MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Resource and Development with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Resource and Development Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 1 Resource and Development

1. Which one of the following soils is ideal for growing cotton?[CBSE 2011]
(a) Regur soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Desert soil
(d) Mountainous soil

Answer

Answer: a


2. Soil is formed by the process of
(a) Denudation
(b) Gradation
(c) Weathering
(d) Erosion

Answer

Answer: c


3. Land left without cultivation for one or less than one agricultural year is called
(a) Culturable waste land
(b) Current fallow land
(c) Waste land
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


4. “There is enough for everybody’s need but not for anybody’s greed”. Who said this?
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru
(b) Atal Bihari Vajpai
(c) M. K. Gandhi
(d) Sunder Lai Bahuguna

Answer

Answer: c


5. Resources which are surveyed and their quantity and quality have been determined for utilisation are known as [CBSE 2011]
(a) Potential resources
(b) Stock
(c) Developed resources
(d) Reserves

Answer

Answer: c


6. Which one of the following statements is correct as regard to international resources?
(a) Resources which are regulated by international institutions.
(b) Resources which lie beyond the territorial waters.
(c) Resources which are found along the international frontier.
(d) Resources which are not yet developed.

Answer

Answer: a


7. The first International Earth Summit was held in
(a) Geneva
(b) New York
(c) Japan
(d) Rio de Janeiro

Answer

Answer: d


8. The most widespread relief feature of India is
(a) Mountains
(b) Forests
(c) Plains
(d) Plateaus

Answer

Answer: c


9. Resources which are found in a region, but have not been utilised
(a) Renewable
(b) Developed
(c) National
(d) Potential

Answer

Answer: d


10. Which one of the following statements is true about the term resources?[CBSE 2011]
(a) Resources are free gifts of nature.
(b) They are the functions of human activities.
(c) All those things which are found in nature.
(d) Things which cannot be used to fulfill our needs.

Answer

Answer: b


11. The red soil is red in colour because
(a) it is rich in humus.
(b) it is rich in iron compounds.
(c) it is derived from volcanic origin.
(d) it is rich in potash.

Answer

Answer: b


12. Soil formed by intense leaching is
(a) Alluvial soil
(b) Red soil
(c) Laterite soil
(d) Desert

Answer

Answer: c


13. Which one of the following type of resource is iron ore? (Textbook)
(a) Renewable
(b) Biotic
(c) Flow
(d) Non-renewable

Answer

Answer: d


14. Under which of the following type of resource can tidal energy be put? (Textbook)
(a) Replenishable
(b) Human-made
(c) Abiotic
(d) Non-renewable

Answer

Answer: a


15. Which one of the following is the main cause of land degradation in Punjab? (Textbook)
(a) Intensive cultivation
(b) Deforestation
(c) Over-irrigation
(d) Overgrazing

Answer

Answer: c


16. In which one of the following States is terrace cultivation practised? (Textbook)
(a) Punjab
(b) Plains of Uttar Pradesh
(c) Haryana
(d) Uttaranchal

Answer

Answer: d


17. In which of the following States is black soil found? (Textbook)
(a) Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Gujarat
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Jharkhand

Answer

Answer: b


18. What percentage of our land should be under forest according to the National Forest Policy (1952)?
(a) 33
(b) 22.5
(c) 31
(d) 30

Answer

Answer: a


19. Materials in the environment which have the potential to satisfy human needs but human beings do not have appropriate technology to access them are called:
(a) Potential resource
(b) Stock
(c) Developed resource
(d) Reserves

Answer

Answer: b


20. India’s territorial water extends upto a distance of:
(a) 12 km
(b) 12 nautical miles
(c) 19.2 miles
(d) 200 nautical miles

Answer

Answer: b


21. Resources that take long geological time for their formation are called:
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Reserve
(c) Community resources
(d) Non-renewable resources

Answer

Answer: d


22. Land that is left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years is called:
(a) Pasture land
(b) Culturable waste land
(c) Barren land
(d) Current fallow

Answer

Answer: b


23. Area sown more than once in an agricultural year plus net sown area is known as:
(n) Net sown area
(b) Forest cover
(c) Waste land
(d) Gross cropped area

