MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Sectors of Indian Economy MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy

1. The sectors are classified into public and private sector on the basis of :
(a) Employment conditions
(b) The nature of economic activities
(c) Number of workers employed
(d) Ownership of enterprises3

Answer

Answer: d


2. When we produce a good by exploiting natural resources, it is an activity of the:
(a) Secondary sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Organised sector

Answer

Answer: c


3. The service sector includes activities such as:
(a) agriculture, dairy, fishing and forestry
(b) making sugar, gur and bricks
(c) transport, communication and banking
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c


4. Choose the correct meaning of organised sector:
(a) It covers those enterprises where the terms of employment are regular.
(b) It is outside the control of the government.
(c) Jobs are not regular.
(d) It provides low salaries.

Answer

Answer: a


5. Which of the following is included in tertiary sector?
(a) ATM booths
(b) Call centres
(c) Internet cafe
(d) All of them

Answer

Answer: d


6. Government owns most of the assets and provides all the services:
(a) Private Sector
(b) Public Sector
(c) Organised Sector
(d) Tertiary Sector

Answer

Answer: b


7. The value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year is called as:
(a) Gross Domestic Product
(b) Net Domestic Product
(c) National Product
(d) Production of Tertiary Sector

Answer

Answer: a


8. A situation in which more persons are employed on a job than are optimally required is:
(a) Structural unemployment
(b) Disguised unemployment
(c) Cyclical unemployment
(d) Seasonal unemployment

Answer

Answer: b


9. Out of 200 million children in the school going age group, how many are attending schools?
(a) One-fourth
(b) Half
(c) Two-thirds
(d) One-fifth

Answer

Answer: c


10. Central government in India made a law, implementing the Right to Work in how many districts of India?
(a) 150 districts
(b) 200 districts
(c) 250 districts
(d) 625 districts

Answer

Answer: d


11. GDP stands for Gross Domestic Product. What does it show? Pick up the correct statement given below:
(a) It shows how big is the economy of a country in a given year in terms of its total output.
(b) It shows what the total product of a country in a given year without counting the country’s total resources.
(c) It shows the number of people involved in production in a particular year.
(d) It shows the total value of trade trans-actions of a country in a particular year.

Answer

Answer: a


12. Employment figures of a country are based on data collected from 5-yearly survey on employment and unemployment. Which organisation conducts this survey?
(a) NSSO—National Sample Survey Organisation
(b) NREGA 2005—National Rural Employment Guarantee Act, 2005
(c) ILO — International Labour Organisation
(d) Census of India

Answer

Answer: b


13. Identify the natural product from the list of items given below:
(a) Textile
(b) Wheat flour
(c) Cotton
(d) Tomtao sauce

Answer

Answer: c


14. Which of the following examples does not fall under unorganized sector?
(a) A farmer irrigating his field.
(b) A daily wage labourer working for a contractor.
(c) A doctor in a hospital treating a patient.
(d) A handloom weaver working on a loom in her house.

Answer

Answer: c


15. Identify the correct answer from the alternatives provided.
Both Tisco and Reliance Industries are owned by :
(a) The government
(b) Private company
(c) A cooperative society
(d) Jointly by private companies and the govt.

Answer

Answer: c


16. NREGA (National Rural Employment Guarantee Act of 2005) has guaranteed ………. days of employment in a year in many districts of India. What are the correct number of days?
(a) 200 days
(b) 100 days
(c) 30 days
(d) 60 days

Answer

Answer: b


17. Choose one correct statement from the following:
Underemployment occurs —
(a) when people are not willing to work.
(b) when people are working slowly.
(c) when people are working less than what they are capable of doing.
(d) when people are not paid for their jobs.

Answer

Answer: c


18. Which sector has emerged as the largest producing sector in India. Select one from the following alternatives:
(a) Secondary sector
(b) Tertiary sector
(c) Primary sector
(d) Science and Technology sector

Answer

Answer: b


19. Where will you find the disguised unemployment most? Select the correct option from those given below:
(a) Among agricultural workers working for small farm lands
(b) Among part-time industrial workers
(c) In most of the government offices
(d) In big private companies

Answer

Answer: a


20. How do big private companies contribute in the development of a nation?
(a) By increasing the demands for their products through advertisements.
(b) By increasing their profits.
(c) By increasing productivity of the country in the manufacturing of industrial goods.
(d) By providing private hospital facilities for the rich.

Answer

Answer: c


21. ____________ refers to the activities which are undertaken by people with the object of earning money.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Economic activities


22. A housewife looking after the household is an example of ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: non-economic activities


23. All goods which are used as raw material for further production of other goods or for resale in the same year are called ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: intermediate goods


24. The Act guaranteed 100 days of employment in a year or unemployment allowances to the people should be provided by the government is known as ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act 2005 (MGNREGA 2005)


25. ____________ sector is governed by various laws such as Factories Act, Minimum Wages Act etc.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Organised


26. ____________ includes production by exploiting natural resources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Primary sector


27. ____________ and ____________ are the two factors of production.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Capital; labour


28. There is no provision for overtime, paid leave, holidays etc. in unorganized sector. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as the jobs are not regular and lack in security.


29. The objective ofpublic sector is to maximize profits. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as the objective of public sector is to promote public welfare and not to maximize profits.


30. Railways comes under public sector. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as the government owns them.


31. Capital is the only factor of production. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as labour and land are also factors of production.


32. The goods which are meant either for consumption by consumers or for investment by firms are called final goods. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as they are produced either for consumption or investment.


33. Under NREGA 2005, the government guaranteed 120 days of work to rural household. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as under NREGA 2005, the government guaranteed 100 days of work to rural household.


34. When more persons are employed in a job rather than optimally required is seasonal unemployment. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as when more persons are employed in a job rather than optimally required it is a case of disguised unemployment.


35. What is economic development?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Economic development means that the rate of production must be faster than the rate of increase in population. In other words, we can say that it makes people better off by increasing their command over goods and services and the choices open to them.


36. Name any activity done in primary sector? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In primary sector, goods are produced by exploiting natural resources.


37. Why is primary sector also called agriculture and related sector?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Primary sector is also called agriculture and related sector because most of the natural products we get are from agriculture, diary, fishing, forests etc.


38. What activities are done in the secondary sector?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In secondary sector, natural products are changed into other forms through different ways of manufacturing.


39. Distinguish between ‘primary’ and ‘secondary’ sectors.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Primary sector exploits natural resources to produce goods whereas secondary sector change natural products into other forms through manufacturing.


40. What does the tertiary sector include?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Tertiary sector includes distribution of services, training and support.


41. Identify any two services included in the tertiary sector in the recent times.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Internet cafe, ATM booths, call centres, software companies etc. (any two)


42. Define GDP.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
GDP refers to Gross Domestic Product. It is the value of all final goods and services produced within a country during a particular year.


43. Which sector has grown considerably in the recent years?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In the recent years, the tertiary sector has shown a considerable growth.


44. Which sector has contributed the most to the employment?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Primary sector has contributed the most to the employment.


45. Where are most of the underemployed people found?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Most of the underemployed people are found in agriculture.


46. What is double counting?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
When the value of a product is counted more than once, it is called double counting. This leads to the overestimation of the value of goods and services produced.


47. Which sector generates services rather than goods?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Tertiary or Service sector generates services rather than goods.


48. Name two vulnerable groups in urban areas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two vulnerable groups in urban areas are rag pickers and street vendors.


49. What are intermediate goods?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Intermediate goods are those goods which are used up in the production process to make final goods and services.


50. What are final goods and services?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Final goods and services are those which reach the consumers for final consumption or capital formation.


Fill in the Blanks

1. Tertiary sector is also called ……….. .
2. Communication and banking come under ……….. sector.
3. Cotton cultivation falls under ……….. sector.
4. In the public sector, the ……….. owns most of the assets and provides all services.
5. In the Private sector, the ownership lies in the hands of ……….. .
6. Most of the jobs are ……….. and ……….. paid in the unorganised sector.
7. Protection and support to the unorganised sector is needed for both ……….. and ……….. development.
8. Bankers and truck drivers belong to ……….. sector of the economy.

Answers.

