer

Answer: (b) Manufacturing


Question 5.
Investment in human capital can be made through
(a) Education
(b) Training
(c) Medical care
(d) All the three

Answer

Answer: (d) All the three


Question 6.
The literacy rate during 2010-11 was
(a) 64%
(b) 74%
(c) 70%
(d) 80%

Answer

Answer: (b) 74%


Question 7.
Which of the following sectors faces the problem of seasonal unemployment?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Service sector
(c) Trade
(d) IT sector

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


Question 8.
Infant mortality rate is the death of a child under
(a) One year
(b) Three, year
(c) Two year
(d) Four year

Answer

Answer: (a) One year


Question 9.
The workforce population includes people from 15 years to
(a) 59 years
(b) 62 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 65 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 59 years


Question 10.
Which age group of children does the Sarva Siksha Abhiyan aim to promote education?
(a) 6 to 10 years
(b) 5 to 3 years
(c) 6 to 14 years
(d) 7 to 12 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 6 to 14 years


Question 11.
The number of females per thousand males refers to :
(a) Sex Ratio
(b) Literacy Rate
(c) Infant Mortality Rate
(d) Birth Rate

Answer

Answer: (a) Sex Ratio


Question 12.
Decrease in IMR (Infant Mortality Rate) of a country signifies:
(a) Increase in life expectancy
(b) Increase in GNP
(c) Economic development of a country
(d) Increase in number of colleges in a country

Answer

Answer: (a) Increase in life expectancy


Question 13.
What is the life expectancy in India as per the census of 2000?
(a) 72 years
(b) 53 years
(c) 64 years
(d) 80 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 64 years


Question 14.
Which one of the following is considered important to create a ‘virtuous cycle’ by the parents?
(a) To sand their children to the school
(b) To provide goods food to their children
(c) To join their children in corporate schools
(d) To take care of the health and education of their children

Answer

Answer: (d) To take care of the health and education of their children


Question 15.
Which one from the following is the most labour absorbing sector?
(a) Agriculture
(b) Fisheries
(c) Poultry farming
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: (a) Agriculture


Question 16.
What is the aim of Sarva Siksha Abhiyan?
(a) To provide elementary education to women
(b) To provide elementary education to the rural poor
(c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years
(d) To provide elementary education to the urban poor

Answer

Answer: (c) To provide elementary education to all children in the age group 6-14 years


Question 17.
What is the expended form of PHC
(a) Public Health Club
(b) Private Health Club
(c) Primary Health Centre
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Primary Health Centre


Question 18.
What is the sex-ratio of India According to 2001 census, :
(a) 921 females per 1000
(b) 930 females per 1000
(c) 928 females per 1000
(d) 933 females per 1000

Answer

Answer: (b) 930 females per 1000


Question 19.
If a person cannot find jobs during some months of the year, which type of employment is this called?
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Cyclical unemployment
(c) Seasonal unemployment
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Seasonal unemployment


Question 20.
The persons who are not working by their own willing is covered under
(a) seasonal unemployment
(b) disguised unemployment
(c) educated unemployment
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 21.
Where is Seasonal unemployment found
(a) urban areas
(b) rural areas
(c) in remote areas
(d) both in rural and urban areas

Answer

Answer: (b) rural areas


Question 22.
The quality of population depends on
(a) literacy rate
(b) health
(c) skill
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all the above


Question 23.
Which one from the following is the primary sector activities
(i) Forestry
(ii) Poultry farming
(iii) Animal husbandry
(iv) Manufacturing
(a) (i)
(b) (i), (ii), (iii)
(c) (ii), (iii), (iv)
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) (i), (ii), (iii)


Question 24.
Infant mortality rate refers to the death of a child under the age of
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 4 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 year


Question 25.
The scheme for the establishment of residential schools to impart education to talented children from rural areas is
(a) Kendriya Vidyalayas
(b) Navodaya Vidyalayas
(c) Sarvodaya Vidyalayas
(d) None of the aboves

Answer

Answer: (b) Navodaya Vidyalayas


Question 26.
What is India’s position in scientifically and technically manpower in the world?
(a) first
(b) second
(c) third
(d) fourth

Answer

Answer: (c) third


Question 27.
Which one from the following is include in Secondary sector includes
(a) trade
(b) marketing
(c) manufacturing
(d) education

Answer

Answer: (c) manufacturing


Question 28.
Increase in longevity of life is an indicator of
(a) good quality of life
(b) improvement in health sector
(c) better HDI (Human Development Index)
(d) all the above

Answer

Answer: (a) good quality of life


Question 29.
Which of the following is a significant step towards providing basic education to the children in the age group of 6-14 years?
(a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan
(b) Adult Education Programme
(c) Mid-day meal
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) Sarva Siksha Abhiyan


