The Story of Village Palampur Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
‘Bigha’ and ‘Guintha’ are
(a) the type of village house
(b) the type of hybrid seeds
(c) the measuring units of grain
(d) the measuring units of land area in village

Answer

Answer: (d) the measuring units of land area in village


Question 2.
Finance raised to operate a business is called
(a) labour
(b) enterprise
(c) land
(d) capital

Answer

Answer: (d) capital


Question 3.
Minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) ₹80
(b) ₹90
(c) ₹115
(d) ₹120

Answer

Answer: (c) ₹115


Question 4.
The Green Revolution introduced the farmers to
(a) cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of green vegetables
(c) cultivation of sugar cane
(d) cultivation of forests

Answer

Answer: (a) cultivation of wheat and rice


Question 5.
The small farmers constitute about _________ per cent of total farmers in India.
(a) 50
(b) 60
(c) 70
(d) 80

Answer

Answer: (d) 80


Question 6.
The new ways of farming need
(a) less land
(b) more capital
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) all of the above


Question 7.
The most abundant factor of production is
(a) labour
(b) land
(c) machinery
(d) all of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) labour


Question 8.
Multiple Cropping refers to :
(a) Cultivation of wheat and rice
(b) cultivation of two crops in alternate rows
(c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year
(d) cultivating crops and rearing animals on the same farm

Answer

Answer: (c) cultivating more than one crop on the same field each year


Question 9.
Working capital stands for :
(a) Tools, machines and buildings
(b) raw materials and money in hand
(c) total share capital
(d) fixed deposits in financial institutions

Answer

Answer: (b) raw materials and money in hand


Question 10.
Which one of the following is not an effect of the modern farming?
(a) Soil degradation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Decrease in groundwater
(d) Water pollution

Answer

Answer: (d) Water pollution


Question 11.
How many families lives in Village Palampur?
(a) 150
(b) 250
(c) 350
(d) 450

Answer

Answer: (d) 450


Question 12.
Where do most of the small farmers borrow money to arrange for the capital in Palampur?
(a) Banks
(b) Co-operative Societies
(c) Village money lenders
(d) Friends and relatives

Answer

Answer: (c) Village money lenders


Question 13.
‘Operation Flood’ is related to :
(a) control flood
(b) produce fish
(c) milk production
(d) grain production

Answer

Answer: (c) milk production


Question 14.
Consumption of chemical fertilisers is highest in which state of India?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Himachal Pardesh

Answer

Answer: (a) Punjab


Question 15.
Scope of farming activity is limited in Palampur due to
(a) Fixed amount of land
(b) lack of irrigation
(c) lack of labour
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Fixed amount of land


Question 16.
Who is a person who puts together land, labour and capital?
(a) Moneylender
(b) Entrepreneur
(c) Zamindar
(d) Manager

Answer

Answer: (b) Entrepreneur


Question 17.
High Yielding Variety (HYV) seeds are developed in
(a) Research institutes
(b) Factories
(c) Krishak Bharati Cooperatives
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Research institutes


Question 18.
Which Kharif crop is used for cattle feed?
(a) Sugarcane
(b) Potato
(c) Jowar and bajra
(d) Wheat

Answer

Answer: (c) Jowar and bajra


Question 19.
Which of the following is a modern farming method?
(a) Multiple cropping
(b) Use of HYV seeds
(c) Use of chemical fertilisers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


Question 20.
Which area in India has a low level of irrigation?
(a) Deccan plateau
(b) Coastal regions
(c) Riverine plains
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (a) Deccan plateau


Question 21.
Multiple cropping means growing
(a) only two crops
(b) only three crops
(c) upto four crops
(d) more than one crop

Answer

Answer: (d) more than one crop


Question 22.
HYV seeds stands for
(a) Heavy yielding variety seeds
(b) High yielding variety seeds
(c) Half yielding variety seeds
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (b) High yielding variety seeds


Question 23.
The minimum wages for a farm labourer set by the government is
(a) Rs. 50
(b) Rs. 60
(c) Rs. 70
(d) Rs. 80

Answer

Answer: (b) Rs. 60


Question 24.
Which of the following is fixed capital?
(a) Tools and machines
(b) Fertilisers and pesticides
(c) Soil
(d) Seeds

Answer

Answer: (a) Tools and machines


Question 25.
Which of the following is grown in the rainy season?
(a) Jowar and bajra
(b) Wheat
(c) Soyabean
(d) Rice

Answer

Answer: (a) Jowar and bajra


Suggested Activities

During your field visit talk to some farmers of your region. Find out:

  1. What kind of farming methods—modem or traditional or mixed—do the farmers use? Write a note.
  2. What are the sources of irrigation?
  3. How much of the cultivated land is irrigated? (very little/nearly half/majority/all)
  4. From where do farmers obtain the inputs that they require?
Answer

Answer:

  1. Most of the farmers in my region use modem farming methods. However, some are still carrying on traditional methods. These farmers are too poor to follow modem farming methods which need more cash.
  2. Wells and tubewells.
  3. Majority of the cultivated land is irrigated.
  4. Farmers obtain the required inputs from the local markets. The money that they need to buy the inputs either comes from their own savings or they take a loan from the bank.