1. Service sector
2. Tertiary
3. Primary
4. government
5. private companies
6. unsecure, lowly
7. economic and social
8. Tertiary

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Sectors of Indian Economy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 2 Sectors of Indian Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Development with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Development Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Development MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 1 Development

1. Development of a country can generally be determined by its:
(a) per capita income
(b) average literacy level
(c) health status of its people
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: a


2. Different persons could have different as well as conflicting notions of a country’s development. A fair and just path for all should be achieved. Interpret the concept being discussed here.
(a) Social development
(b) Cultural development
(c) National development
(d) Economic development

Answer

Answer: c


3. Countries with higher income are _____________ than others with less income.
(a) Less developed
(b) More developed
(c) Less stronger
(d) More organized

Answer

Answer: b


4. Total income of the country divided by its
total population is known as: ‘
(a) Capital Income
(b) National Income
(c) Per capita income
(d) GDP

Answer

Answer: c


5. Proportion of literate population in the 7 and above age group is called as:
(a) Knowledge rate
(b) Literacy rate
(c) Attendance rate
(d) Excellence Rate

Answer

Answer: b


6. Which age group of children is included for calculating Net Attendance Ratio?
(a) 6-10
(b) 7-11
(c) 5-9
(d) 14-15

Answer

Answer: d


7. For calculating Body Mass Index (BMI), weight of the person is divided by the:
(a) Square of the weight
(b) Square of the height
(c) Square root of the height
(d) Square of the sum of height and weight

Answer

Answer: b


8. If BMI is less than 18.5 then the person would be considered: v
(a) over weight
(b) long height
(c) under nourished
(d) short height

Answer

Answer: c


9. What proportion of the country is over using their groundwater reserves?
(a) One-Fourth
(b) One-Tenth
(c) One-Third
(d) half

Answer

Answer: c


10. Resources which will get exhausted after years of use are:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-durable resources
(c) Non-renewable resources
(d) Competing resources

Answer

Answer: c


11. What will be the top priority in the developmental goal of a landless labourer?
(a) Expansion of rural banking
(b) More days of work and better wages
(c) Metal roads for transportation
(d) Establishment of a high school

Answer

Answer: b


12. What will be the aspiration of an educated urban unemployed youth?
(a) An educated urban unemployed youth will aspire for better opportunities in agriculture.
(b) Support from government at every step in life for his upward movement.
(c) An urban educated unemployed will aspire for good job opportunities where his education can be made use of.
(d) Better facilities of recreation for his leisure time.

Answer

Answer: c


13. Pick out the correct meaning listed below to define ‘average income’.
(a) Average income of the country means the total income of the country.
(b) The average income in a country is the income of only employed people.
(c) The average income is the same as per capita income.
(d) The average income includes the value of property held.

Answer

Answer: c


14. Which country can be considered as a developed country in the modern world? Select your answer from the following statements.
(a) Countries which have accumulated huge amount of wealth and always secures the future of their citizens. These countries are considered to be developed.
(b) Countries which are among the highest in the ‘Human Development Index’ are considered to be the developed countries.
(c) Only rich countries are considered to be developed because people have money to buy everything needed for human beings—both material and non-material.
(d) Iran is a rich country and therefore it is a developed country.

Answer

Answer: b


15. Money cannot buy all the goods and services that we may need to have a good life. A list of things required for a good life is given below. Which among the following are things money cannot buy?
(i) Full protection from infectious diseases
(ii) High quality education
(in) A luxury home
(iv) A pollution-free atmosphere in every part of the country
(a) (i) and(ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (in)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: d


16. HDI stands for ‘Human Development Index’ that focuses on Fill in the blanks with one of the following options:
(a) life expectancy
(b) gross enrolment ratio for three levels of schooling
(c) national income
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: d


17. Kerala has a low infant mortality rate. What could be the reason? Find the correct answer from the following:
(a) Kerala has a low infant mortality rate because all the girls are trained at the primary level schooling to look after a newborn child.
(b) Because most of the girls are nurses in Kerala.
(c) Because Kerala has very high female literacy rate and adequate health facilities are available for both mothers and children.
(d) Kerala’s good climatic condition helps infants to survive.

Answer

Answer: b


18. What would be the most promising source of energy fifty years from now and why?
(a) Petroleum energy, because it is obtained from fossil fuels.
(b) Solar energy, because it is not exhaustible.
(c) Coal based energy, because it is pollution- free.
(d) Forest product based energy, because India has abundant forests.

Answer

Answer: b


19. Pick out the cause (from below) that enhances environmental degradation:
(a) Planting of trees.
(b) Prevention of factory wastes getting mixed up with river water.
(c) Ban on use of plastic bags.
(d) Allowing increase in the level of exhaust fumes emitted by cars, buses, trucks, etc.

Answer

Answer: d


20. _____________ is a comprehensive term which includes increase in real per capita income, improvement in living standard of people, reduction in poverty, illiteracy, crime rate, etc.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Development


21. _____________ indicates the number of years a new bom is expected to live.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Life expectancy at birth


22. The development that should take place without damaging the environment, and development in the present should not compromise with the needs of the future generations is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sustainable Economic Development


23. _____________ means sustained increase in real per capita income that promotes economic welfare by reducing poverty, unemployment and inequalities in distribution of income.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Economic development


24. Two important aspects of our lives other than income are _____________ and _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Equal treatment; freedom


25. _____________ ensures availability of essential commodities like wheat, rice, sugar, edible oils and kerosene, etc. to the consumers through a network of outlets or fair price shops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Public Distribution System (PDS)


26. The two developmental goals of landless rural labourers are _____________ and _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: More days of work; better wages


27. The level of efficiency and productivity is low in a _____________ country.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Developing


28. Economic development is a wider term as compared to human development. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as economic development is a narrower term.


29. According to recent World Development Report, countries which had per capita income of US dollar 12236 per annum are rich countries. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


30. Kerala has low infant mortality rate. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


31. A decent standard of living is a variable of Human Development Index. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


32. Longevity implies how long a newborn is expected to live. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


33. The Human Development Index (HDI) rank of India in the world is 151 as per 2016. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as the HDI rank of India in the world is 131 as per 2016.


34. What do people need to get more income?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
People need regular work, better wages and decent price for crops to get more income.


35. Why do different people have different developmental goals? [CBSE 2018(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Different people have different developmental goals because people have diverse wishes, likes and dislikes, and aspirations.


36. Give any two common developmental goals of the people. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two common developmental goals of the people are as follows.
(a) Peace and security
(b) Better living conditions


37. State any two goals of development other than income. [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The development goals other than income are:-
(a) Good standard of living
(b) Security
(c) Satisfaction
(d) Equal treatment and respect
(e) Freedom
(f) Ample opportunities


38. What does national development refer to?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National development refers to the ability of a county to improve the social welfare of the people. For example, by providing social amenities such as quality education, potable water, transportation, infrastructure and medical care.


39. Why is the total income of countries not used to make comparisons between them?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The total income of the countries is not used to make comparisons between them because the population of different countries is different.


40. Define average income. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Per capita income or average income is calculated by dividing the total income of a country with its population.


41. Besides the size of per capita income, which other property of income is important in comparing two or more countries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Per capita income is an important but not the only criterion for development. Along with average income, equitable distribution of income in a country should also be considered.


42. Mention any one limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One limitation of per capita income as an indicator of development is that:
(a) Per capita income does not tell us anything about the distribution of income. A poor country with a more equal distribution of income would be better than a richer country with unequal distribution of income.
(b) Per capita income does not measure various facilities and services that influence quality of life, for example, health facilities, education facilities, equal treatment, etc.
(c) It is affected by size of population. Even with a large national income, per capita income will be low if a country has a large population. (any one)


43. Suppose there are 4 families in a country with per capita income of $15,000. The income of 3 families is $10,000, $20,000 and $12,000 respectively. What is the income of the 4th family? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Let the income of the 4th family be x.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Development with Answers
∴ The income of the 4th family is $ 18,000.


44. Among Haryana, Kerala and Bihar, which state in India has the least per capita income in 2015-16?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bihar has recorded the least per capita income in the year 2015-16.