Question 30.
Why is literacy rate is low in the females?
(a) lack of equal education opportunities
(b) lack of transport facilities
(c) lack of infrastructure
(d) lack of income

Answer

Answer: (a) lack of equal education opportunities


Intext Activity Questions

Question 1.
Visit a village or colony near to your residential area and note down the various activities undertaken by the people of that village or colony.
If this is not possible, ask your neighbour what is their profession? In which of the three sectors will you categorise their work?
Say whether these activities are economic or non-economic activities:

  1. Vilas sells fish in the village market.
  2. Vilas cooks food for his family.
  3. Sakai works in the private firm.
  4. Sakai looks after his younger brother and sister.
Answer

Answer:

  1. Economic activity
  2. Non-economic activity
  3. Economic activity
  4. Non-economic activity

Question 2.
Visit a nearby hospital, either government or private and note down the following details.
(i) How many beds are there in the hospital you have visited?
(ii) How many doctors are there in the hospital?
(iii) How many nurses work in that hospital?
Besides, try to gather the following additional information:
(i) How many hospitals are there in your locality?
(ii) How many dispensaries are there in your locality?

Answer

Answer: Do it yourself.

Practice MCQ Questions on Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty | Sayyid Dynasty MCQ Questions and Answers

MCQ Questions on Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty

This article briefly covers all about Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty Multiple Choice Questions. Aspirants will find these Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty MCQ Quiz Questions extremely helpful while preparing for any competitive exams. All the Objective Type Questions on Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty are given as per the latest trends by people having domain knowledge. Understand your level of preparation by answering the Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty Quiz Questions on a regular basis and improvise accordingly.

Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty History Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Battle of Panipat was fought in the year 1526 between Babur and__________
A. Rana Sanga
B. Muhammad Bin Tughlaq
C. Hemu
D. Ibrahim Lodi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Ibrahim Lodi Kingdom. It took place in north India and marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Sultanate.


2. Prithviraja-III (1168-1192) was a best known __________ruler
A. Chauhan
B. Gahadavala
C. Chalukya
D. Brahmana

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Chahamanas, or Chauhans dynasty ruled over the region around Delhi and Ajmer in 12th century. The best-known Chahamana ruler was Prithviraja III (1168-1192), who defeated an Afghan ruler named Sultan Muhammad Ghori in 1191, but lost to him the very next year, in 1192.


3. Which battle led to the downfall of the Vijayanagar empire?
A. Battle of Takkolam
B. Battle of Talikota
C. Battle of Khanwa
D. Battle of Panipat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Battle of Talikota (23 January 1565) was a watershed battle fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan sultanates. The Deccan Sultanates had better artillery, better cavalry and the betrayal by Gilani Brothers (key commanders of Vijaynagar Kingdom) led to the downfall of vijaynagar kingdom.


4. The Mongols under__________ invaded Transoxiana in north-east Iran in 1219
A. Timur Lang
B. Nadir Shah
C. Ahmed Shah Abdali
D. Genghis Khan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Mongols under Genghis Khan invaded Transoxiana in north-east Iran in 1219 and the Delhi Sultanate faced their onslaught soon after. Mongol attacks on the Delhi Sultanate increased during the reign of Alauddin Khalji and in the early years of Muhammad Tughluq’s rule.


5. Akbar was__________ years old when he became emperor
A. 16
B. 19
C. 13
D. 10

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar succeeded Humayun on 14 February 1556, while in the midst of a war against Sikandar Shah to reclaim the Mughal throne. In Kalanaur, Punjab, the 13-year-old Akbar was enthroned by Bairam Khan on a newly constructed platform, which still stands. He was proclaimed Shahanshah (Persian for “King of Kings”).


6. Gol Gumbaz was built in which century?
A. 15th
B. 16th
C. 17th
D. 18th

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : ‘An ancient structure, the Gol Gumbaz is a prominent historical monument in Bijapur. Built in the 17th century, it houses the tomb of the city’s legendary ruler, Adil Shah. It is especially renowned for the architectural finesse of its Indo-Islamic style structure.


7. The Bahmani Kingdom was founded by
A. Ahmad Shah-I
B. Alauddin Hasan
C. Mahmud Gavan
D. Firoz shah Bahmani

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Bahmani kingdom was founded by Alauddin Hasan in 1347. After his coronation, he assumed the title of Alauddin Hasan Bahman Shah (1347-58), it is from this title that the kingdom was called the Bahmani kingdom.


8. The Arabic work of Al-Biruni that gave an account of the subcontinent is called__________
A. Kitab – AI Hind
B. Kitab – Al Bharat
C. Pustak – AI Hind
D. Pustak – AI Bharat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Al-biruni was a Arabian scholar with great knowledge of philosopher, mathematician, etc. He came India with Mahmud of Ghazani (Mahmud Ghazanavi). He wrote the book Kitab – AI Hind(after exploring India).