Fill in the Blanks

Among the three factors of production, we found that labour is the most abundant factor of production. There are many people who are willing to work as farm labourers in the villages, whereas the opportunities of work are limited. They belong to either landless families or

1. ______ They are paid low wages, and lead a difficult life In contrast to labour
2. ______ is a scarce factor of production. Cultivated land area is
3. ______ Moreover, even the existing land is distributed.
4. ______ among the people engaged in farming there are a large number of small farmers who cultivate small plots of land and live in conditions not much better than the landless farm labourer. To make the maximum use of the existing land, farmers use
5. ______ and
6. ______ Both these have led to increase in production of crops. Modem farming methods require a great deal of
7. ______ Small farmers usually need to borrow money to arrange for the capital, and are put to great distress to repay the loan. Therefore, capital too is a scarce factor of production, particularly for the small farmers. Though both land and capital are scarce, there is a basic difference between the two factors of production.
8. ______ is a natural resource, whereas.
9. ______ is man-made. It is possible to increase capital, whereas land is fixed. Therefore, it is very important that we take good care of land and other natural resources used in farming.

Answer

Answer:
1. Families cultivating small plots of land
2. land
3. fixed
4. unequally
5. HYV seeds
6. chemical fertilisers
7. capital
8. Land
9. capital


 

Democratic Rights Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
About 600 hundred people from all over the world were put in a prison in Guantanamo Bay by the
(a) US forces
(b) Japanese forces
(c) German forces
(d) British forces

Answer

Answer: (a) US forces


Question 2.
How many Fundamental Rights do we have?
(a) 6
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

Answer

Answer: (a) 6


Question 3.
Salman Rushdie’s book that has been banned in India on the ground that it is disrespectful to prophet Mohammed is
(a) Mignight’s children
(b) Two years eight months
(c) The moor’s last sigh
(d) The Satami Verses

Answer

Answer: (d) The Satami Verses


Question 4.
Children below the age of cannot be employed in any factory or mine or in any other hazardous work.
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

Answer

Answer: (c) 14


Question 5.
Which of the Fundamental Rights is called ‘the heart and soul’ of the Indian Constitution?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom of Religion
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies


Question 6.
The National Human Rights Commission of India was set up in
(a) 1993
(b) 1994
(c) 1995
(d) 1996

Answer

Answer: (a) 1993


Question 7.
Amnesty international works for
(a) human right
(b) trade unions
(c) poor children
(d) deprived people

Answer

Answer: (a) human right


Question 8.
A person who is arrested and detained shall be produced before the nearest magistrate within a period of hours of arrest.
(a) 20
(b) 22
(c) 23
(d) 24

Answer

Answer: (d) 24


Question 9.
Which of the following statements is wrong?
(а) We have freedom to travel to any part of the country.
(b) We have freedom of speech and expression.
(c) Untouchability is not a punishable offence.
(d) Everyone is equal before the law.

Answer

Answer: (c) Untouchability is not a punishable offence.


Question 10.
The country which denies freedom of religion is
(a) Israel
(b) Saudi Arabia
(c) Iran
(d) Yugoslavia

Answer

Answer: (b) Saudi Arabia


Question 11.
What was the reason given by America for imprisoning people at Guantanamo Bay?
(a) They had been caught spying.
(b) They were planning to kill the US President.
(c) They were planning to set up a Communist government in USA.
(d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.

Answer

Answer: (d) America considered them as enemies and linked them to the attack on New York on 11th September, 2001.


Question 12.
Which of these options is not correct regarding Saudi Arabian political system?
(a) The king selects the executive, legislature and judiciary
(b) Citizens cannot form political parties
(c) There is no freedom of religion
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) none of the above


Question 13.
What was Milosevic’s attitude towards the Albanians?
(a) His government was hostile to the Kosovo Albanians
(b) He wanted to bring equality between Serbs and Albanians
(c) He wanted Serbs to dominate the Albanians
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (c)


Question 14.
What is meant by ‘rights’?
(A) One’s demand to get everything without sharing with others
(b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government
(c) Not possessing any freedoms
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Claims of a person over other fellow beings, society and the government


Question 15.
Under which Fundamental Right has the Parliament enacted a law giving the Right to Information to the citizens?
(a) Right to freedom of religion
(b) Right to freedom of thought and expression
(c) Right to freedom of equality
(d) Right to constitutional remedies

Answer

Answer: (b) Right to freedom of thought and expression


Question 16.
The right to seek the enforcement of all Fundamental Rights is called:
(a) Right against Exploitation
(b) Right to Freedom
(c) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(d) Cultural and Educational Rights

Answer

Answer: (c) Right to Constitutional Remedies


Question 17.
What did Dr. Ambedkar refer to the ‘Right to Constitutional Remedies’ as?
(a) The brain of our Constitution
(b) The heart and soul of our Constitution
(c) The heart of our Constitution
(d) the soul of our Constitution

Answer

Answer: (b) The heart and soul of our Constitution


Question 18.
When was the NHRC set up?
(a) 1998
(b) 1996
(c) 1993
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (c) 1993


Question 19.
Which of the following terms is correct for the feature of the Indian constitution stating that no person is above the law?
(a) State of law
(b) Application of law
(c) Rule of law
(d) Governance by law

Answer

Answer: (c) Rule of law


Question 20.
What does the Constitution say about the practice of untouchability?
(a) It stands abolished
(b) Its practice in any form is punishable by law
(c) Since it is an age-old custom, it should be respected
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 21.
Which of these rights is/are provided to a person arrested by the government or police?
(a) To be informed of the reasons of his arrest
(b) To be produced before a magistrate within 24 hrs of his arrest
(c) To engage a lawyer for his defence
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 22.
What is meant by ‘begar’?
(a) Practice of begging
(b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages
(c) Practice of encouraging workers to work at normal wages
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) Practice of forcing workers to work without any wages


Question 23.
Which of the following freedom is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to start a movement to change the government
(b) Freedom to oppose the government
(c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Freedom to participate in armed revolution


Question 24.
Cultural and Educational Rights are safeguarded mainly for:
(a) Women
(b) minorities
(c) children
(d) Men

Answer

Answer: (b) minorities


Question 25.
Which of the following rights is not available under the fundamental rights?
(a) Right to Equality
(b) Right to Freedom
(b) Right to protect one’s culture
(d) Right to property.