45. Define sex ratio.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The total number of females per thousand males in a country is termed as sex ratio.


46. Define infant mortality rate.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The number of children that die before the age of one year as a proportion of 1000 live children bom in that particular year is known as infant mortality rate.


47. Why does Kerala have low infant mortality rate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kerala has low infant mortality rate because it has adequate provisions of basic health and educational facilities.


48. What is net attendance ratio?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Net attendance ratio is the total number of children of age group 14 and 15 years attending school as a percentage of total number of children in the same age group.


49. What does HDI stand for?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
HDI stands for Human Development Index. It is a tool developed by the United Nations to measure a country’s overall achievement in its social and economic dimensions.


50. What is Life Expectancy at Birth?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Life Expectancy at Birth is the average expected length of life of a person at the time of birth.


51. Name the two neighbour countries of India which have low per capita income than India, yet they are better than India in life expectancy according to Human Development Report 2016.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Nepal and Bangladesh.


52. Define sustainable development.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sustainable development refers to the development that meets the needs of the present without compromising the needs of the future generation.


53. Which neighbouring country of India has better performance in terms of human development than India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sri Lanka has better performance in terms of human development than India.


54. What are public facilities? Give examples.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Public facilities are the provisions aimed for welfare of masses. Every individual has equal access to such facilities. These facilities cannot be owned or maintained by one individual, nor can an individual use them alone for his/her personal interest. These facilities are required for an overall development of the citizens of a country or an area.
Examples of public facilities are- public transportation and communication, roads, bridges, hospitals, pollution-free environment, etc.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Development with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 1 Development Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 15 Probability with Answers

MCQs from Class 9 Maths Chapter 15 – Probability are provided here to help students prepare for their upcoming Maths exam.

MCQs from CBSE Class 9 Maths Chapter 15: Probability

1) The probability of each event, when a coin is tossed for 1000 times with frequencies: Head:455 & Tail: 545 is:
a. 0.455 & 0.545
b. 0.5 & 0.5
c. 0.45 & 0.55
d. 455 & 545

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Let E and F are the event of the occurrence of Head and Tail respectively.

Probability of Occurrence of Head P(E) = No. of heads/total number of trials

P(E) = 455/1000 = 0.455

Similarly,

P(F) = No. of tails/total number of trials

P(F) = 545/1000 = 0.545


2) The sum of all probabilities equal to:
a. 4
b. 1
c. 3
d. 2

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)


3) The probability of each event lies between:
a. 1 & 2
b. 1 & 10
c. 0 & 1
d. 0 & 5

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)


4) If P(E) = 0.44, then P(not E) will be:
a. 0.44
b. 0.55
c. 0.50
d. 0.56

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: We know;

P(E) + P(not E) = 1

0.44 + P(not E) = 1

P(not E) = 1 – 0.44 = 0.56


5) If P(E) = 0.38, then probability of event E, not occurring is:
a. 0.62
b. 0.38
c. 0.48
d. 1

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: P(not E) = 1 – P(E) = 1-0.38 = 0.62


6) The probability of drawing an ace card from a deck of cards is:
a. 1/52
b. 1/26
c. 4/13
d. 1/13

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: There are 4 aces in a deck of card.

Hence, the probability of taking one ace out of 52 card = 4/52 = 1/13


7) If probability of an event to happen is 0.3 and the probability of event not happening is:
a. 0.7
b. 0.6
c. 0.5
d. None of the above

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Probability of a event not happening = 1 – P(E)

P(not E) = 1 – 0.3 = 0.7


8) A dice is thrown. The probability of getting 1 and 5 is:
a. ⅙
b. ⅔
c. ⅓
d. ½

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: The probability of getting 1 and 5 = 2/6 = ⅓


9) A batsman hits boundaries for 6 times out of 30 balls. Find the probability that he did not hit the boundaries.
a. ⅕
b. ⅖
c. ⅗
d. ⅘

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: No. of boundaries = 6

No. of balls = 30

No. of balls without boundaries = 30 – 6 =24

Probability of no boundary = 24/30 = ⅘


10. Three coins were tossed 200 times. The number of times 2 heads came up is 72. Then the probability of 2 heads coming up is:
a. 1/25
b. 2/25
c. 7/25
d. 9/25

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Probability = 72/200 = 9/25


MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 14 Statistics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 14 Statistics with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 14 Statistics with Answers

MCQs from Class 9 Maths Chapter 14 – Statistics are provided here to help students prepare for their upcoming Maths exam.

MCQs from CBSE Class 9 Maths Chapter 14: Statistics

1) The ratio of sum of observations and total number of observations is called:
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Central tendency

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)


2) The mean of x+2, x+3, x+4 and x-2 is:
a. (x+7)/4
b. (2x+7)/4
c. (3x+7)/4
d. (4x+7)/4

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Mean = (x+2+x+3+x+4+x-2)/4 = (4x+7)/4


3) The median of the data: 4, 6, 8, 9, 11 is
a. 6
b. 8
c. 9
d. 11

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)


4) The median of the data: 155 160 145 149 150 147 152 144 148 is
a. 149
b. 150
c. 147
d. 144

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: First arrange the data in ascending order.

144 145 147 148 149 150 152 155 160

Since, the number of observations here is odd, therefore,

Median = (n+1)/2 th = (9+1)/2 = 10/2 = 5th number = 149


5) The median of the data: 17, 2, 7, 27, 15, 5, 14, 8, 10, 24, 48, 10, 8, 7, 18, 28 is:
a. 10
b. 24
c. 12
d. 8

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Arrange the given data in ascending order:

2, 5, 7, 7, 8, 8, 10, 10, 14, 15, 17, 18, 24, 27, 28, 48

Since, the number of observations givere here is even, hence,

Median will be average of two middle terms.

n/2th = 16/2 = 8th term

(n/2 +1)th = (16/2 + 1)th = 9th term

Therefore,

Median = (10+14)/2 = 12


6) The mode of the given data: 4, 6, 5, 9, 3, 2, 7, 7, 6, 5, 4, 9, 10, 10, 3, 4, 7, 6, 9, 9 is;
a. 7
b. 9
c. 10
d. 6

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation: First arrange the data in order:

2, 3, 3, 4, 4, 4, 5, 5, 6, 6, 6, 7, 7, 7, 9, 9, 9, 9, 10, 10

Hence, mode = 9


7) The value which appears very frequently in a data is called:
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Central tendency

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)


8) The collection of information, collected for a purpose is called:
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Data

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)


9) The mean of the data 2, 3, 4, 5, 0, 1, 3, 3, 4, 3 is
a. 2
b. 2.2
c. 2.4
d. 2.8

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Mean = (2+3+4+5+0+1+3+3+4+3)/10 = 28/10 = 2.8


10) Which of the following is not a measure of central tendency?
a. Standard deviation
b. Mean
c. Median
d. Mode

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)


MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 9 Maths Chapter 13 Surface Areas and Volumes with Answers

MCQs from Class 9 Maths Chapter 13 – Surface Areas and Volumes are provided here to help students prepare for their upcoming Maths exam.

MCQs from CBSE Class 9 Maths Chapter 13: Surface Areas and Volumes

1) The formula to find surface area of a cuboid of length (l), breadth (b) and height (h) is:
a. lb+bh+hl
b. 2(lb+bh+hl)
c. 2(lbh)
d. lbh/2

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)


2) The surface area of a cube whose edge equals to 3cm is:
a. 62 sq.cm
b. 30 sq.cm
c. 54 sq.cm
d. 90 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Given, a = 3 cm

Surface area of cube = 6a2

SA = 6 x 3 x 3 = 54 sq.cm


3) The surface area of cuboid-shaped box having length=80 cm, breadth=40cm and height=20cm is:
a. 11200 sq.cm
b. 13000 sq.cm
c. 13400 sq.cm
d. 12000 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: surface area of the box = 2(lb + bh + hl)

S.A. = 2[(80 × 40) + (40 × 20) + (20 × 80)]

= 2[3200 + 800 + 1600]

= 2 × 5600 = 11200 sq.cm.