9. Buland Darwaza is located in
A. West Bengal
B. Gujarat
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Buland Darwaza, or the “Gate of victory”, was built in 1572 A.D. by Mughal emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is the main entrance to the palace at Fatehpur Sikri, Uttar Pradesh which is 43 km from Agra, India. Buland Darwaza is the highest gateway in the world and is an example of Mughal architecture.


10. Charminar was built by?
A. Humayun
B. Mohammad Quli Qutub Shah
C. Ashoka
D. Narasimha

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The fifth ruler of the Qutb Shahi dynasty Sultan Muhammad Quli Qutb Shah built the Charminar in 1591. After shifting his capital from Golkonda to Hyderabad he built a big structure of Charminar. Because of Charminar this landmark became a global icon of Hyderabad.


11. Dara Shikoh was killed in conflict with his brother__________
A. Jahangir
B. Aurangzeb
C. Babur
D. Shahjahan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In the war of succession which ensued after Shah Jahan’s illness in 1657, Dara was defeated by his younger brother Prince Muhiuddin (later, the Emperor Aurangzeb). He was executed in 1659 on Aurangzeb’s orders in a bitter struggle for the imperial throne.


12. Which dynasty came to power in India after the Tughlaq dynasty?
A. The Guptas
B. The Khaljis
C. The Mughals
D. The Sayyids

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The tomb of Muhammad Shah at Lodi Gardens, New Delhi. The Sayyid dynasty was the fourth dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, with four rulers ruling from 1414 to 1451. Founded by Khizr Khan a former governor of Multan, they succeeded the Tughlaq dynasty and ruled the sultanate until they were displaced by the Lodi dynasty.


13. Krishnadeva Raya maintained friendly relations with the
A. French
B. British
C. Protuguese
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Krishna Deva Raya established friendly relations with the Portuguese, who set up the Portuguese Dominion of India in Goa in 1510.


14. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
A. Hiuen Tsang – China
B. Ibn Battuta – Morocco
C. Megasthenes – Greece
D. Fa-Hien – Malaysia

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Fa-Hien was a Chinese traveller who came India in the reign of Chandragupta-II. He was Buddhist Monk and his main aim was to established Buddhism.


15. Who was the founder of the city of Agra?
A. Firoz Tughlaq
B. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq
C. Alauddin Khalji
D. Sikandar Lodi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sikander Lodi made a treaty with Alauddin Hussain Shah and his kingdom of Bengal. In 1503, he commissioned the building of the present-day city of Agra. Agra was founded by him.


16. When did the reign of Delhi Sultanate came to an end?
A. 1498
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Under the Lodī (Afghan) dynasty (1451–1526), however, with large-scale immigration from Afghanistan, the Delhi sultanate partly recovered its hegemony, until the Mughal leader Bābur destroyed it at the First Battle of Panipat on April 21, 1526.


17. Who has built the Vijay Stambha (Tower of Victory) in Chittorgarh?
A. Maharana Pratap
B. Rana Kumbha
C. Rana Sanga
D. Kunwar Durjan Singh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Vijaya Stambha is an imposing victory monument located within Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh, Rajasthan, India. The tower was constructed by the Mewar king, Rana Kumbha, in 1448 to commemorate his victory over the combined armies of Malwa and Gujarat led by Mahmud Khilji. The tower is dedicated to Vishnu.


18. Krishna Deva Raya was a contemporary of
A. Shershah
B. Humayun
C. Babur
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Krishnadeva Raya the (1509-1529) Vijaynagar emperor was contemporary of Mughal Emperor Babur (1526-1530). Babur tells him as a power full king in his auto biography. When the Mughal Emperor Babur was taking stock of the potentates of north India, Krishnadevaraya was rated the most powerful and had the most extensive empire in the subcontinent.


19. What was the name of architect of Humayun’s Tomb?
A. Man Singh
B. Baram Khan
C. Mirak Mirza
D. Abul Fazal

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The tomb was commissioned by Humayun’s first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum (also known as Haji Begum), in 1569-70, and designed by Mirak Mirza Ghiyas and his son, Sayyid Muhammad, Persian architects chosen by her.


20. In 1528, __________ defeated the Rajputs at Chanderi
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Babur

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Battle of Chanderi took place in the aftermath of the Battle of Khanwa in which the Mughal Emperor Babur had defeated a confederacy of Rajputs and Afghans which was headed by Rana Sanga of Mewar. Consequently, in December 1528, taking a circumlocutious route Babur marched to the fortress of Chanderi in Malwa.