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to property.


Question 26.
Civil Rights are given to the individual by:
(a) Nature
(b) God
(c) The State
(d) The people

Answer

Answer: (c) The State


Question 27.
Who called the right to constitutional remedies as the heart and soul of the constitution?
(a) J.L. Nehru
(b) B. R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Rajendra Prasad

Answer

Answer: (b) B. R. Ambedkar


Question 28.
Which of these is not a freedom available under the ‘Right to Freedom’ in India?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression
(b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government
(c) Freedom to assemble in a peaceful manner
(d) Freedom to form associations and unions

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to incite people to rebel against the government


Question 29.
Which of the following freedoms is not available to an Indian citizen?
(a) Freedom to criticise the government
(b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion
(c) Freedom to reside in any part of the country
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Freedom to participate in armed rebellion


Question 30.
Which one of the following is not a Political Right?
(a) Right to contest election
(b) Right to vote
(c) Right to seek any political office
(d) Right to freedom

Answer

Answer: (d) Right to freedom


 

Working of Institutions Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
Who exercises all governmental powers?
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of the Supreme Court
(d) Chief Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (b) Prime Minister


Question 2.
The Second Backward Classes Commission was appointed by the government of India in
(a) 1979
(b) 1981
(c) 1985
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: (a) 1979


Question 3.
Which one of the following statement about the President is wrong?
(a) He is the head of the state.
(b) He is the highest formal authority in the country.
(c) He exercises only nominal powers.
(d) He is elected directly by the people.

Answer

Answer: (d) He is elected directly by the people.


Question 4.
The strength of the Council of Ministers ranges from
(a) 60 to 80
(b) 60 to 100
(c) 70 to 85
(d) 80 to 100

Answer

Answer: (a) 60 to 80


Question 5.
Once the Lok Sabha passes the budget of the government or any other money related law, the Rajya Sabha cannot rejected it. The Rajya Sabha can only delay it by
(a) 14 days
(b) 15 days
(c) 16 days
(d) 17 days

Answer

Answer: (a) 14 days


Question 6.
When was the Second Backward Class Commission appointed?
(a) 1989
(b) 1979
(c) 1999
(d) 2001

Answer

Answer: (b) 1979


Question 7.
What do the Civil Servants do?
(a) They take important policy decisions
(b) They implement the ministers’ decisions
(c) They settle the disputes
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) They implement the ministers’ decisions


Question 8.
What is ‘Parliament’?
(a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level
(b) A body consisting of appointed ministers
(c) Body comprising judges
(d) Assembly of only appointed members

Answer

Answer: (a) Assembly of elected representatives at the national level


Question 9.
Apart from Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha, who else constitutes the Parliament?
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Chief Minister
(c) Governor
(d) President

Answer

Answer: (d) President


Question 10.
For how long can the Rajya Sabha delay a Money Bill?
(a) 15 days
(b) 1 month
(c) 3 months
(d) 14 days

Answer

Answer: (d) 14 days


Question 11.
Who appoints the judges of the Supreme Court and High Courts?
(a) President, according to his own wishes
(b) President, on the advice of the PM
(c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) President on the advice of the PM in consultation with the Chief Justice of India


Question 12.
Two features of Indian judicial system are:
(a) Independent Judiciary
(b) Integrated Judiciary
(c) Dependent Judiciary
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (a) and (b)


Question 13.
Which of the following institutions can make changes to the existing law of the country?
(a) The Supreme Court
(b) The President
(c) The Prime Minister
(d) The Parliament

Answer

Answer: (d) The Parliament


Question 14.
Which body acts as the guardian of Fundamental Rights?
(a) District Courts
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) Legislature

Answer

Answer: (b) Supreme Court


Question 15.
Why does the political executive have more powers than the permanent executive?
(a) Because hardly any expertise is required in taking policy decisions
(b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people
(c) Political leaders are more educated
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Because political executive consists of the direct representatives of the people


Question 16.
Whom does the President appoint as the Prime Minister?
(a) Anyone he likes
(b) Leader of the majority party
(c) MP who has secured the largest number of votes
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Leader of the majority party


Question 17.
What is the government formed by an alliance of two or more political parties called?
(a) Cooperation government
(b) Coalition government
(c) Consensus government
(d) Cooperative government

Answer

Answer: (b) Coalition government


Question 18.
Which of these options is/are correct regarding the powers of the Prime Minister?
(a) He chairs the Cabinet meetings
(b) He distributes work to the different departments
(c) He can dismiss ministers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 19.
Which of the following statements is not true?
(a) The Judiciary safeguards the laws
(b) The Legislature implements the laws
(c) The political executives are more powerful than the permanent executives
(d) The permanent executives comprises the civil servants

Answer

Answer: (b) The Legislature implements the laws


Question 20.
The president of India is elected by
(a) Direct Election by citizens … 18 years of age
(b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College
(c) The Prime Minister and the Council of Ministers
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Indirect Election by the Electoral College


Question 21.
The judges of Supreme Court are appointed by
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice
(d) Law Minister

Answer

Answer: (a) President


 

MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When? with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When? with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When? Free PDF Download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History What, Where, How and When? are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Objective Questions of Class 6th Social Science History Ch 1 and assess their preparation level.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When?