4) The volume of hemisphere whose radius is r, is:
a. 4/3 πr3
b. 4πr3
c. 2πr3
d. ⅔ π r3

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)


5) If the radius of a cylinder is 4cm and height is 10cm, then total surface area of cylinder is:
a. 440 sq.cm
b. 352 sq.cm.
c. 400 sq.cm
d. 412 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Total Surface Area of a Cylinder = 2πr(r + h)

TSA = 2 x 22/7 x 4(4 + 10)

= (2x22x4x14)/7

= (2x22x4x2)

= 352 sq.cm


6) The curved surface area of a right circular cylinder of height 14 cm is 88 cm2. The diameter of the base is:
a. 2 cm
b. 3cm
c. 4cm
d. 6cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (a)
Explanation: Curved surface area of cylinder = 88 sq.cm

Height = 14 cm

2πrh = 88

r = 88/2πh

r=1 cm

Diameter = 2r = 2cm


7) The Curved surface area of a right circular cylinder is 4.4 sq.cm. The radius of the base is 0.7 cm. The height of cylinder will be:
a. 2 cm
b. 3 cm
c. 1 cm
d. 1.5 cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Curved surface area of cylinder = 2πrh

2πrh = 4.4

h = 4.4/(2πx0.7)

h = 1m


8) Diameter of the base of a cone is 10.5 cm and its slant height is 10 cm. The curved surface area is:
a. 150 sq.cm
b. 165 sq.cm
c. 177 sq.cm
d. 180 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (b)
Explanation: Diameter = 10.5, Radius = 10.5/2

Slant height, l = 10cm

Curved surface area of cone = πrl = π(5.25)(10)

CSA = 165 sq.cm


9) If slant height of the cone is 21cm and diameter of base is 24 cm. The total surface area of cone is:
a. 1200.77 sq.cm
b. 1177 sq.cm
c. 1222.77 sq.cm
d. 1244.57 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (d)
Explanation: Total surface area = πr(l + r)

r = 24/2 = 12 cm

l = 21 cm

TSA = π12(21 + 12) = 1244.57 sq.cm


10) The surface area of a sphere of radius 14 cm is:
a. 1386 sq.cm
b. 1400 sq.cm
c. 2464 sq.cm
d. 2000 sq.cm

Answer/ Explanation

Answer: (c)
Explanation: Radius of sphere, r = 14 cm

Surface area = 4πr2

= 4 x 22/7 x (14)2 = 2464 sq.cm.


Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals

Free PDF Download of CBSE Accountancy Multiple Choice Questions for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals. Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 Chapter Wise with Answers PDF Download was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 12 Accountancy Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals MCQs Pdf with Answers to know their preparation level.

Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals Class 12 Accountancy MCQs Pdf

Select the Best Alternate and tally your answer with the Answers given at the end of the book:
(i) Features or Characteristics of Partnership
1. Features of a partnership firm are :
(A) Two or more persons are carrying common business under an agreement.
(B) They are sharing profits and losses in the fixed ratio.
(C) Business is carried by all or any of them acting tor all as an agent.
(D) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: D


2. Following are essential elements of a partnership firm except: (CPT; June 2012)
(A) At least two persons
(B) There is an agreement between all partners
(C) Equal share of profits and losses
(D) Partnership agreement is for some business.

Answer

Answer: C


3. In case of partnership the act of any partner is : (C.S. Foundation Dec. 2012)
(A) Binding on all partners
(B) Binding on that partner only
(C) Binding on all partners except that particular partner
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: A


4. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) a minor cannot be admitted as a partner
(B) a minor can be admitted as a partner, only into the benefits of the partnership
(C) a minor can be admitted as a partner but his rights and liabilities are same of adult partner
(D) none of the above

Answer

Answer: B


5. Oustensible partners are those who
(A) do not contribute any capital but get some share of profit for lending their name to the business
(B) contribute very less capital but get equal profit
(C) do not contribute any capital and without having any interest in the business, lend their name to the business
(D) contribute maximum capital of the business

Answer

Answer: C


6. Sleeping partners are those who
(A) take active part in the conduct of the business but provide no capital. However, salary is paid to them.
(B) do not take any part in the conduct of the business but provide capital and share profits and losses in the agreed ratio
(C) take active part in the conduct of the business but provide no capital. However, share profits and losses in the agreed ratio.
(D) do not take any part in the conduct of the business and contribute no capital. However, share profits and losses in the agreed ratio.

Answer

Answer: B


7. The relation of partner with the firm is that of:
(A) An Owner
(B) An Agent
(C) An Owner and an Agent
(D) Manager

Answer

Answer: C


8. What should be the minimum number of persons to form a Partnership :
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 10
(D) 20

Answer

Answer: A


9. Number of partners in a partnership firm may be :
(A) Maximum Two
(B) Maximum Ten
(C) Maximum One Hundred
(D) Maximum Fifty

Answer

Answer: D


10, Liability of partner is :
(A) Limited
(B) Unlimited
(C) Determined by Court
(D) Determined by Partnership Act

Answer

Answer: B


11. Which one of the following is NOT an essential feature of a partnership?
(A) There must be an agreement
(B) There must be a business
(C) The business must be carried on for profits
(D) The business must be carried on by all the partners

Answer

Answer: D


12. X, Y and Z are partners sharing profits and losses equally. Their capital balances on March, 31, 2012 are ₹80,000, ₹60,000 and ₹40,000 respectively. Their personal assets are worth as follows : X — ₹20,000, Y — ₹15,000 and Z — ₹10,000. The extent of their liability in the firm would be : (C.S. Foundation; June 2013)
(A) X — ₹80,000 : Y — ₹60,000 : and Z — ₹40,000
(B) X — ₹20,000 : Y — ₹15,000 : and Z — ₹10,000
(C) X — ₹1,00,000 : Y — ₹75,000 : and Z — ₹50,000
(D) Equal

Answer

Answer: B


13. Every partner is bound to attend diligently to his in the conduct of
the business.
(A) Rights
(B) Meetings
(C) Capital
(D) Duties

Answer

Answer: D


(ii) Partnership Deed
14. Forming a Partnership Deed is :
(A) Mandatory
(B) Mandatory in Writing
(C) Not Mandatory
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: C


15. Partnership Deed is also called
(A) Prospectus
(B) Articles of Association
(C) Principles of Partnership
(D) Articles of Partnership

Answer

Answer: D


16. Which of the following is not incorporated in the Partnership Act?
(A) profit and loss are to be shared equally
(B) no interest is to be charged on capital
(C) all loans are to be charged interest @6% p.a.
(D) all drawings are to be charged interest

Answer

Answer: D


17. When is the Partnership Act enforced?
(A) when there is no partnership deed
(B) where there is a partnership deed but there are differences of opinion between the partners
(C) when capital contribution by the partners varies
(D) when the partner’s salary and interest on capital are not incorporated in the partnership deed

Answer

Answer: A


18. In the absence of Partnership Deed, the interest is allowed on partner’s capital: (CPT; June 2011)
(A) @ 5% p.a.
(B) @ 6% p.a.
(C) @ 12% p.a.
(D) No interest is allowed

Answer

Answer: D


19. In the absence of a partnership deed, the allowable rate of interest on partner’s loan account will be :
(A) 6% Simple Interest
(B) 6% p.a. Simple Interest
(C) 12% Simple Interest
(D) 12% Compounded Annually

Answer

Answer: B


20. A and B are partners in partnership firm without any agreement. A has given a loan of ₹50,000 to the firm. At the end of year loss was incurred in the business. Following interest may be paid to A by the firm :
(A) @5% Per Annum
(B) @ 6% Per Annum
(C) @ 6% Per Month
(D) As there is a loss in the business, interest can’t be paid

Answer

Answer: B


21. A and B are partners in a pertnership firm without any agreement. A has withdrawn ?50,000 out of his Capital as drawings. Interest on drawings may be charged from A by the firm :
(A) @ 5% Per Annum
(B) @ 6% Per Annum
(C) @ 6% Per Month
(D) No interest can be charged

Answer

Answer: D


22. A and B are partners in a partnership firm without any agreement. A devotes more time for the firm as compare to B. A will get the following commission in addition to profit in the firm’s profit:
(A) 6% of profit
(B) 4% of profit
(C) 5% of profit
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: D