21. Prince Salim was the name of the future Emperor__________
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Jahangir
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mirza Nur-ud-din Beig Muhammad Khan Salim known by his imperial name Jahangir (31 August 1569 – 28 October 1627), was the fourth Mughal Emperor who ruled from 1605 until his death in 1627.


22. Prince Khurram was the name of the future Emperor__________
A. Shah Jahan
B. Jahangir
C. Babur
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mirza Shahab-ud-din Baig Muhammad Khan Khurram (5 January 1592 – 22 January 1666), better known by his regional name Shah Jahan (“King of the World”), was the fifth Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1628 to 1658.


23. Which of the following powers did not fight for the Tungabhadra Doab?
A. Pallavas and Chalukyas
B. Cholas and later Chalukyas of Kalyana
C. Golconda and Ahmadnagar Sultanates
D. Vijayanagar and Bahmani kingdoms

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Golconda and Ahmadnagar Sultanates did not fight for the Tungabhadra Doab.


24. The Red fort in Delhi was the residence of emperors of which dynasty in the 16th century?
A. Rajput
B. Khalji
C. Tughlaq
D. Mughal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Red Fort was commissioned by Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in the 17th century, it was the main residence of the Mughal emperors for nearly 200 years.


25. What was the capital of Pallava Dynasty?
A. Kanchipuram
B. Tiruchirapalli
C. Tanjore
D. Chennai

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Kanchipuram was the capital of Pallava dynasty. Bappadev was the founder of Pallava dynasty, the famous ruler of the dynasty was Narsihman Verman 1st.


26. Who was the last ruler of Lodi Dynasty?
A. Bahlol Lodi
B. Ibrahim Lodi
C. Daulat Khan Lodi
D. Sikandar Lodi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Ibrahim Lodhi was the last ruler of Lodhi Dynasty. He was defeated and killed in the First battle of Panipat in 1526 by Babur. He was the third ruler of Lodhi Dynasty. His grandfather Bahlol Lodhi was the first and founder ruler of this dynasty.


27. Chand Bibi the famous Muslim ruler belonged to which kingdom?
A. Bijapur
B. Golconda
C. Ahmednagar
D. Berar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Chand Bibi (1550–1599 CE), was an Indian Muslim regent and warrior. She acted as the Regent of Bijapur (1580–90) and Regent of Ahmednagar (in current day Maharashtra) (1596–99). Chand Bibi is best known for defending Ahmednagar against the Mughal forces of Emperor Akbar in 1595.


28. Which dynasty was ruling in Vijaynagar empire at the time of the Battle of Talikota?
A. Sangam
B. Aravidu
C. Tuluva
D. Saluva

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tuluva Dynasty was the third dynasty to rule Vijaynagar Empire. The Battle of Talikota was fought between the Deccan Sultanates and Vijaynagar Kingdom. Sadasiva Raya of Tuluva dynasty was the emperor of Vijaynagar at the time of the Battle of Talikota.


29. __________first became the capital of a kingdom under the Tomar Rajputs
A. Delhi
B. Patliputra
C. Calcutta
D. Taxila

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Delhi first became the capital of a kingdom only under the Tomaras who were a part of the Rajput dynasties. The Tomara Rajputs were defeated in the mid-twelfth century by the Chauhans. Delhi became an important commercial centre under the Tomaras and Chauhans.


30. Which one of the following battles led to the foundation of the Mughal rule at Delhi?
A. Third Battle of Panipat
B. Second Battle of Panipat
C. Battle of Haldighati
D. First Battle of Panipat

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The First Battle of Panipat, on 21 April 1526, was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Kingdom. It took place in north India and marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire and the end of the Delhi Sultanate.


31. Who among the following did not rule the Delhi Sultanate?
A. Slave dynasty
B. Sayyed dynasty
C. Khalji dynasty
D. Ghori dynasty

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Ghori dynasty did not ruled Delhi Sultanate directly, his slaves ruled over India after the death of Ghori. The Slave Dynasty ruled the Sub-continent for about 84 years. It was the first Muslim dynasty that ruled India. Qutub-ud-din Aibak, a slave of Muhammad Ghori, who became the ruler after the death of his master, founded the Slave Dynasty.


32. Group of Monuments at Hampi was built by?
A. Harihara and Bukka
B. Udayin and Shishunaga
C. Devavarman and Vainya
D. Mahendraverman and Sirmara

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Hampi, a village and a temple town in Karnataka is one of the most historically rich places. And because Hampi was the capital, it flourished in trade. We have listed down the four different dynasties with small information about each one of them. Sangama Dynasty was founded by Bukka Raya 1 and Harihara 1. The monuments at Hampi was built by the founder of Vijay Nagar dynasty i.e. Harihar and Bukka.