Solving the Multiple Choice Questions of Class 6 Social Science History What, Where, How, and When? can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on What, Where, How and When? pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the Class 6 Social Science History What, Where, How, and When? Multiple Choice Questions with Answers and cross check your answers during preparation.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Consider the following statements :
i. Narmada Valley: Early agriculture
ii. Garo hills: Hunting and gathering
iii. Magadha : The First big Kingdom.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i and ii
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only iii
(d) All the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

  • People have lived along the banks of Narmada river for several hundred thousand years. Some of the earliest people who lived here were skilled gatherers, that is, people who gathered their food. They knew about the vast wealth of plants in the surrounding forests, and collected roots, fruits and other forest produce for their food. They also hunted animals.
  • Garo hills to the north-east and the Vindhyas in Central India were some of the areas where agriculture developed. The places where rice was first grown are to the north of the Vindhyas.
  • Magadha lying in the state of Bihar, its rulers were very powerful and set up a large kingdom. Kingdoms were set up in other parts of the country as well.

2. Consider the following statements :
i. All inscriptions contain only scripts.
ii. Inscriptions are inscribed on hard surfaces. Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: (b) Narmada
Explanation:
We have seen that inscriptions are inscribed on hard surfaces. Many of these were inscribed sev¬eral hundreds of years ago. All inscriptions con¬tain both scripts and languages. Languages which were used, as well as scripts, have changed over time. Scholars understand through a pro¬cess known as decipherment.


3. Which river’s bank did the people live along in the ancient time?
(a) Ganga
(b) Narmada
(c) Satluj
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Narmada


4. On which river’s bank were the cities developed about 2500 years ago?
(a) Ganga
(b) Yamuna
(c) Narmada
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Ganga


5. Which city was established on the banks of Ganga?
(a) Magadha
(b) Vindhyas
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Magadha


6. How did merchants travel1?
(a) With Caravans
(b) Ships
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


7. From where did the Iranians and the Greek come?
(a) North west
(b) North east
(e) North south
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) North west


8. Where were the manuscripts written?
(a) On palm leaf
(b) On peepal leaf
(c) On banana leaf
(d) On tulsi leaf

Answer

Answer: (a) On palm leaf


9. Where did the manuscripts keep safe?
(a) In temples and monastaries
(b) In museums
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) In temples and monastaries


10. Who are historians?
(a) Who study past
(b) Who study present
(c) Who study future
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Who study past


11. How did the people of Andaman Islands get their food?
(a) By fishing
(b) By hunting
(c) By collecting the forest products
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


12. What helps us ’ to find out the records of hunters, fishing folk etc. ?
(a) Archaeology
(b) Astrology
(c) Biology
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Archaeology


13. When did agriculture start?
(a) 4700 years ago
(b) 2500 years ago
(c) 8000 years ago
(d) 5500 years ago

Answer

Answer: (c) 8000 years ago


14. In what ways was the ancient coin different from the ones we use
(a) Made of stones
(b) Made of baked clay
(c) Made of bones
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


15. In which language were the manuscripts written?
(a) Sanskrit
(b) English
(c) Hindi
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Sanskrit


Hope the information shared regarding MCQ Questions of Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 1 What, Where, How and When? is true and genuine as far as our knowledge is concerned. If you feel any information is missing do reac us and we will look into it and add it accordingly.

Electoral Politics Class 9 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct option:

Question 1.
How many seats are reserved in the Lok Sabha for the Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes?
(a) 47
(b) 60
(c) 84
(d) 100

Answer

Answer: (c) 84


Question 2.
Our country is divided into
(a) 500 constituencies
(b) 543 constituencies
(c) 550 constituencies
(d) 552 constituencies

Answer

Answer: (b) 543 constituencies


Question 3.
The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Uttar Pradesh is
(a) 80
(b) 82
(c) 84
(d) 90

Answer

Answer: (c) 84


Question 4.
The number of Lok Sabha constituencies in Delhi is
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 7

Answer

Answer: (d) 7


Question 5.
The minimum age required for being a voter is:
(a) 25 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 18 years
(d) 15 years

Answer

Answer: (c) 18 years


Question 6.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India
(d) The Law Minister of India

Answer

Answer: (c) The President of India


Question 7.
Who led the ‘Nyaya Yudh’?
(a) Chaudhary Charan Singh
(b) Chaudhary Devi Lal
(c) Ajit Singh
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Chaudhary Devi Lal


Question 8.
Which of these is not a feature of Indian democracy?
(a) India has the largest number of voters in the world
(b) India’s Election Commission is very powerful
(c) In India, everyone above the age of 18 has a right to vote
(d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict

Answer

Answer: (d) In India, the losing parties refuse to accept the electoral verdict


Question 9.
What is meant by the term ‘constituency’?
(a) Place where the copy of constitution is kept
(b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha
(c) A body of voters
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A particular area from where voters elect a representative to the Lok Sabha / Vidhan Sabha


Question 10.
In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha
(b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha
(c) Vidhan Parishad
(d) Only Lok Sabha