23. In the absence of partnership deed, the following rule will apply :
(A) No interest on capital
(B) Profit sharing in capital ratio
(C) Profit based salary to working partner
(D) 9% p.a. interest on drawings

Answer

Answer: A


24. In the absence of agreement, partners are not entitled to :
(A) Salary
(B) Commission
(C) Equal share in profit
(D) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: D


25. Interest on capital will be paid to the partners if provided for in the partnership deed but only out of: (C.S. Foundation; December, 2012)
(A) Profits
(B) Reserves
(C) Accumulated Profits
(D) Goodwill

Answer

Answer: A


26. Which one of the following items cannot be recorded in the profit and loss appropriation account?
(A) Interest on capital
(B) Interest on drawings
(C) Rent paid to partners
(D) Partner’s salary

Answer

Answer: C


27. If any loan or advance is provided by partner then, balance of such Loan Account should be transferred to :
(A) B/S Assets side
(B) B/S Liability Side
(C) Partner’s Capital A/c
(D) Partner’s Current A/c

Answer

Answer: B


28. A, B and C were Partners with capitals of ₹50,000; ₹40,000 and ? 30,000 respectively carrying on business in partnership. The firm’s reported profit for the year was ₹80,000. As per provision of the Indian Partnership Act, 1932, find out the share of each partner in the above amount after taking into account that no interest has been provided on an advance by A of ₹20,000 in addition to his capital contribution.
(A) ₹26,267 for Partner B and C and ₹27,466 for Partner A.
(B) ₹26,667 each partner.
(C) ₹33,333 for A ₹26,667 for B and ₹20,000 for C.
(D) ₹30,000 each partner.

Answer

Answer: A


29. X, Y, and Z are partners in a firm. At the time of division of profit for the year, there was dispute between the partners. .Profit before interest on partner’s capital was ₹6,000 and Y determined interest @24% p.a. on his loan of ₹80,000. There was no agreement on this point. Calculate the amount payable to X, Y, and Z respectively.
(A) ₹2,000 to each partner.
(B) Loss of ₹4,400 for X and Z; Twill take ₹14,800.
(C) ₹400 for A, ₹5,200 for Land ₹400 for Z.
(D) None of the above.

Answer

Answer: C


30. X, Y, and Z are partners in a firm. At the time of division of profit for the year, there was dispute between the partners. Profit before interest on partner’s capital was ₹6,00,000 and Z demanded minimum profit of ₹5,00,000 as his financial position was not good. However, there was no written agreement on this point.
(A) Other partners will pay Z the minimum profit and will share the loss equally.
(B) Other partners will pay Z the minimum profit and will share the loss in capital ratio.
(C) Xand T will take ₹50,000 each and Z will take ₹5,00,000.
(D) ₹2,00,000 to each of the partners.

Answer

Answer: D


31. On 1st June 2018 a partner introduced in the firm additional capital ₹50,000. In the absence of partnership deed, on 31st March 2019 he will receive interest :
(A) ₹3,000
(B) Zero
(C) ₹2,500
(D) ₹1,800

Answer

Answer: B


32. On 1st January 2019, a partner advanced a loan of ₹1,00,000 to the firm. In the absence of agreement, interest on loan on 31st March 2019 will be :
(A) Nil
(B) ₹1,500
(C) ₹3,000
(D) ₹6,000

Answer

Answer: B


33. A partner introduced additional capital of ₹30,000 and advanced a loan of ₹40,000 to the firm at the beginning of the year. Partner will receive year’s interest:
(A) ₹4,200
(B) ₹2,400
(C) Nil
(D) ₹1,800

Answer

Answer: B


34. In the absence of partnership deed, partners share profits or losses :
(A) In the ratio of their Capitals
(B) In the ratio decided by the court
(C) Equally
(D) In the ratio of time devoted

Answer

Answer: C


35. In the absence of Partnership Deed :
(A) Interest will not be charged on partner’s drawings
(B) Interest will be charged @. 5% p.a. on partner’s drawings
(C) Interest will be charged @ 6% p.a. on partner’s drawings
(D) Interest will be charged @ 12% p.a. on partner’s drawings

Answer

Answer: A


36. In the absence of express agreement, interest @ 6% p.a. is provided :
(A) On opening balance of partner’s capital accounts
(B) On closing balance of partner’s capital accounts
(C) On loan given by partners to the firm
(D) On opening balance of partner’s current accounts

Answer

Answer: C


37. Which of the following items are recorded in the Profit & Loss Appropriation Account of a partnership firm?
(A) Interest on Capital
(B) Salary to Partner
(C) Transfer to Reserve
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D


38. Is rent paid to a partner appropriation of profits?
(A) It is appropriation of profit
(B) It is not appropriation of profit
(C) If partner’s contribution as capital is maximum
(D) If partner is a working partner.

Answer

Answer: B


(iii) Calculation of Profit and Division of Profit among partners
39. According to Profit and Loss Account, the net profit for the year is ₹1,50,000. The total interest on partner’s capital is ₹18,000 and interest on partner’s drawings is ₹2,000. The net profit as per Profit and Loss Appropriation Account will be :
(A) ₹1,66,000
(B) ₹1,70,000
(C) ₹1,30,000
(D) ₹1,34,000

Answer

Answer: D


40. According to Profit and Loss Account, the net profit for the year is ₹4,20,000. Salary of a partner is ₹5,000 per month and the commission of another partner is ₹10,000. The interest on drawings of partners is ₹4,000. The net profit as per Profit and Loss Appropriation Account will be :
(A) ₹3,54,000
(B) ₹3,46,000
(C) ₹4,09,000
(D) ₹4,01,000

Answer

Answer: A


41. A and B are partners. According to Profit and Loss Account, the net profit for the year is ₹2,00,000. The total interest on partner’s drawings is ₹1,000. As salary is ₹40,000 per year and B’s salary is ₹3,000 per month. The net profit as per Profit and Loss Appropriation Account will be :
(A) ₹1,23,000
(B) ₹1,25,000
(C) ₹1,56,000
(D) ₹1,58,000

Answer

Answer: B


42. According to Profit and Loss Account, the net profit for the year is ₹1,40,000. The total interest on partner’s capital is? 8,000 and a partner is to be allowed commission of ₹5,000. The total interest on partner’s drawings is ₹1,200. The net profit as per Profit and Loss Appropriation Account will be :
(A) ₹1,28,200
(B) ₹1,44,200
(C) ₹1,25,800
(D) ₹1,41,800

Answer

Answer: A


43. Sangeeta and Ankita are partners in a firm. Sangeeta’s capital is ₹70,000 and Ankita’s Capital is ₹50.000. Firm’s profit is ₹60,000. Ankita share in profit will be :
(A) ₹25,000
(B) ₹3 0,000
(C) ₹35,000
(D) ₹20,00

Answer

Answer: B


44. A, B and C are partners. A’s capital is ₹3,00,000 and B’s capital is ₹1,00,000. C has not invested any amount as capital but he alone manages the whole business. C wants ?30,000 p.a. as salary. Firm earned a profit of ₹1,50,000. How much will be each partner’s share of profit:
(A) A ₹60,000; B ₹60,000; C ₹Nil
(B) A ₹90,000; B ₹30,000; C ₹Nil
(C) A ₹40,000; B ₹40,000 and C ₹40,000
(D) A ₹50,000; B ₹50,000 and C ₹50,000.