Answer

Answer: d


24. The total degraded land in our country is:
(a) 133 million hectares
(b) 130 million sq. km.
(c) 140 million hectares
(d) 130 million hectares

Answer

Answer: d


25. In which of the following States mining has caused severe land degradation?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Kerala
(d) Uttaranchal

Answer

Answer: b


26. The main cause of land degradation in Punjab, Haryana and Western Uttar Pradesh is:
(a) Mining
(b) Over irrigation
(c) Deforestation
(d) Over grazing

Answer

Answer: b


27. Which is the most common soil of Northern India?
(a) Black soil
(b) Laterite soil
(c) Alluvial soil
(d) Red soil

Answer

Answer: c


28. Red soil is mostly found in:
(a) Parts of Jammu & Kashmir
(b) Upper Ganga Plains
(c) Eastern and Southern part of Deccan Plateau
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


29. Red soil is reddish in colour due to:
(a) high clay content
(b) presence of kankar nodules in the subsoil
(c) diffusion of iron in igneous and metamorphic rocks
(d) high moisture content

Answer

Answer: c


30. Which of the following is not important for soil formation?
(a) Relief
(b) Parent rock
(c) Climate
(d) Duration of day

Answer

Answer: d


31. Black soil is also called:
(a) Bangar
(b) Khadar
(c) Regur
(d) Humus

Answer

Answer: c


32. Black soils are common in:
(a) Deccan trap region
(b) Kashmir Valley
(c) Ganga Valley
(d) Northern Plains

Answer

Answer: a


33. Laterite soil is very useful for growing:
(a) Rice, wheat and mustard
(b) Tea, coffee and cashewnut
(c) Pulses, sugarcane and resin
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


34. Black soil is deficient in
(a) Calcium carbonate
(b) Magnesium
(c) Potash
(d) Phosphoric contents

Answer

Answer: d


35. Which of the following soils has self-aeration capacity?
(a) Alluvial
(b) Red soil
(c) Black soil
(d) Mountain soil

Answer

Answer: c


36. Ploughing along the contour lines to decelerate the flow of water down the slopes is called:
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Sheet erosion
(c) Contour ploughing
(d) Terrace cultivation

Answer

Answer: c


37. Which of the following is not a measure for soil conservation?
(a) Strip cropping
(b) Terrace cultivation
(c) Shelter belts
(d) Overdrawing of ground water

Answer

Answer: d


38. ___________ and ___________ are the methods of soil conservation in hilly areas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Terrace farming and contour ploughing


39. Old alluvial soil is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: hangar


40. ___________ is a method of growing rows of trees in arid regions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Shelter belts


41. ___________ soil has high water retaining capacity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Black


42. Land consisting of many gullies and ravines are called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: bad lands


43. Landuse pattern of India is lopsided. (True/F alse)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


44. The Alluvial Soil is the most widespread soil of India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


45. Red soils are found in Thar Desert. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


46. Fossil fuels are examples of non-recyclable resources. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


47. Protection of soil from erosion is called soil conservation. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


48. Solar energy is an example of non-recyclable resource. (True/F alse)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


49. Matching the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Uppermost layer of soil (i) Black soil
(b) New alluvial (ii) Topsoil
(c) Regur soil (iii) Over grazing
(d) Land with many gullies  and ravines (iv) Khadar
(e) Land (v) Bad Land degradation
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (v)
(e) (iii)


50. What is a resource?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Anything which can be used for satisfying the human needs is called a resource.


51. What does the process of transformation of things in nature involve?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The process of transformation in nature involves an interactive between nature, technology and institutions by human beings.


52. How does man develop the resources?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Man develops resources according to his needs and aspirations, his technical skill along with its economics feasibility and cultural acceptance.


53. What are the two main types of resources?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two main types are:-
(a) Natural Resources
(b) Human resources


54. Classify resources on the basis of origin along with an example?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
On the basis of origin the resources can be divided into
(a) Biotic e.g. Flora and Fauna.
(b) Abiotic resources e.g. rocks and metals


55. Classify resources on the basis of exhaustibility?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
On the basis of exhaustibility the resources are divided into
(a) Renewable resources
(b) Non-renewable resources.