33. Who is considered as the greatest of all the Vijayanagar rulers?
A. Krishnadeva Raya
B. Vir Narasimha
C. Sadasiva Raya
D. Rama Raya

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Krishna Deva Raya (1509-29) is considered as the greatest of all the Vijayanagar rulers for his military as well as literary and other achievements. Krishnadeva Raya was the third ruler of Tuluva dynasty. He ruled from Vijaynagar Empire from 1509-1529. He was given the titles of ‘Andhra Bhoja’ Mooru Rayara Ganda (King of three Kings) and Kannada Rajya Rama Ramana.


34. The medieval city of Vijayanagar is now known as
A. Chandragiri
B. Aravidu
C. Hampi
D. Kondavidu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Hampi, also referred to as the Group of Monuments at Hampi, is a UNESCO World Heritage Site located in east-central Karnataka, India. It became the centre of the Hindu Vijayanagara Empire capital in the 14th century.


35. Who was the first Vijayanagar ruler to wrest the important fort of Goa from the Bahamanis?
A. Reva Rayali
B. Harihara-I
C. Harihara-II
D. Bukka-I

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Harihara-II was the first ruler of Vijaynagar to seize important fort of Goa from the Bahamanis.


36. __________was imprisoned for the rest of his life by Aurangzeb
A. Akbar
B. Shah Jahan
C. Jahangir
D. Babur

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Although Shah Jahan fully recovered from his illness, Aurangzeb declared him incompetent to rule and put him under house arrest in Agra Fort. Shah Jahan was imprisoned by his son Aurangzeb in Red Fort (Agra).


37. Indian Mughal paintings originated during the rule of which Mughal Emperor?
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal Paintings originated during the rule of Humayun, especially when he brought two Persian artists Mir-Sayyid Ali and Abd-us-samad to India.


38. The rulers of Vijayanagar promoted
A. Hindi Marathi and Sanskrit
B. Malayalam Tamil and Sanskrit
C. Tamil Telugu and Sanskrit
D. Telugu Urdu and Sanskrit

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The ruler of Vijaynagar Empire patronised Kannada, Tamil, Telugu and Sanskrit Scholars.


39. The Sayyid dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate is called so because__________?
A. Its founder and his successors adopted the title Sayyid
B. Its founder and his successors belonged to the Sayyid tribe of eastern Turkistan
C. Its founder and his successors were descendant of the prophet Muhammad
D. Its founder was a scholar of Islamic theology

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Khizr Khan was the founder of the Sayyid Dynasty. He did not assume any royal title. He professed to rule as the Viceroy of Timur’s son and successor Shah Rukh. His dynasty has been called the Sayyid dynasty because it was believed that he was a descendant of Prophet Muhammad.


40. Who was the founder of Lodi dynasty?
A. Daulat Khan Lodi
B. Sikandar Lodi
C. Bahlol Lodi
D. Ibrahim Lodi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Lodi dynasty (or Lodhi) was an Afghan dynasty that ruled the Delhi Sultanate from 1451 to 1526. It was the last dynasty of the Delhi Sultanate, and was founded by Bahlul Khan Lodi when he replaced the Sayyid dynasty.


41. How many Mahajanpadas were there in ancient India?
A. 20
B. 16
C. 18
D. 10

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In ancient India 16 Mahajanpadas were mentioned im Anguttar Nakaya.


42. The capital of the Bahamani Kings was
A. Gulbarga
B. Bijapur
C. Hampi
D. Agra

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Bahmani capital was Ahsanabad (Gulbarga) between 1347 and 1425, when it was moved to Muhammadabad (Bidar).


43. Who was the founder of Kushan Empire?
A. Kanishka
B. Virna Kadphises
C. Kujula Kadphises
D. Vasiskha

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Kujula Kadphises was the first Yueh Chi chief who crossed the Hindukush Mountains and laid down the foundation of the Kushana Empire.


44. Who got the monumental ‘Rayagopurams’ in front of the temples at Hampi, Tiru-pati, etc., constructed?
A. Vidyaranya
B. Krishnadeva Raya
C. Harihara
D. Raja raj

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : ‘Rayagopuram’ means grand entrance tower of the temple Vijaynagar King Krishnadeva Raya constructed ‘Rayagopurams’ in front of the temples at Hampi, Tiruvannamalai, Chidambaram Srirangam, Tirupati etc.


45. Famous Battle of Talikota was fought in
A. 1565
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Battle of Talikota (23 January 1565) was a watershed battle fought between the Vijayanagara Empire and the Deccan sultanates. The Vijaynagar Kingdom was defeated in this battle.