Answer

Answer: (b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha


Question 11.
What is an election held for only one constituency to fill the vacancy caused due to the death or resignation of a member called?
(a) By-election
(b) Mid-term election
(c) General election
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) By-election


Question 12.
Constituencies called ‘wards’ are made for the election to
(a) Parliament
(b) State Legislative Assembly
(c) State Legislative Council
(d) Panchayats and municipal bodies

Answer

Answer: (b) State Legislative Assembly


Question 13.
Which of these is not a part of the district and local level bodies?
(a) Panchayats
(b) Municipalities
(c) Corporations
(d) Lok Sabha

Answer

Answer: (d) Lok Sabha


Question 14.
for voting, the voter has to show which of these as identity proof?
(a) Ration card
(b) Driving license
(c) Election Photo Identity Card
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these


Question 15.
What is the details the candidates have to give in the legal declaration before contesting the elections?
(a) Serious criminal cases pending against them
(b) Details of assets and liabilities of the candidate and his or her family
(c) Educational qualification of the candidate
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 16.
Name the body which conducts the elections in India
(a) Supreme Court
(b) Parliament
(c) Cabinet
(d) Election Commission

Answer

Answer: (d) Election Commission


Question 17.
When on election duty, under whose control does the government officers work?
(a) Central Government
(b) Election Commission
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Court

Answer

Answer: (b) Election Commission


Question 18.
What does the term ‘incumbent’ mean?
(a) The current holder of a political office
(b) The candidate contesting the election
(c) The outgoing candidate of the dissolved House
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) The current holder of a political office


Question 19.
The Election Commission is:
(a) An elected body
(b) An appointed body
(c) An independent body
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (b) An appointed body


Question 20.
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election
(b) Every citizen has the right to vote regardless of caste religion or gender
(c) Some criminals and persons with unsound mind can be denied the right to vote in rare situations
(d) It is the responsibility of the government to get the names of all eligible voters put in the voters list

Answer

Answer: (a) All citizens above the age of 21 can vote in an election


Question 21.
What is the age of a person who can contest election for the Lok Sabha in India?
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 40 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 25 years


Question 22.
Voter’s List is also known as:
(a) Election Number
(b) Voter Identity Card
(c) Electoral Roll
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Electoral Roll


Question 23.
Which of the following statements is against the democratic process of elections?
(a) Parties and candidates should be free to contest elections
(b) Elections must be held regularly immediately after the term is over
(c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only
(d) Elections should be conducted in a free and fair manner

Answer

Answer: (c) The right to vote should be given to the selected people only


Question 24.
Reserved Constituencies ensures
(a) Right to equality
(b) Proper representation to all religious groups
(c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Proper representation to the weaker sections of society


Question 25.
Who has given the slogan ‘Garibi Hatao’?
(a) Indira Gandhi
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Sonia Gandhi
(d) Pt. Nehru

Answer

Answer: (a) Indira Gandhi


Question 26.
Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India?
(a) The Chief Justice of India
(b) The Prime Minister of India
(c) The President of India
(d) The people of India

Answer

Answer: (c) The President of India


Question 27.
The number of seats reserved for Scheduled Castes in the Lok Sabha is:
(a) 59
(b) 79
(c) 89
(d) 99

Answer

Answer: (b) 79


 

Practice MCQ Questions on Maratha Empire | Marathas Objective Type Questions

MCQ Questions on Maratha Empire

Aspirants can find the Complete Multiple Choice Questions on Maratha Empire all in one place. Make the most out of these Maratha Empire Objective Questions and revise the syllabus smartly. Strengthen your preparation by taking the help of these Maratha Dynasty MCQ Questions and Answers and attempt the exam with utmost confidence. Try to practice using the Maratha Empire MCQs and remediate the knowledge gap accordingly.

Maratha Empire History Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Which one of the following method of revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara Empire?
A. Chauth
B. Ryotwari
C. Rae Rekho
D. Sardeshmukhi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : ‘Sardeshmukhi’ is an additional 10% tax levied upon the collected ‘Chauth’. The reasons for the additional tax was due to the King claiming hereditary rights upon the tax collection. This revenue assessment is related to the Vijayanagara Empire.


2. Shivaji crowned himself at
A. Poona
B. Konkan
C. Bijapur
D. Raigarh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Raigarh


3. Shivaji maintained a fleet at
A. Surat
B. Calicut
C. Bombay
D. Kolaba

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Shivaji maintained a fleet at Kolaba to plunder the Mughal trading vessels and also to check the pirates.


4. Shivaji submitted to Jai Singh and signed the treaty of
A. Poona
B. Purandhar
C. Konkan
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Treaty of Purandar was signed on June 11, 1665, between the Rajput ruler Jai Singh I, who was commander of the Mughal Empire, and Maratha Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj. Shivaji was forced to sign the agreement after Jai Singh besieged Purandar fort.


5. Under Shivaji’s rule, the head of a unit of 25 in the Cavalry was known as
A. Jumadar
B. Havaldar
C. Faujdar
D. Hazari

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One unit in the cavalry was formed of 25 troopers; over them was placed a havaldar, and five havaldars formed one jumla under a jumladar. Ten jumladars made a hazari charge, and five hazaris were placed under a panjhazari, who was given a salary of 2000 huns.


6. Shivaji’s Agra Adventure was planned by
A. Afzal Khan
B. Shayista Khan
C. Jai Singh
D. Mir Jumla

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jai Singh advised Shivaji to proceed to Agra and meet the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb to ratify the treaty. Jai Singh assured Shivaji that he would not be harmed during his journey to and stay at Agra. Shivaji saw the truce as an opportunity for respite and to consolidate his strength.