56. How are the renewable resources further divided?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The renewable resources are divided into
(a) Continuous or flow e.g. wind and water
(b) Biological resources e.g. Natural vegetation and wildlife


57. How are the non-renewable resources divided?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The non-renewable resources are divided into
(a) Recyclable e.g. metals
(b) Non-recyclable e.g. fossil fuels


58. How are the resources classified on the basis of ownership?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
On the basis of ownership the resources are divided into
(a) Individual
(b) Community
(c) Natural
(d) International


59. Name any two community owned resources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Village commons like grazing grounds, burrial grounds, village ponds, public parks, picnic spots, play grounds. (any two)


60. To what distance do the territorial waters of India extend?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The territorial waters of India extend upto 12 nautical miles (22.2 km) from the coast.


61. What are international resources?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
International resources are the resources which belong to all human race and cannot be used by any country without an agreement with international institutions.


62. What is the importance of resources?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Resources are important for human survival as well as for maintaining quality of life.


63. Which is a special feature of the sustainable development?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Development should take place without damaging the environment.


64. What is the full form of UNCED?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
United Nations Conference on Environment and Development


65. What is resource planning?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Judicious use of resources is known as resource planning.


66. Absence of which two components can hinder development of an area?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Corresponding changes in technology and institutional development.


67. What were the main causes for colonisation of the countries of Asia and Africa by foreign invaders?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The main causes were the rich resources in these colonies and higher level of technological development of the colonising countries.


68. Why is conservation of resources important?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Conservation is important as resources are used for developmental activities.


69. What is the result of irrational consumption and non-utilisation of resources?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It results in socio-economic and environmental problems.


70. What does land as a natural resource support?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Land as a natural resource supports:
(a) Natural vegetation
(b) Wildlife
(c) Human life
(d) Economic activities
(e) Transport and communication systems. (any two)


71. Define culturable waste land.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The land left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years.


72. What is the area brought under cultivation in a year called?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Net sown area


73. List any two factors that determine the land use.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Physical factors — Topography, climate, soil type.
Human factors — Population density, technological capability, culture, traditions, etc.


74. According to the National Forest Policy, what should be the percentage of forest area in a country?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 33%


75. What does the waste land include?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It includes rocky, desert and acid areas and land put to non-agricultural uses like settlements roads, railways, industry, etc.


76. Which factor is responsible for maximum land degradation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Human activities


77. What has caused severe land degradation in states like Jharkhand and chhattisgarh?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Deforestation due to mining.


78. How does over irrigation lead to land degradation.
Or
How is over irrigation responsible for land degradation in Punjab? [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Over irrigation leads to water logging that increases salinity and alkalinity in the sail that results in land degradation.


79. How does mineral processing degrades the land?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Processing of minerals generate huge quantity of dust that settles down on the land and restricts the process of infiltration into the soil.


80. Which soil is the best for cotton cultivation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Black soil


81. What gives red and yellow colour to red and yellow soil?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Red and yellow soil develops a reddish colour due to diffusion of iron in crystalline and metamorphic rocks. It looks yellow when it occurs in a hydrated form.


82. Where does the laterite soil develop?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Laterite soil develops under tropical and subtropical climate with alternate wet and dry season.


83. What is the name of the soil formed by intense leaching? List any two important characteristics of this soil.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Laterite soil is formed by intense leaching. Laterite soils are mostly deep to very deep, acidic, generally deficient in plant nutrients.


84. Name the two crops which can be grown in laterite soil after adopting soil conservation technique.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Tea and Coffee


85. What type of soil develops due to high temperature and evaporation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Arid Soil


86. What restricts water infiltration into the arid soils?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Foundation of Kankar layers restricts water infiltration into the arid soils.


87. Name the natural forces which lead to soil erosion.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The natural forces which lead to soil erosion are wind, glacier and water.


88. What are gullies?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The running water cuts through clayey soils and makes deep channels, called gullies.