46. Krishnadevaraya built the Krishnaswami temple in Hampi, which is situated in the
present state of
A. Karnataka
B. Calcutta
C. Jammu ; Kashmir
D. Kerala

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Krishna Swami Temple was built by Ruler Krishnadeva Raya in 1513 AD at Hampi (Karnataka).


47. The correct chronological order in which they were built is:,1. Tughluqabad Fort,2. Lodi Garden,3. Qutub Minar,4. Fatehpur Sikri
A. 3 1 4 2
B. 3 1 2 4
C. 1 3 2 4
D. 1 3 4 2

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : [1]. Tughlaqabad Fort is a ruined fort in Delhi, built by Ghiyas-ud-din Tughlaq, the founder of Tughlaq dynasty, of the Delhi Sultanate of India in 1321, as he established the fourth historic city of Delhi, which was later abandoned in 1327.

[3]. Qutab Minar – Qutab-ud-din Aibak, the first Muslim ruler of Delhi, commenced the construction of the in 1200 AD, but could only finish the basement. His successor, Iltutmush, added three more storeys, and in 1368, Firoz Shah Tughlak constructed the fifth and the last storey.

[2]. Lodi garden was built during the Lodi dynasty sometime between 1451 and 1526. A mosque can be seen in the complex which has three domes and five arched openings.

[4]. Fatehpur Sikri Fort – Fatehpur Sikri is near Agra and once was the capital of Mughal Emperor Akbar. The architecture of the city was designed by Tahir Das and Dhruv Chawla. Akbar founded the city in 1569 after winning Chittor and Ranthambore.

The correct chronological order in which they were built is [1] Tughluqabad Fort, [3] Qutub Minar, [2] Lodi Garden, [4] Fatehpur Sikri.
Source :
For Tughluqabad Fort – wikipedia.org
For Qutab Minar – delhitourism.gov.in
For Lodi Garden – wikipedia.org
For Fatehpur Sikri – tutorialspoint.com


48. Name the river on the banks of which the city of Vijayanagar is located?
A. Kaveri
B. Krishna
C. Wainganga
D. Tungabhadra

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Vijayanagara (Sanskrit: “City of Victory”) was the capital city of the historic Vijayanagara Empire. Located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River, it spread over a large area and included the modern era Group of Monuments at Hampi site in Ballari district and others in and around that district in Karnataka, India.


49. The rulers of the Lodi dynasty were
A. Turks settled in Afghanistan
B. Pure Turks
C. Pure Afghan
D. Timurid Turks

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Lodi dynasty in India arose around 1451 after the Sayyid dynasty. The Lodhi Empire was established by the Ghizlai tribe of the Afghans.


50. In which century, Qutub Minar of Delhi was built?
A. 12th Century
B. 13th Century
C. 14th Century
D. 11th Century

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Qutub Minar is a tapering tower, which was designed similar to the Minaret of Jam located in Western Afghanistan. The first floor of the tower was built in 12th century. The second, third and fourth floors were built in 13th century and the last floor was completed in 14th century.


51. The city of Vijayanagara is also known as
A. Aravidu
B. Chandragiri
C. Hampi
D. Kondavidu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Hampi a village located on the banks of the Tungabhadra River is regarded as one of the most important world heritage sites in India. It was counted amongst the largest and most prosperous cities of the world during its period of power and vigour. This site that holds significance both historically and architecturally has several monuments, particularly the Virupaksha Temple that is dedicated to the patron deity of the Vijayanagara rulers, Lord Virupaksha, which is why it is often referred as Virupakshapura and Vijayanagara.


52. Marco-polo, a famous traveller, was native of which country?
A. Uzbekistan
B. Italy
C. Morocco
D. Russia

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Marco Polo was an Italian merchant, explorer, and writer, born in the Republic of Venice.


53. Noor Jahan was the wife of which Mughal emperor?
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Shahjahan
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Nur Jahan (born Mehr-un-Nissa) (31 May 1577 – 17 December 1645) was the twentieth (and last) wife of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.


54. __________,succeeded to the throne of Ferghana in 1494 when he was only 12 years old
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Babur

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Babur was the son of Umar Sheikh Mirza (Ruler of Ferghana). He succeeded to the throne in 1494 in age of 12 years.


55. The remains of the Great Vijayanagar Empire can be found in
A. Bijapur
B. Golconda
C. Hampi
D. Baroda

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The ruins of Vijaynagar Empire was found at Hampi (Karnataka). The temple town of Hampi was declared the UNESCO world Heritage site in 1986.