7. Name the religious personality who exercised a great influence over Shivaji
A. Tukaram
B. Guru Nanak Dev
C. Mirabai
D. Guru Ram Das

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Guru Ram Das was a spiritual guru of Shivaji. Shivaji gave a Sanad to the fort of Parli to Ramdas. The fort was later renamed Sajjangad. Ramdas not only spiritually, but also advised Shivaji on tactical and warfare strategies.


8. Shivaji sacked __________ and secured a large booty
A. Bijapur
B. Poona
C. Konkan
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : In January 1664, with 4000 picked Maratha soldiers Sivaji attacked and sacked Surat. He set fire to thousands of houses in Surat. Sivaji left Surat carrying away gold, silver, pearls, and diamonds amounting to more than a crore of rupees.


9. The Peshwa’s Secretariat at Pune (Poona), the pivot of the Maratha government was known as
A. Huzur Daftar
B. El Beriz Daftar
C. Chalte Dafter
D. Peshwa Dafter

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Peshwa’s office at Poona called Huzur Daftar was the center of Maratha administration. It was an extensive establishment having several offices and different bureaucratic departments. The most important department was the El Beriz Daftar and the Chalte Daftar.


10. In which year, Shivaji was crowned as the Chhatrapati?
A. 1608
B. 1674
C. 1646
D. 1710

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : An Indian warrior king and a member of the Bhonsle Maratha clan, Shivaji was formally crowned as the Chhatrapati (Monarch) of his realm at Raigad in 1674.


11. Chhatrapati Sambhaji (1680-1688 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Maratha
B. Nanda
C. Haryanka
D. Maurya

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Chhatrapati Sambhaji was the Maratha ruler (1680-1688 AD). He was the eldest son of Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and Maharani Saibai.


12. Bajirao-I (1720-1740 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Peshwas
C. Haryanka
D. Maurya

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Baji Rao (18 August 1700 – 28 April 1740) was a general of the Maratha Empire in India. He served as Peshwa (General) to the fifth Maratha Chhatrapati (Emperor) Shahu from 1720 until his death. He is also known by the name Bajirao Ballal.


13. Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (1674-1680 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Haryanka
C. Maurya
D. Maratha

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj (1630–1680) was a Maratha aristocrat of the Bhosale clan who is considered to be the founder of the Maratha empire.


14. Baji Rao-II (1796-1818 A.D.) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Haryanka
C. Maurya
D. Peshwas

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Baji Rao II (10 January, 1775 – 28 January, 1851) was the last Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, and governed from 1795 to 1818. He was installed as a puppet ruler by the Maratha nobles, whose growing power prompted him to flee his capital Pune and sign the Treaty of Bassein (1802) with the British.


15. Identify the European power from whom Shivaji obtained cannons and ammunition
A. The French
B. The Portuguese
C. The Dutch
D. The English

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : He used cannons and ammunition from the Portuguese to attack the English. In June 1661, Shivaji’s soldiers plundered Rajapur and captured several Englishmen. This was payback for the english aid to Bijapur. The folowing year he captured a band of Englishmen in Surat for supplying ammunition to his enemies.


16. Shivaji founded the Maratha kingdom by annexing the territories of
A. Bijapur
B. Mughals
C. Both (a) and (b) above
D. Bijapur Golcunda and the Mughals

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After a lifetime of warfare with Adilshah of Bijapur and Mughal emperor Aurangzeb, Shivaji founded an independent Maratha kingdom in 1674 with Raigad as its capital.


17. What was the capital of Shivaji’s Kingdom?
A. Pune
B. Raigarh
C. Karwar
D. Purandhar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shivaji founded an independent Hindu Maratha Kingdom in 1674 with Raigarh as its capital.


18. ‘Chauth’ was
A. A religious tax imposed by Aurangzeb
B. Toll tax imposed by Shivaji
C. Irrigation tax charged by Akbar
D. Land tax levied by Shivaji on neighbouring States

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Chauth (from Sanskrit meaning one-fourth) was a regular tax or tribute imposed, from early 18th century, by the Maratha Empire in India. It was an annual tax nominally levied at 25% on revenue or produce, hence the name. It was levied on the lands which were under nominal Mughal rule. It is a tribute paid to the king.


19. The second founder of the Maratha Kingdom was
A. Tarabai
B. Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath
C. Peshwa Bajirao
D. Shahu

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Balaji Vishwanath assisted a young Maratha Emperor Shahu to consolidate his grip on a kingdom that had been racked by civil war and persistent attack by the Mughals under Aurangzeb. He was called “the second founder of the Maratha State.”


20. The Mughal General, who decisively defeated Shivaji and forced him to conclude the Treaty of Purandar, was
A. Shaista Khan
B. Mirza Raja Jai Singh
C. Prince Muazzam
D. Dilir Khan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shivaji was forced to sign the agreement after Jai Singh besieged Purandar fort. When Shivaji realised that war with the Mughal Empire would only cause damage to the empire and that his men would suffer heavy losses, he chose to make a treaty instead of leaving his men under the Mughals.


21. In his early days Shivaji moved with
A. Jat leaders
B. Mawali leaders
C. Santhals
D. Bhils

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In his early days Shivaji moved with Mawali leaders.