89. What are bad lands?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Due to the formation of gullies, the land becomes unfit for cultivation and is known as bad land.


90. What is a ravine?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A ravine is a deep narrow valley on earth’s surface formed by running water, e.g. Chambal ravine in Madhya Pradesh.


91. What is sheet erosion?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sometimes water flows as a sheet over large area down the slope. In such cases the top soil washes away. It is called sheet erosion.


92. What method is used to break up the force of wind?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Strip Cropping


93. What resources can be acquired by a nation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National resources can be acquired by a nation.


94. Explain the term wasteland.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Wasteland includes rocky, arid and desert areas and land put to non-agricultural use like settlements, roads and railways.


95. What is culturable wasteland?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the land left uncultivated for more than five agricultural years.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Resource and Development with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 1 Resource and Development Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Gender Religion and Caste with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Gender Religion and Caste Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste

1. ‘Feminist movements’ are aimed at: [CBSE 2011]
(a) Liberty
(b) Equality
(c) Participation
(d) Power

Answer

Answer: b


2. Which one of the following is not a cause of communalism? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Religion is taken as the basis of the nation
(b) When one religion is discriminated against other
(c) State has no official religion
(d) Demands of one religious group are formed in opposition to another

Answer

Answer: c


3. Which of the following divisions is unique to India? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Gender division
(b) Caste division
(c) Economic division
(d) Religious division

Answer

Answer: b


4. Select the laws enacted by the Parliament for the welfare of women.
(a) Special Marriage Act of 1955
(b) Dowry Prohibition Act of 1961
(c) Equal Remuneration Act of 1976
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: d


5. Women in India are discriminated in;
(a) Political life
(b) Social life
(c) Economic life
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


6. “Sexual Division of labour signifies, that
(i) Gender division emphasises division on the basis of nature of work.
(ii) Division between men and women.
(iii) Caste is the basis of Gender Division.
(iv) Work decides the division between men and women.
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (z’v)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iv) and (i)

Answer

Answer: b


7. In local self-government institutions, atleast one third of all positions are reserved for: [CBSE 2011]
(a) men
(b) women
(c) children
(d) scheduled tribes

Answer

Answer: b


8. “A woman or a man who believes in equal rights and opportunities for men and women.” Select the correct option for the definition.
(a) Feminist
(b) Patriarchy
(c) Caste hierarchy
(d) Social change

Answer

Answer: a


9. ‘Equal Wages Act’ signifies;
(a) Law that deals with family related matters.
(b) Law provides that equal wages should be paid for equal job for both men and women.
(c) An Act which signifies that all work inside the home is done by the women of the family.
(d) A radical law against the discriminatory attitude and sexual division of labour.

Answer

Answer: b


10. Which leaders worked for the elimination of caste system in India?
(a) Jotiba Phule, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ram as warn i Naicker
(b) Raja Ram Mohun Roy, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jotiba Phule, Periyar Ramaswami Naicker and Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Swami Vivekanand, Jotiba Phule and Raja Ram Mohan Roy

Answer

Answer: a


11. Among the following, which countries have high participation of women in public life?
(a) Sweden and India
(b) Norway and Sri Lanka
(c) Nepal and Finland
(d) Sweden and Africa

Answer

Answer: d


12. The distinguishing feature of communalism is:
(a) Followers of a particular religion must belong to one community.
(b) Communalism leads to the belief that people belonging to different religions can live as equal citizens within one nation.
(c) A communal mind does not lead to quest for political dominance of one’s own religious community.
(d) A secular constitution is sufficient combat communalism.

Answer

Answer: a


13. Identify the statements which suggest that it is not politics that gets caste-ridden, it is the caste that gets politicised.
A. When governments are formed, political parties take care that representatives of different castes find a place in it.
B. Each caste group incorporates neighbouring castes which were earlier excluded.
C. Various caste groups enter into a coalition with other castes.
D. Political parties and candidates in elections make appeals to caste sentiments.
(a) A, B and D
(b) B, C and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and D

Answer

Answer: c


14. Identify two reasons that state that caste alone cannot determine elections in India.
A. No party wins the votes of all the voters of
a caste or community. i
B. Some political parties are known to favour some castes and are seen as their representatives.
C. No parliamentary constituency in the country has a clear majority of one single caste.
D. Mobilising and securing political support has brought new consciousness among the lower castes.
(a) A and C
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) B and D

Answer

Answer: a


15. When we speak of gender divisions, we usually refer to:
(a) Biological difference between men and women
(b) Unequal roles assigned by the society to men and women
(c) Unequal child sex ratio
(d) Absence of voting rights for women in democracies.