History MCQ Quiz Questions
MCQ Questions on Indian History MCQ Questions on Khalji Dynasty
MCQ Questions on Ancient History Art and Culture MCQ Questions on Lodi and Sayyid Dynasty
MCQ Questions on Deccan Dynasties and Sangam Dynasty MCQ Questions on Tughlaq Dynasty
MCQ Questions on Indus Valley Civilisation MCQ Questions on Maratha Empire
MCQ Questions on Jainism and Buddhism MCQ Questions on Sikh Empire
MCQ Questions on Mauryan Empire MCQ Questions on Mughal Empire
MCQ Questions on Magadha Empire MCQ Questions on 18th Century Revolts and Reform
MCQ Questions on Harshavardhana Empire MCQ Questions on British Rule in India
MCQ Questions on Vedic Age MCQ Questions on Modern Indian History
MCQ Questions on Medieval History Art and Culture MCQ Questions on Struggle for Independence of India
MCQ Questions on Bhakti Movement MCQ Questions on World History
MCQ Questions on Gulam Dynasty

The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
‘Bigha’ and ‘Guintha’ are
(a) the type of village house
(b) the type of hybrid seeds
(c) the measuring units of grain
(d) the measuring units of land area in village

Answer

Answer: (d) the measuring units of land area in village


Question 2.
Finance raised to operate a business is called
(a) labour
(b) enterprise
(c) land
(d) capital

Answer

Answer: (d) capital


Question 3.
Minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) ₹80
(b) ₹90
(c) ₹115
(d) ₹120

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹115


Question 4.
The Green Revolution introduced the farmers to
(a) cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of green vegetables
(c) cultivation of sugar cane
(d) cultivation of forests

Answer

Answer: (a) cultivation of wheat and rice


Question 5.
The small farmers constitute about _________ per cent of total farmers in India.
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80

Answer

Answer: (d) 80


Question 6.
The new ways of farming need
(a) less land
(b) more capital
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 7.
The most abundant factor of production is
(a) labour
(b) land
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) labour


Question 8.
Multiple Cropping refers to :
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Answer

Answer: (c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year


Question 9.
Working capital stands for :
(a) Tools, machines and buildings
(b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital
(d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

Answer

Answer: (b) raw materials and money in hand


Question 10.
Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
(a) Soil degradation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Decrease in groundwater
(d) Water pollution

Answer

Answer: (d) Water pollution


Question 11.
How many families lives in Village Palampur?
(a) 150
(b) 250
(c) 350
(d) 450

Answer

Answer: (d) 450


Question 12.
Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
(a) Banks
(b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Village money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives

Answer

Answer: (c) Village money lenders


Question 13.
‘Operation Flood’ is related to :
(a) control flood
(b) produce fish
(c) milk production
(d) grain production

Answer

Answer: (c) milk production


Question 14.
Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pardesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Punjab


Question 15.
Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) Fixed amount of land
(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Fixed amount of land


Question 16.
Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Zamindar
(d) Manager

Answer

Answer: (b) Entrepreneur


Question 17.
High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes
(b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Research institutes


Question 18.
Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Potato
(c) Jowar and bajra
(d) Wheat

Answer

Answer: (c) Jowar and bajra


Question 19.
Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilisers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


Question 20.
Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Coastal regions
(c) Riverine plains
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) Deccan plateau


Question 21.
Multiple cropping means growing
(a) only two crops
(b) only three crops
(c) upto four crops
(d) more than one crop

Answer

Answer: (d) more than one crop


Question 22.
HYV seeds stands for
(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds
(b) High yielding variety seeds
(c) Half yielding variety seeds
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) High yielding variety seeds


Question 23.
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) Rs. 50
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 70
(d) Rs. 80

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 60


Question 24.
Which of the following is fixed capital?
(a) Tools and machines
(b) Fertilisers and pesticides
(c) Soil
(d) Seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Tools and machines


Question 25.
Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?
(a) Jowar and bajra
(b) Wheat
(c) Soyabean
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (a) Jowar and bajra


Suggested Activities

During your field visit talk to some farmers of your region. Find out:

  1. What kind of farming methods—modem or traditional or mixed—do the farmers use? Write a note.
  2. What are the sources of irrigation?
  3. How much of the cultivated land is irrigated? (very little/nearly half/majority/all)
  4. From where do farmers obtain the inputs that they require?
Answer

Answer:

  1. Most of the farmers in my region use modem farming methods. However, some are still carrying on traditional methods. These farmers are too poor to follow modem farming methods which need more cash.
  2. Wells and tubewells.
  3. Majority of the cultivated land is irrigated.
  4. Farmers obtain the required inputs from the local markets. The money that they need to buy the inputs either comes from their own savings or they take a loan from the bank.