Answer

Answer: D


45. Net profit of a firm is ₹49,500. Manager is entitled to a commission of 10% on profits before charging his commission. Manager’s Commission will be :
(A) ₹4,950
(B) ₹4,500
(C) ₹5,500
(D) ₹495

Answer

Answer: A


46. Net profit of a firm is ₹79,800. Manager is entitled to a commission of 5% of profits after charging his commission. Manager’s Commission will be :
(A) ₹4,200
(B) ₹380
(C) ₹3,990
(D) ₹3,800

Answer

Answer: D


47. Ram and Shyam are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Before profit distribution, ‘ Ram is entitled to 5% commission of the net profit (after charging such commission). Before charging commission, firm’s profit was ₹42,000. Shyam’s share in profit will be :
(A) ₹16,000
(B) ₹24,000
(C) ₹26,000
(D) ₹16,400

Answer

Answer: A


48. A, B and C are partners in the ratio of 5 : 3 : 2. Before B’s salary of ₹17,000 firm’s profit is ₹97,000. How much in total B will receive from the firm?
(A) ₹17,000
(B) ₹40,000
(C) ₹24,000
(D) ₹41,000

Answer

Answer: D


Hint: Total amount received by die partner will be Salary + Share of Profit
49. A, B and C are partners in a firm without any agreement. They have contributed 750,000, 730,000 and 720,000 by way of capital in the firm. A was unable to work for six months in a year due to illness. At the end of year, firm earned a pro lit of 7 15,000. A’s share in the profit will be :
(A) 77.500
(B) 73,750
(C) 75,000
(D) 72,500

Answer

Answer: C


50. In a partnership lirm, partner A is entitled a monthly salary of ₹7,500. At the end of the year, firm earned a profit of ₹75,000 after charging T’s salary. If the manager is entitled a commission of 10% on the net profit after charging his commission, Manager’s commission will be :
(A) ₹7,500
(B) ₹16,500
(C) ₹8,250
(D) ₹15,000

Answer

Answer: D


51. Seeta and Geeta are partners sharing profits and losses in the ratio 4 : 1. Meeta was manager who received the salary of ₹4,000 p.m. in addition to a commission of 5% on net profits after charging such commission. Profit for the year is ₹6,78,000 before charging salary. Find the total remuneration of Meeta.
(A) ₹78,000
(B) ₹88,000
(C) ₹87,000
(D) ₹76,000

Answer

Answer: A


52. Which of the following statement is true?
(A) Fixed capital account will always have a credit balance
(B) Current account can have a positive or a negative balance
(C) Fluctuating capital account can have a positive or a negative balance
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D


(iv) Capital Accounts of Partners
53. Which accounts are opened when the capitals are fixed?
(A) Only Capital Accounts
(B) Only Current Accounts
(C) Capital Accounts as well as Current Accounts
(D) Either Capital Accounts or Current Accounts

Answer

Answer: C


54. Which accounts are opened when the capitals are fluctuating?
(A) Only Capital Accounts
(B) Only Current Accounts
(C) Capital Accounts as well as Current Accounts
(D) Either Capital Accounts or Current Accounts

Answer

Answer: A


55. Balance of partner’s current accounts are :
(A) Debit balance
(B) Credit balances
(C) Debit or Credit balances
(D) Neither Debit nor credit balances

Answer

Answer: C


56. Which item is recorded on the credit side of partner’s current accounts :
(A) Interest on Fanner’s Capitals
(B) Salaries of Partners
(C) Share of profits of Partners
(D) All of the Above

Answer

Answer: D


57. If the Partners’ Capital Accounts are fixed ‘salary payable to partner’ will be recorded :
(A) On the debit side of Partners’ Current Account
(B) On the debit side of Partners’ Capital Account
(C) On the credit side of Partners’ Current Account
(D) None of the above

Answer

Answer: C


58. It the Partner’s Capital Accounts are fixed, interest on capital will be recorded:
(A) On the credit side of Current Account
(B) On the credit side of Capital Account
(C) On the debit side of Current Account
(D) On the debit side of Capital Account

Answer

Answer: A


59. If the Partner’s Capital Accounts are fluctuating, in that case following item/items will be recorded in the credit side of capital accounts :
(A) Interest on capital
(B) Salary of partners
(C) Commission of partners
(D) All of the above

Answer

Answer: D


60. Interest on partner’s capitals will be debited to :
(A) Profit and Loss Account
(B) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) Partner’s Capital Accounts
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: B


61. Interest on partner’s capitals will be credited to :
(A) Profit and Loss Account
(B) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) Interest Account
(D) Partner’s Capital Accounts

Answer

Answer: D


62. For the firm interest on drawings is
(A) Capital Payment
(B) Expenses
(C) Capital Receipt
(D) Income

Answer

Answer: D


63. Interest on Partner’s drawings will be debited to :
(A) Profit and Loss Account
(B) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) Partner’s Current Account
(D) Interest Account

Answer

Answer: C


64. When partners’ capital accounts are floating, which one of the following items will be written on the credit side of the partners’ capital accounts? :
(A) Interest on drawings
(B) Loan advanced by partner to the firm
(C) Partner’s share in the firm’s loss
(D) Salary to the activ e partners

Answer

Answer: D


65. When partners’ capital accounts are fixed, which one of the following items will be written in the partner’s capital account? :
(A) Partner’s Drawings
(B) Additional capital introduced by the partner in the firm
(C) Loan taken by partner from the firm
(D) Loan Advanced by partner to the firm

Answer

Answer: B


66. Interest on partner’s drawings will be credited to
(A) Profit and Loss Account
(B) Profit and Loss Appropriation Account
(C) Partner’s Capital Accounts
(D) None of the Above

Answer

Answer: B


67. For the firm interest on capital is :
(A) Capital Payment
(B) Capital Receipt
(C) Loss
(D) Income

Answer

Answer: C


(v) Interest on Capital
68. On 1st April 2018, 2fs Capital was ₹2,00,000. On 1st October 2018, he introduces additional capital of ₹1,00,000. Interest on capital @ 6% p.a. on 31st March, 2019 will be :
(A) ₹9,000
(B) ₹18,000
(C) ₹10,500
(D) ₹15,000

Answer

Answer: D


69. Xand Y are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals are ?2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. Interest on capitals is allowed @ 8% p.a. Firm earned a profit of ?60,000 for the year ended 31st March 2019. Interest on Capital will be :
(A) X ₹16,000; Y ₹8,000
(B) V ₹8.000; Y ₹4,000
(C) X ₹14,400; Y ₹9,600
(D) No Interest will be allowed

Answer

Answer: A


70. X and Y are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals are ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. Interest on capitals is allowed @ 8% p.a. Firm earned a profit of ₹15,000 for the year ended 31st March 2019. Interest on Capital will be :
(A) X ₹16,000; Y ₹8,000
(B) X ₹9,000; Y ₹6,000
(C) X ₹10,000; Y ₹5,000
(D) No Interest will be allowed

Answer

Answer: C


71. X and Y are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals are ?2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. Interest on capitals is allowed @ 8% p.a. Firm incurred a loss of ₹60,000 for the year ended 31st March 2019. Interest on Capital will be :
(A) X ₹16,000; Y ₹8,000
(B) A ₹8,000; Y ₹4,000
(C) X ₹14,400; Y ₹9,600
(D) No Interest will be allowed

Answer

Answer: D


72. X and Y are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their capitals are ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. Interest on capitals is allowed @ 8% p.a. Firm earned a profit of ₹15,000 for the year ended 31st March 2019. As per partnership agreement, interest on capital is treated a charge on profits. Interest on Capital will be :
(A) X ₹16,000; Y ₹8,000
(B) X ₹9,000; Y ₹6,000
(C) X ₹10,000; Y ₹5,000
(D) No Interest will be allowed

Answer

Answer: A


73. A and B contribute ₹1,00,000 and ?₹60,000 respectively in a partnership firm by way of capital on which they agree to allow interest @ 8% p.a. Their profit or loss sharing ratio is 3 : 2. The profit at the end of the year was ₹2,800 before allowing interest on capital. If there is a clear agreement that interest on capital will be paid even in case of loss, then S’s share will be:
(A) Profit ₹6,000
(B) Profit ₹4,000
(C) Loss ₹6,000
(D) Loss ₹4,000

Answer

Answer: D


(vi) [nterest on Drawings
74. Partners are suppose to pay interest on drawing only when by the
(A) Provided, Agreement
(B) Permitted, Investors
(C) Agreed, Partners
(D) ‘A’ & ‘C’ above

Answer

Answer: D


75. Where will you record interest on drawings : (CPT; June 2011)
(A) Debit Side of Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
(B) Credit Side of Profit & Loss Appropriation Account
(C) Credit Side of Profit & Loss Account
(D) Debit Side of Capital/Current Account only.