Answer

Answer: b


16. In India seats are reserved for women in:
A. Lok Sabha
B. State legislative assemblies
C. Cabinets
D. Panchayati Raj bodies
(a) A, B and D
(b) B, C and D
(c) B and C
(d) A and D

Answer

Answer: a


17. Which among the following statements about India’s Constitution is wrong? It
(a) prohibits discrimination on grounds of religion.
(b) gives official status to one religion.
(c) provides to all individuals freedom to profess any religion.
(d) ensures equality of citizens within religious communities.

Answer

Answer: b


18. Shift from ___________ areas to urban areas is known as occupational mobility.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: rural


19. ___________ needs to be expressed in politics.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gender Division


20. At present, caste continues to be closely linked to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: economic status


21. The concept of ___________ refers to a system that values men more and gives them power over women.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: patriarchy


22. Social division based on ___________ is peculiar to India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Caste


23. Shifting of population from rural areas to urban areas for better opportunity is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: urbanisation


24. Communal politics is based on the idea that religion is the principal basis of social community. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


25. People within the same caste or community have different interests depending on their economic condition. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


26. Communalism signifies an ideology which stands for regional harmony and economic equality. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


27. Inequality of women states equal treatment to women as compared to men. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


28. Indian Constitution advocates an official language for India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


29. Gandhiji used to say that religion can never be separated from politics. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


30. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Number of girl children per thousand boys in a given period (i) Secularist
(b) Laws that deal with family related matters such as marriages, divorce, etc. (ii) Communalist
(c) A person who does not discriminate others on the basis of religious beliefs (iii) Family laws
(d) A person who says that religion is the principal basis of community (iv) Child sex ratio
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)


31. What is gender division?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Division of work between the men and the women.


32. What do you mean by ‘Feminist? [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A man or woman who believes in equal rights and opportunities for men and women.


33. Which two factors helped improve women’s role in public life?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Political expression of gender division and political mobilisation


34. Name some countries where participation of women in public life is very high. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sweden, Norway and Finland.


35. What does the term patriarchy refer to?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A system that values men more and gives them power over women.


36. What is the literacy rate of men and women in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Literacy rate of men: 54%
Literacy rate of women: 76%


37. Name the Act which provides for equal wages to men and women for equal work.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Equal Remuneration Act of 1976


38. What does the Equal Wages Act/Equal Remuneration Act signify?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Equal wages to be paid for equal work to both men and women.


39. Who said, “Religion can never be separated from politics”?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gandhiji


40. In what way are religious differences beneficial?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Religious differences are beneficial only when all religions are treated equally, and people are able to express their needs, interests and demands without any fear.


41. What does the term communalism denote?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Communalism denotes a belief which is based on the idea that the religion is the basis of social community and people who follow different religions cannot belong to the same social community.


42. Give any two examples of communal expressions in daily life.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Religious prejudices, stereotypes and belief of one’s religious superiority.


43. How is politics mobilised on religious lines?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sacred religious symbols, leaders, emotional appeal, plain fear etc are used to mobilise politics on religious lines.


44. What is a secular state? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A secular state does not promote any religion and provides the right to its citizens to practice and preach any religion of their choice.


45. Which leaders worked for the elimination of caste system in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Jotiba Phule, Dr. B.R. Ambedkar, Mahatma Gandhi and Periyar Ramaswami Naicker.


46. What is caste hierarchy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Caste hierarchy is a ladder like formation in which all the caste groups are placed from the highest to the lowest.