Fill in the Blanks

Among the three factors of production, we found that labour is the most abundant factor of production. There are many people who are willing to work as farm labourers in the villages, whereas the opportunities of work are limited. They belong to either landless families or

1. ______ They are paid low wages, and lead a difficult life In contrast to labour
2. ______ is a scarce factor of production. Cultivated land area is
3. ______ Moreover, even the existing land is distributed.
4. ______ among the people engaged in farming there are a large number of small farmers who cultivate small plots of land and live in conditions not much better than the landless farm labourer. To make the maximum use of the existing land, farmers use
5. ______ and
6. ______ Both these have led to increase in production of crops. Modem farming methods require a great deal of
7. ______ Small farmers usually need to borrow money to arrange for the capital, and are put to great distress to repay the loan. Therefore, capital too is a scarce factor of production, particularly for the small farmers. Though both land and capital are scarce, there is a basic difference between the two factors of production.
8. ______ is a natural resource, whereas.
9. ______ is man-made. It is possible to increase capital, whereas land is fixed. Therefore, it is very important that we take good care of land and other natural resources used in farming.

Answer

Answer:
1. Families cultivating small plots of land
2. land
3. fixed
4. unequally
5. HYV seeds
6. chemical fertilisers
7. capital
8. Land
9. capital


 

Democratic Rights Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
About 600 hundred people from all over the world were put in a prison in Guantanamo Bay by the
(a) US forces
(b) Japanese forces
(c) German forces
(d) British forces

Answer

Answer: (a) US forces


Question 2.
How many Fundamental Rights do we have?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (a) 6


Question 3.
Salman Rushdie’s book that has been banned in India on the ground that it is disrespectful to prophet Mohammed is
(a) Mignight’s children
(b) Two years eight months
(c) The moor’s last sigh
(d) The Satami Verses

Answer

Answer: (d) The Satami Verses


Question 4.
Children below the age of cannot be employed in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

Answer

Answer: (c) 14


Question 5.
Which of the Fundamental Rights is called ‘the heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies


Question 6.
The National Human Rights Commission of India was set up in
(a) 1993
(b) 1994
(c) 1995
(d) 1996

Answer

Answer: (a) 1993


Question 7.
Amnesty international works for
(a) human right
(b) trade unions
(c) poor children
(d) deprived people

Answer

Answer: (a) human right


Question 8.
A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of hours of arrest.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24

Answer

Answer: (d) 24


Question 9.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(а) We have freedom to travel to any part of the country.
(b) We have freedom of speech and expression.
(c) Untouchability is not a punishable offence.
(d) Everyone is equal before the law.

Answer

Answer: (c) Untouchability is not a punishable offence.


Question 10.
The country which denies freedom of religion is
(a) Israel
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Iran
(d) Yugoslavia

Answer

Answer: (b) Saudi Arabia


Question 11.
What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

Answer

Answer: (d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.


Question 12.
Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?
(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary
(b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) There is no freedom of religion
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 13.
What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians?
(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians
(b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians
(c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)


Question 14.
What is meant by ‘rights’?
(A) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government


Question 15.
Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to Information to the citizens?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to freedom of equality
(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression


Question 16.
The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called:
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies


Question 17.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution
(b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution
(d) the soul of our Constitution

Answer

Answer: (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution


Question 18.
When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1993
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (c) 1993


Question 19.
Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating that no person is above the law?
(a) State of law
(b) Application of law
(c) Rule of law
(d) Governance by law

Answer

Answer: (c) Rule of law


Question 20.
What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished
(b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 21.
Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 22.
What is meant by ‘begar’?
(a) Practice of begging
(b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages


Question 23.
Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution


Question 24.
Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:
(a) Women
(b) minorities
(c) children
(d) Men

Answer

Answer: (b) minorities


Question 25.
Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to property.

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to property.


Question 26.
Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature
(b) God
(c) The State
(d) The people

Answer

Answer: (c) The State


Question 27.
Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rajendra Prasad

Answer

Answer: (b) B. R. Ambedkar


Question 28.
Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
(d) Freedom to form associations and unions

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government


Question 29.
Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion


Question 30.
Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election
(b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office
(d) Right to freedom

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to freedom


 

Working of Institutions Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) Prime Minister


Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (a) 1979


Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.


Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from
(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer

Answer: (a) 60 to 80


Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer

Answer: (a) 14 days


Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (b) 1979


Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions


Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level


Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer

Answer: (d) President


Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer

Answer: (d) 14 days


Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India


Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer

Answer: (d) The Parliament


Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer

Answer: (b) Supreme Court


Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people


Question 16.
Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes
(b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Leader of the majority party


Question 17.
What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government
(b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government
(d) Cooperative government

Answer

Answer: (b) Coalition government


Question 18.
Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings
(b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 19.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws
(b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants

Answer

Answer: (b) The Legislature implements the laws


Question 20.
The president of India is elected by
(a) Direct Election by citizens … 18 years of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College


Question 21.
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Law Minister

Answer

Answer: (a) President