Answer

Answer: B


76. How would you close the Partner’s Drawing Account:
(A) By transfer to Capital or Current Account Debit Side.
(B) By transfer to Capital Account Credit Side.
(C) By transfer to Current Account Credit Side.
(D) Either ‘B‘ or ‘C’.

Answer

Answer: A


77. If date of drawings of the partner’s is not given in the question, interest is charged for how much time
(A) 1 month
(B) 3 months
(C) 6 months
(D) 12 months

Answer

Answer: C


78. Vikas is a partner in a firm. His drawings during the year ended 31st March, 2019 were ?72,000. If interest on drawings is charged @ 9% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹324
(B) ₹6,480
(C) ₹3,240
(D) ₹648

Answer

Answer: C


79. If a fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner on the first day of every month, interest on the total amount is charged for …………… months :
(A) 6
(B) 61/2
(C) 51/2
(D) 12

Answer

Answer: B


80. If a fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner on the last day of every month, interest on the total amount is charged for …………… months :
(A) 12
(B) 6 1/2
(C) 5 1/2
(D) 6

Answer

Answer: C


81. If a fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner in the middle of every month, interest on the total amount is charged for …………… months
(A) 6
(B) 6 1/2
(C) 5 1/2
(D) 12

Answer

Answer: A


82. In a partnership firm, a partner withdrew ₹5,000 per month on the first day of every month during the year for personal expenses. If interest on drawings is charged @ 6% p.a. the interest charged will be : (C.S. Foundation, Dec. 2012)
(A) ₹3,600
(B) ₹1,950
(C) ₹1,800
(D) ₹1,650

Answer

Answer: B


83. Ajay is a partner in a firm. He withdrew ₹2,000 per month on the last day of every month during the year ended 31st March, 2019. If interest on drawings is charged @ 9% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹990
(B) ₹1,080
(C) ₹1,170
(D) ₹2,160

Answer

Answer: A


84. Sushil is a partner in a firm. He withdrew ₹4,000 per month in the middle of every month during the year ended 31st March, 2019. If interest on drawings is charged @ 8% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹2,080
(B) ₹1,760
(C) ₹3,840
(D) ₹1,920

Answer

Answer: D


85. If fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner on the first day of each quarter, interest on the total amount is charged for …………….. months
(A) 4.5
(B) 6
(C) 7.5
(D) 3

Answer

Answer: C


86. If a fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner on the last day of each quarter, interest on the total amount is charged for ……………… months
(A) 6
(B) 4.5
(C) 7.5
(D) 3

Answer

Answer: B


87. If a fixed amount is withdrawn by a partner in each quarter, interest on the total amount is charged for ……………….. months
(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4.5
(D) 7.5

Answer

Answer: B


88. Anuradha is a partner in a firm. She withdrew ₹6,000 in the beginning of each quarter during the year ended 31st March, 2019. Interest on her drawings @ 10% p.a. will be :
(A) ₹900
(B) ₹1,200
(C) ₹1,500
(D) ₹600

Answer

Answer: C


89. Bipasa is a partner in a firm. She withdrew ₹6,000 at the end of each quarter during the year ended 31st March, 2019. Interest on her drawings @ 10% p.a. will be :
(A) ₹900
(B) ₹600
(C) ₹1,500
(D) ₹1,200

Answer

Answer: A


90. Charulata is a partner in a firm. She withdrew ₹10,000 in each quarter during the year ended 31st March, 2019. Interest on her drawings @ 9% p.a. will be:
(A) ₹1,350
(B) ₹2,250
(C) ₹900
(D) ₹1,800

Answer

Answer: D


91. If equal amount is withdrawn by a partner in the beginning of each month during a period of 6 months, interest on the total amount will be charged for ……………… months
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 3.5
(D) 6

Answer

Answer: C


92. If equal amount is withdrawn by a partner in the end of each month during a period of 6 months, interest on the total amount will be charged for ………………… months
(A) 2.5
(B) 3
(C) 3.5
(D) 6

Answer

Answer: A


93. If equal amount is withdrawn by a partner in each month during a period of 6 months, interest on the total amount will be charged for …………… months
(A) 6
(B) 3
(C) 2.5
(D) 3.5

Answer

Answer: B


94. X is a partner in a firm. He withdrew regularly ₹1,000 at the beginning of every month for the six months ending 31st March, 2019. If interest on drawings is charged @ 8% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹240
(B) ₹140
(C) ₹100
(D) ₹120

Answer

Answer: B


95. Y is a partner in a firm. He withdrew regularly ₹3,000 at the end of every month for the six months ending 31st March, 2019. If interest on drawings is charged @ 10% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹375
(B) ₹450
(C) ₹525
(D) ₹900

Answer

Answer: A


96. Z is a partner in a firm. He withdrew regularly ?2,000 every month for the six months ending 31st March, 2019. If interest on drawings is charged @ 8% p.a. the interest charged will be :
(A) ₹480
(B) ₹280
(C) ₹200
(D) ₹240

Answer

Answer: D


97. A partner withdraws ₹8,000 each on 1st April and 1st Oct. Interest on his drawings @ 6% p.a. on 31 st March will be :
(A) ₹480
(B) ₹720
(C) ₹240
(D) ₹960

Answer

Answer: B


98. A partner draws ₹2,000 each on 1st April 2018, 1st July 2018, 1st October, 2018 and 1st January 2019. For the year ended 31st March, 2019 interest on drawings @ 8% per annum will be :
(A) ₹540
(B) ₹320
(C) ₹960
(D) ₹400

Answer

Answer: D


99. A partner withdraws from firm ₹7,000 at the end of each month. At the rate of 6% per annum total interest will be :
(A) ₹5,040
(B) ₹2,310
(C) ₹3,570
(D) ₹1,370

Answer

Answer: B


(vii) Adjustments in the Closed Accounts
100. Anu and Tanu are equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st – March, 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals @ 8% p.a. was omitted to be provided. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Anu will be credited by ₹16,000 and Tanu will be credited by ₹8,000
(B) Anu will be debited by ₹16,000 and Tanu will be debited by ₹8,000
(C) Anu will be credited by ₹4,000 and Tanu will be debited by ₹4,000
(D) Anu will be debited by ₹4,000 and Tanu will be credited by ₹4,000

Answer

Answer: C


101. Sony and Romy are equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹4,00,000 and ₹3,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March, 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 8% instead of 10% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Sony will be credited by ₹8,000 and Romy will be credited by ₹6,000.
(B) Sony will be debited by ₹8,000 and Romy will be debited by ₹6,000.
(C) Sony will be debited by ₹1,000 and Romy will be credited by ₹1,000.
(D) Sony will be credited by ₹1,000 and Romy will be debited by ₹1,000.

Answer

Answer: D


102. Asha and Vipasha are equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹5,00,000 and ₹2,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 6% instead of 5% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Asha will be debited by ₹1,500 and Vipasha will be credited by ₹1,500;
(B) Asha will be credited by ₹1,500 and Vipasha will be debited by ₹1,500;
(C) Asha will be debited by ₹5,000 and Vipasha will be debited by ₹2,000;
(D) Asha will be credited by ₹5,000 and Vipasha will be credited by ₹2,000;

Answer

Answer: A


103. P and Q sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 have fixed capitals of ₹90,000 and f60,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 6% instead of 8% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) P will be credited by ₹1,800 and Q will be credited by ₹1,200;
(B) P will be debited by ₹200 and Q will be credited by ₹200;
(C) P will be credited by ₹200 and Q will be debited by ₹200;
(D) P will be debited by ₹1,800 and Q will be debited by ₹1,200;

Answer

Answer: B


104. A and B sharing profits in the ratio of 7 : 3 have fixed capitals of ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 12% instead of 10% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) A will be debited by ₹4,000 and B will be debited by ₹2,000;
(B) A will be credited by ₹4,000 and B will be credited by ₹2,000;
(C) A will be debited by ₹200 and B will be credited by ₹200;
(D) A will be credited by ₹200 and B will be debited by ₹200;

Answer

Answer: D


105. Xand 7are partners in the ratio of 3 : 2. Their fixed capitals are ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. After clsoing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019, it was discovered that interest on capital was allowed @ 12% instead of 10% per annum. By how much amount A will be debited/credited in the adjustment entry :
(A) ₹600 (Debit)
(B) ₹400 (Credit)
(C) ₹400 (Debit)
(D) ₹600 (Credit)

Answer

Answer: C


106. X, Y and Z are equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹2,00,000, ₹3,00,000 and ?4,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals @ 8% p.a. was omitted to be provided. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Dr. X and Cr. Y by ₹8,000
(B) Cr. X and Dr. Z by ₹8,000
(C) Dr. X and Cr. Z by ₹8.000
(D) Cr. X and Dr. Y by ₹8,000

Answer

Answer: C


107. P, Q and R arc equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹5,00,000, ₹4,00,000 and ₹3,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 7% instead of 9% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) P will be credited by ₹2,000 and Q will be debited by ₹2,000.
(B) P will be debited by ₹2,000 and Q will be credited by ₹2,000.
(C) P will be debited by ₹2,000 and R will be credited by ₹2,000.
(D) P will be credited by ₹2,000 and R will be debited by ₹2,000.