47. Write any two ways by which the caste hierarchy can be broken.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two ways by which the caste hierarchy can be broken are:
• Growth of literacy
• Urbanisation


48. What does the term Feminist Movement imply?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Femini st movement means a radical women’s movement against the discriminatory attitude and sexual division of labour.


49. Give the meaning of religious differences.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The term religious differences means a social division based on religious grounds.


50. What do you mean by Communal Politics?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Communal politics is the use of religion in politics. In communal politics, one religion is presented as superior to other religions.


51. What is casteism?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Casteism is the exploitation of caste consciousness for narrow political and I electoral gains.


52. State any two situations in which problem of communalism becomes acute.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Problems of communalism become acute when
(a) Religion is used in politics.
(b) There is a feeling of distrust among the people of different religions.


Fill in the Blanks

1. There is a disproportionately large presence of ……….. caste among urban middle classes in our country.
2. Expression of caste differences in politics gives many ……….. communities the space to demand power.
3. Using of religion in politics by State power is ……….. politics.
4. Caste is an important source of ……….. inequality because it regulates access to resources of various kinds.
5. New kinds of caste groups have come up in the political arena like ……….. and ……….. caste groups.
6. When a caste is a ……….. of one party, it usually means that a large proportion of the voters from that caste would vote for that party.
7. The Constitution allows the ……….. to intervene in the matters of religion in order to ensure equality within religious communities.
8. Social divisions based on ……….. are peculiar to India.

Answers

1. upper
2. disadvantaged
3. communal
4. economic
5. backward and forward
6. vote bank
7. State
8. caste

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Gender Religion and Caste with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 4 Gender Religion and Caste Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Democracy and Diversity with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Democracy and Diversity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity

1. Social difference arise due to difference in
(a) Race
(b) Religion
(c) Language
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


2. Which three elements show the basic unity in India?
(i) Cultural unity
(ii) Discrimination
(iii) Unity in language
(iv) Religious equality
(a) (i), (iii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii) only
(d) (i) and (iv) only

Answer

Answer: a


3. Society is fairly homogenous i.e., there are no significant ethnic difference in
(a) Germany
(b) Belgium
(c) Sri Lanka
(d) China

Answer

Answer: a


4. To show his support to the protesting. American athletes during the award ceremony of Mexico Olympics, Peter Norman
(a) wore no socks
(b) wore a human right badge
(c) wore a black scarf
(d) wore a string of beads

Answer

Answer: b


5. A society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant ethnic differences is called a
(a) Secular society
(b) Communal society
(c) Homogenous society
(d) Socially divided

Answer

Answer: c


6. African – American is the term used for:
(a) Africans who were brought into America as slaves
(b) Black Americans of America
(c) Martin Luther and his group
(d) John Corlos and Smith

Answer

Answer: a


7. Democracy involves:
(a) Competition among various political parties
(b) Religious inequalities
(c) Cultural diversity
(d) Conflict, violence and disintegration

Answer

Answer: c


8. Which three countries faced the problem of social division?
(a) United Kingdom, USA and India
(b) Belgium, Sri Lanka and United Kingdom
(c) Sri Lanka, Canada and India
(d) Belgium, Germany and USA

Answer

Answer: b


9. Overlapping differences signify:
(a) Religious and linguistic differences
(b) Cross-cut social differences
(c) Some social difference overlaps with other differences
(d) Cultural differences

Answer

Answer: c


10. What does the “Civil Rights Movement of USA” signify?
(a) A movement against the discrimination
(b) A reform movement for the Civil Rights of the citizens
(c) A reform movement against the social discriminations of Afro-Americans
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


11. Which of the following statements about social differences in the Netherlands and Northern Ireland are correct?
A. Both Northern Ireland and the Netherlands are predominantly Christian but divided between Catholics and Protestants.
B. In Northern Ireland class and religion overlap each other.
C. Overlapping social differences do not create possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions.
D. In the Netherlands, class and religion tend to cut across each other.
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A, B and D
(c) C and D
(d) B, C and D

Answer

Answer: b


12. Which of these statements regarding factors affecting politics of social divisions are true?
A. It is much easier if the people see that their identities are multiple and are complementary with national identity.
B. If people see their identities in singular and exclusive terms, it becomes very easy to accommodate.
C. It is easier to accommodate demands that are within the constitutional framework and not at the cost of another community.
D. It depends on how the government reacts to demands of different groups.
E. Attempts at forced integration do not sow the seeds of disintegration.
(a) A and B are true.
(b C and B are true.
(c A, B and C are true.
(d) A, C and D are true.