22. Shivaji crowned himself as King in the year
A. 1664
B. 1674
C. 1670
D. 1660

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shivaji was crowned on this day in 1674. The founder of the Maratha empire was formally crowned as Chhatrapati of Raigad on this day, June 6, in the year 1674.


23. After the death of Rajaram in 1700A.D., Marathas continued the war against the Mughals under his brave wife
A. Tarabai
B. Lakshmibai
C. Ramabi
D. Jijabai

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : After the death of Rajaram (1700 A.D) Marathas continued the war against the Mughals under the leadership of Tarabai (Garurdion of Shivaji-II). When Bajirao came to power, the mughal empire was much weakened. The credit to the weakening of the mughals goes not to Bajirao but to his predecessors like Shivaji, Shivaji’s son Sambhaji, Shivaji’s second son Rajaram and later Rajaram’s wife Tarabai—also to generals like Santaji and Dhanaji who fought for Rajaram .


24. Sambaji plundered the Mughal territories in
A. Deccan
B. Gujarat
C. Punjab
D. Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1664 and 1670, Shivaji had organized two plundering raids on Surat, which was a part of Mughal territory. The rulers of Deccan were already familiar with these terms well before Shivaji. In fact, Portuguese had also paid these taxes to the neighbouring kings of their territories to avoid conflicts with them.


25. The estate of Shivaji’s father was
A. Konkan
B. Poona
C. Torna
D. Rajgarh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shivaji was born in the hill-fort of Shivneri, near the city of Junnar in what is now Pune district. Scholars disagree on his date of birth. Shivaji was named after a local deity, the goddess Shivai. Shivaji’s father Shahaji Bhonsle was a Maratha general who served the Deccan Sultanates.


26. Which of the following are true about Shivaji?,1. He was a disciple of Ramdas Samarth.,2. He levied Chauth and Sardeshmukhi.,3. He became the Peshwa
A. I II and III
B. II and III
C. I and II
D. III and I

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Shivaji was a disciple of Ramdas Samarth. Shivaji introduced the collection of two taxes called the Chauth and ‘Sardeshmukhi’.


27. The Marathas first served the rulers of
A. Muhammadan kingdoms of the south
B. Mughal empire
C. Vijayanagar
D. Afghanistan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Marathas first served the rulers of Muhammadan kingdoms of the south.


28. The Maratha Kingdom under the Peshwas was
A. a loose federation
B. a military State
C. a confederacy (Mandala or Sangha)
D. a regency of the Peshwa

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Maratha Empire or the Maratha Confederacy (Mandala or Sangha) was an Indian power that dominated much of the Indian subcontinent in the 17th and 18th century. The empire formally existed from 1674 with the coronation of Chhatrapati Shivaji and ended in 1818 with the defeat of Peshwa Bajirao II.


29. With the help of Baghnuk (Tiger-claws) Shivaji killed
A. Afzal khan
B. Shayista khan
C. Muhamad Khan
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Killing of Afzal Khan is one of the important milestones in Shivaji’s life. He carried a weapon called wagh nakh (“tiger claws”), consisting of an iron finger-grip to attack Afzal Khan.


30. The Maratha dominion of Shivaji was known as
A. Swaraj
B. Mulk-i-qadim
C. Maharajya
D. Maratha Rastra

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Shivaji (1627-1680) was a Maratha aristocrat of the Bhosle clan who is considered to be the founder of the Maratha empire. Shivaji led a resistance to free the Marathi people from the Sultanate of Bijapur from 1645 and establish Hindavi Swarajya (self-rule of Hindu people).


31. During Shivaji’s rule the Council of the State consisted of
A. Eight Ministers
B. Eighteen Ministers
C. Twelve Ministers
D. Fifteen Ministers

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Ashta Pradhan (also termed Asta Pradhad or the Council of 8) was a council of eight ministers that administered the Maratha empire. The council was formed in 1674 by their king, Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.


32. Which among the following was the capital of Shivaji?
A. Poona
B. Raigarh
C. Singhgarh
D. Panhala

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Maratha ruler Chhatrapati Shvaji created independent Maratha Kingdom with Raigarh (Maharashtra) is his Capital. Raigad was the capital of the Marathas under Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.


33. After his coronation Shivaji assumed the title of
A. Maharaja
B. Peshwa
C. Chhatrapati
D. Samrat

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After his coronation Shivaji assumed the title of Chhatrapati Maharaja.


34. On behalf of Aurangzeb Shivaji attacked
A. Gujarat
B. Konkan
C. Surat
D. Poena

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During Aurangzeb’s march against Bijapur, Shivaji offered his services to him and began to attack the Konkan on behalf of the Mughals. Aurangzeb was called away by the war of succession in the north. Shivaji occupied almost whole of the Konkan.


35. The liberal religion preached by the saints of Maharashtra and rigidly followed by Shivaji is known as
A. Desh Dharma
B. Maharashtra Dharma
C. Rashtra Dharma
D. Hindu Dharma

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The liberal religion preached by the saints of Maharashtra and rigidly followed by Shivaji is known as Maharashtra Dharma.


36. Shivaji ceded the forts to the Mughals by the treaty of
A. Chittor
B. Pune
C. Purandar
D. Torna

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Treaty of Purander (1665) was signed between the Maratha Emperor Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj and the Mughal military commander – Rajput Raja Jai Singh (on behalf of Emperor Aurangzeb) According to this Treaty: Shivaji ceded his forts to the Mughal and promised to provide imperial service of 5000 soldiers.