Answer

Answer: D


108. X, 7and Z are equal partners with fixed capitals of ₹5,00,000, ?3,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 6% instead of 5% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Dr. X and Cr. Z by ₹2,000
(B) Cr. X and Dr. Z by ₹2,000
(C) Dr. X and Cr. Y by ₹2,000
(D) Cr. X and Dr. Y by ₹2,000

Answer

Answer: A


109. P, Q, and R sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 1 : 1 have fixed capitals of f4,00,000, ₹3,00,000 and ₹2,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 6% instead of 8% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Cr. P ₹1,000; Dr. Q ₹1,500 and Cr. R ₹500
(B) Dr. P ₹500; Cr. Q ₹1,500 and Dr. R ₹1,000
(C) Cr. P ₹500; Dr. Q ₹1,500 and Cr. R ₹1,000
(D) Dr. P ₹1,000; Cr. Q ₹1,500 and Dr. R ₹500

Answer

Answer: D


110. A, B and C sharing profits in the ratio of 2 : 2 : 1 have fixed capitals of ₹3,00,000, ₹2,00,000 and ₹1,00,000 respectively. After closing the accounts for the year ending 31st March 2019 it was discovered that interest on capitals was provided @ 12% instead of 10% p.a. In the adjusting entry :
(A) Cr. A ₹1,200; Dr. B ₹800 and Dr. C ₹400
(B) Dr. A ₹1,200; Cr. B ₹800 and Cr. C ₹400
(C) Cr. A ₹800; Cr. B ₹400 and Dr. C ₹1,200
(D) Dr. A ₹800; Dr. B ₹400 and Cr. C ₹1,200

Answer

Answer: B


111. X, Y, and Z are partners in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. Salary to X ₹15,000 and to Z ₹3,000 omitted and profits distributed. For rectification, now X will be credited :
(A) ₹15,000
(B) ₹1,000
(C) ₹12,000
(D) ₹7,000

Answer

Answer: D


(viii) Guarantee of Profit to a Partner
112. When a partner is given guarantee by other partners, loss on such guarantee will be borne by :
(A) Partnership firm
(B) All the other partners
(C) Partners who give the guarantee
(D) Partner with highest profit sharing ratio.

Answer

Answer: C


113. Guarantee given to partner ‘A’ by the other partners ‘B & C’ means :
(A) In case of loss, ‘A’ will not contribute towards that loss.
(B) In case of insufficient profits, ‘A’ will receive only the minimum guarantee amount.
(C) In case of loss or insufficient profits, ‘A’ will withdraw the minimum guarantee amount.
(D) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: C


114. P, Q and R are partners in a firm in 3 : 2 : 1. R is guaranteed that he will get minimum of ₹20,000 as his share of profit every year. Firm’s profit was ₹90,000. Partners will get:
(A) P ₹40,000; Q ₹30,000; R ₹20,000;
(B) P ₹42,500; Q ₹27,500; R ₹20,000;
(C) P ₹45,000; Q ₹30,000; R ₹15,000;
(D) P ₹42,000; Q ₹28,000; R ₹20,000;

Answer

Answer: D


115. A, Y and Z are partners in the ratio of 5 : 4 : 3. A has given to Za guarantee of minimum ₹10,000 profit. For the year ending 31st March 2019, firm’s profit is ₹28,800. Js share in profit will be :
(A) ₹9,200
(B) ₹9,600
(C) ₹7,200
(D) ₹12,000

Answer

Answer: A


116. E, Fand G share profits in the ratio of 4 : 3 : 2. G is given a guarantee that his share of profits will not be less than ₹75,000. Deficiency if any, would be borne by E and F equally Firm’s profit was ₹2,70,000. As share of profit will be :
(A) ₹90,000
(B) ₹82,500
(C) ₹97,500
(D) ₹75,000

Answer

Answer: B


117. X, Y, and Z are partners in the ratio of 6 : 4 : 1. In the firm, A has guaranteed Z for his minimum profit of ₹15,000. Firm’s profit was ₹99,000. In the firm profit As share will be :
(A) ₹30,000
(B) ₹15,000
(C) ₹48,000
(D) ₹45,000

Answer

Answer: C


118. P, Q, and R are partners in 3 : 2 : 1. R is guaranteed that his share of profit will not be less than ₹70,000. Any deficiency will be borne by P and Q in the ratio of 2 : 1. Firm’s profit was ₹2,40,000. Share of P will be :
(A) ₹1,00,000
(B) ₹1,10,000
(C) ₹1,20,000
(D) ₹1,02,000

Answer

Answer: A


119. A Y and Z are partners in 5 : 4 : 1. Z is guaranteed that his share of profit will not be less than ₹80,000. Any deficiency will be borne by A and Y in 3 : 2. Firm’s profit was ₹5,60,000. How much deficiency will be borne by Y :
(A) ₹2,14,400
(B) ₹14,400
(C) ₹2,09,600
(D) ₹9,600

Answer

Answer: D


120. P and Q are partners sharing profits in the ratio of 1 : 2. R was manager who received the salary of ₹10,000 p.m. in addition to commission of 10% on net profits after charging such commission. Total remuneration to R amounted to ₹1,80,000. Profit for the year before charging salary and commission was :
(A) ₹7,20,000
(B) ₹6,00,000
(C) ₹7,80,000
(D) ₹6,60,000

Answer

Answer: C


121. X and Y are partners. X draws a fixed amount at the beginning of every month. Interest on drawings is charged @8% p.a. At the end of the year interest on X’s drawings amounts to *₹2,600. Drawings of A’were :
(A) ₹8,000 p.m.
(B) ₹7,000 p.m.
(C) ₹6,000 p.m.
(D) ₹5,000 p.m.

Answer

Answer: D


122. A and B are partners. B draws a fixed amount at the end of every month. Interest on drawings is charged @15% p.a. At the end of the year interest on B’s drawings amounts to ₹8,250. Drawings of B were :
(A) ₹12,000 p.m.
(B) ₹10,000 p.m.
(C) ₹9,000 p.m.
(D) ₹8,000 p.m.

Answer

Answer: B


123. A and B are partners with a profit-sharing ratio of 2 : 1 and capitals of ₹3,00,000 and ₹2,00,000 respectively. They are allowed 6% p.a. interest on their capitals and are charged 10% p.a. interest on their drawings. Their drawings during the year were A ₹60,000 and B ₹40,000. B’s share of net profit as per profit and loss appropriation account amounted to ₹40,000. Net Profit of the firm before any appropriations was :
(A) ₹1,22,000
(B) ₹1,13,000
(C) ₹1,17,000
(D) ₹1,45,000

Answer

Answer: D


124. A and B are partners in a firm. They are entitled to interest on their capitals but the net profit was not sufficient for this interest, then the net profit will be distributed among partners in : (CPT, Dec. 2012)
(A) Agreed Ratio
(B) Profit Sharing Ratio
(C) Capital Ratio
(D) Equally

Answer

Answer: C


We hope the given Accountancy MCQs for Class 12 with Answers Chapter 1 Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 12 Accountancy Accounting for Partnership Firms — Fundamentals MCQs Pdf, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.