Answer

Answer: d


13. Identify the countries which faced the problem of social divisions.
(a) Belgium, Germany and USA
(b) Belgium, Sri Lanka and U.K.
(c) Sri Lanka, Canada and India
(d) U.K., USA and India

Answer

Answer: b


14. Which one of the following statements is not correct about social division?
(a) Too many small divisions are better than a single big division.
(b) Politics is a force of unity when expressions of various kinds of social divisions occur.
(c) It is only in countries like India that we have social divisions.
(d) Assertion of social diversities in a country need not be seen as a source of danger.

Answer

Answer: c


15. _____________ Movement emerged in 1966 and lasted till 1975.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The Black Power


16. Germany and _____________ are undergoing rapid change with influx of people from other parts of the world.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sweden


17. _____________ social differences create possibilities of deep social division and tensions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Overlapping


18. Political competition along religions and ethnic line led to the disintegration of Yugoslavia into _____________ independent countries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Six


19. Civil Rights Movement in the USA was launched by _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Martin Luther King Junior


20. The University which honoured Tommie Smith and John Carlos is _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: San Jose State University


21. Social division of one kind or another exists only in big countries. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


22. In Northern Ireland class and religion overlap with each other. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


23. Democracy fails to accommodate social diversity. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


24. Catholics and Protestants have had conflicts in Northern Ireland. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


25. It is possible that a person can have multiple identities. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


26. Match the columns

Column A Column B
(a) A society that has similar kinds of people, especially where there are no significant ethnic differences (i) Migrant
(b) Anybody who shifts voluntarily or out of some adverse circumstances from one region or country to another region or another country (ii) Homogenous city
(c) The sect of Christianity represented by Nationalist parties who demanded that Northern Ireland be unified with the Republic of Ireland (iii) Protestants
(d) The sect of Christianity that was represented by the Unionists who wanted to remain with the U.K. (iv) Catholics
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (iii)


27. Name the two athletes who tried to draw international attention to racial discrimination in US.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Tommie Smith and John Carlos


28. Mention the racial similarity between Tommie Smith and John Carlos.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They both are African-Americans.


29. How did the African-American Athletes symbolised Black poverty and Black power?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Black Poverty — They received their medals wearing black socks and no shoes. Black Power—The black gloved and raised clenched fists.


30. What does the Civil Rights Movement of the USA signify?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Civil Rights Movement of the US A signifies a reform movement against the social discrimination of Afro-Americans.


31. Name the leader of the Civil Rights Movement in USA. [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Martin Luther King Jr


32. What was the Black Power Movement?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Black Power Movement started in US in 1966 and lasted till 1975. It was a more militant anti-racist movement, advocating even violence if necessary to end racism in the US.


33. Name the university that has recently installed the statues of Tommie Smith and John Carlos in its campus.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
San Jose State University


34. Name any two countries which faced the problem of social division.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium, Sri Lanka and the United Kingdom (any two)


35. What are the two bases of social differences?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Social differences are based on two factors:
• On the basis of accident of birth
• On the basis of our choices


36. Give two examples of social differences based on choice.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Following religion, taking a subject of study, participating in a game, etc. (any two)


37. When do overlapping differences occur?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Overlapping differences occur when one kind of social difference becomes important and desirable than the other social differences.


38. Why does the difference between the Blacks and Whites become a social division in the US?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The difference between the Blacks and Whites becomes a social division in the US because the Blacks tend to be poor, homeless and discriminated against.


39. List any two possibilities created by overlapping social differences.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Overlapping social differences created possibilities of deep social divisions and tensions.