37. The Administrative Council of Shivaji was known as
A. Parishad
B. Mantriparishad
C. Ashtapradhan
D. Rajyaparishad

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Ashta Pradhan (also termed Asta Pradhad or the Council of 8) was a council of eight ministers that administered the Maratha empire. The council was formed in 1674 by their king, Chatrapati Shivaji Maharaj.


38. Under the administration of Shivaji, “Peshwa” was referred to as
A. Minister of Religious Affairs
B. Minister of Defence
C. Chief Minister
D. Minister of Justice

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Peshwa, the office of chief minister among the Maratha people of India. The peshwa, also known as the mukhya pradhan, originally headed the advisory council of the raja Shivaji (reigned c. 1659–80).


39. Assertion (A): Shivaji aimed at establishing Maratha rule in Delhi. ,Reason (R): Shivaji took the leadership of the Maratha resistance against the Mughals
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : This was an era when the Mughals and the Marathas were constantly at war for control over the Deccan. In 1674, Shivaji had been crowned the ruler of the independent Maratha kingdom established by him. Under his able leadership, the empire quickly became a key political force in India at the height of Mughal power.


40. The guerilla warfare was pioneered by
A. Aurangzeb
B. Akbar
C. Shivaji
D. Balaji Rao

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj started guerrilla warfare against the Mughals and other powers in 1645 leading to the establishment of the Maratha state in 1674, sowing seeds of what would become the last great empire (Maratha empire) in free India.


41. Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus station was designed by
A. Frederick William Stevens
B. Santiago Calatrava
C. Fazlur Rahman Khan
D. Frei Otto

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Frederick William Stevens (11 November 1847 – 3 March 1900) was an English architectural engineer who worked for the British colonial government in India. Stevens’ most notable design was the railway station Victoria Terminus in Bombay (in 1996 renamed the Chhatrapati Shivaji Terminus in Mumbai).


42. Shivaji attacked Shayista Khan in the night at
A. Agra
B. Konkan
C. Bijapur
D. Poona

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : It is one of the most famous exploits of Shivaji early in his career and has never been forgotten by successive generations in India. Shaista Khan, the maternal uncle of Emperor Aurangzeb, and the new Governor of Deccan, had made Shivaji’s position precarious by his furious offensive. He had even occupied Pune (9th May 1660). Shivaji had already lost Chakan (August 1660), Kalian (May 1661), and in March 1663 the Maratha commander Netaji Palker was worsted in a sanguary fight and he had to escape losing much of the booty being brought from the Mughal territory.


43. Shivaji started his public career at the age of
A. 18
B. 21
C. 23
D. 24

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Shivaji showed his mettle at the young age of 18, when he overran a number of hill forts near Poona – Rajgarh, Kondana and Torana during 1645-1647.


44. The most powerful Peshwa was
A. Balaji Baji Rao
B. Baji Rao-I
C. Madhava Rao
D. Balaji Vishwanath

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Baji Rao-I (The Son of Bala ji Vishwanath) was the most powerful Peshwa. He is also known as the winner 72 wars and Baji Rao Mastani.


45. Tarabai, who conducted the affairs of the Maratha government from 1700 to 1707 AD, was the widow of the Maratha King
A. Shambhaji
B. Shivaji II
C. Raja Ram
D. Shivaji III

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tarabai Bhosale (14 April 1675 – 9 December 1761) was the regent of the Maratha Empire of India from 1700 until 1708. She was the queen of Chhatrapati Rajaram Bhosale, daughter-in-law of the empire’s founder Shivaji and mother of Shivaji II.


46. The Brahmin minister of Shambhaji (Son and Successor of Shivaji) upon whom he invested the title of ‘Pinnacle of Poets’ was
A. Kavi Kalash
B. Kavindra Acharya
C. Kavi Bhusan
D. Kavi Martanda

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Brahmin minister of Shambhaji (Son and Successor of Shivaji) upon whom he invested the title of ‘Pinnacle of Poets’ was Kavi Kalash.


47. How many times Shivaji plundered Surat?
A. Four Times
B. Once
C. Thrice
D. Twice

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Surat was an important commerical city. Shivaji looted Surat twice in 1664 and 1670.


48. Shivaji’s administration owed its origin to the principles laid down by
A. Kautilya
B. Sher Shah
C. Akbar
D. Adi Granth

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Shivaji’s administration owed its origin to the principles laid down by Kautilya.


49. Under Shivaji each province was under a
A. Viceroy
B. Governor
C. Diwan
D. Zamindar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Shivaji divided his kingdom into four provinces. Each province was under the head called Mamlatdar or Viceroy. Each province was divided into several districts and villages. The village was an organised institution.


50. The Shivaji Festival was inaugurated in 1895 by
A. Hume
B. Morley
C. Tilak
D. Gokhale

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tilak initiated Ganeshotsav and Shivaji Utsav in 1894. Soon he came to be regarded as the undisputed leader of Maharashtra and was honored with the title ‘Lokamanya’ in 1893 which became synonymous with him in the 1900. “Celebration of Ganapati Festival started this year on 16th September.


51. Which one of the following was NOT introduced by Shivaji?
A. Land-tax
B. Chauth
C. Sardeshmukhi
D. Pilgrim tax

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Pilgrim tax was not introduced by Shivaji.


52. Mzal Khan who fought with Shivaji was the ruler of
A. Bijapur
B. Mewar
C. Gujarat
D. Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mzal Khan who fought with Shivaji was the ruler of Bijapur.


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