40. Name any two countries in which society was highly homogeneous.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sweden and Germany


41. Which region of the United Kingdom experienced bitter ethno-political conflict for many years?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Northern Ireland


42. Name two major sects of Christianity in Northern Ireland.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
53 per cent are Protestants, while 44 per cent are Roman Catholics.


43. Which community in Northern Ireland wanted to remain within UK?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The Protestants


44. What led to the disintegration of Yugoslavia?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Political competition along religious ending ethnic lines led to the disintegration of Yugoslavia into six independent countries.


45. How do social divisions become difficult to accommodate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
When people see their identities in singular and exclusive terms, social divisions become difficult to accommodate.


46. Who started the Civil Rights Movement in the USA?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Martin Luther King Jr. started the Civil Rights Movement in the USA.


47. What did the two players intend to do with the kind of gesture they showed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two players wanted to draw the international attention to racial discrimination in the United States.


48. Give an example of overlapping differences.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Example of overlapping differences:
(a) Northern Ireland people are predominantly Christians but divided between Catholics and Protestants. Catholics tend to be poor and have suffered.
(b) In our country, Dalits tend to be poor and landless and often face injustice and discrimination but never turned to social division.


49. Which differences are easier to accommodate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cross-cutting differences are easier to accommodate.


50. Who brings their own culture and tends to form a different community and make society heterogeneous?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Migrants of other countries bring their own culture and tend to form a different community and make society heterogeneous.


51. Who are atheists?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Atheists are the people who do not believe in God or any religion.


52. Give an example how people can have more than one identity and can belong to more than one social group.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
People belonging to one community may be poor or rich, atheists or theists. At the same time poor and rich, white or black, atheists or theists can be in all communities.


53. What is the main base of social divisions in our society?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Caste, religion and gender are the main bases of social divisions in our society.


54. What is the meaning of homogeneous society?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A homogeneous society shares a common language, ethnicity and culture. Japan and South Korea are examples of homogeneous societies.


Fill in the Blanks

1. All kinds of social differences are not based on accident of (i) ………… Some of the differences are based on our (ii) ………… .
2. Every social (i) ………… does not lead to social division. Social differences divide similar people from one another, but they also unite very (ii) ………… people.
3. We all have more than one ………… and can belong to more than one social group.
4. In …………, people who live in different regions speak different languages.
5. People belonging to different social groups, share differences and similarities ………… across the boundaries of their groups.
6. Most countries of the world are ………… cultural.
7. In a democracy ………… expression of social divisions is normal and can be healthy.
8. Expression of various kinds of social divisions in ………… often results in their cancelling one another and reducing their intensity.
9. ………… is the best way to fight for recognition and also to accommodate diversity.

Answers

1. (i) birth (ii) choice
2. (i) difference (ii) different
3. identity
4. Belgium
5. cutting
6. multi-
7. political
8. politics
9. democracy

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Democracy and Diversity with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 3 Democracy and Diversity Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Federalism with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 2 Federalism Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Federalism Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 2 Federalism

1. The System of Panchayati Raj involves
(a) The village, block and district levels
(b) The village, and state levels
(c) The village district and state levels
(d) The village, state and Union levels

Answer

Answer: a


2. In case of a clash between the laws made by the centre and a state on a subject in the concurrent list:
(a) the state law prevails.
(b) the central law prevails.
(c) both the laws prevail within their respective jurisdictions.
(d) the Supreme Court has to intervene to decide.

Answer

Answer: b


3. Which of the following subjects is not included in the state list?
(a) Law and order
(b) National defence
(c) Education
(d) Agriculture

Answer

Answer: b


4. In India’s federal system, the state governments have the power to legislate on all those subjects which are included in the:
(a) Union list
(b) State list
(c) Concurrent list
(d) Residuary subjects

Answer

Answer: b


5. The Constitution of India
(a) divided powers between centre and states in three lists.
(b) divided powers between centre and states in two lists.
(c) listed the powers of the states and left the undefined powers to the state.
(d) Specified the pow ers of the states and left the residuary powers with the centre.

Answer

Answer: a


6. Which of the following government has two or more levels?
(a) Community Government
(b) Coalition Government
(c) Federal Government
(d) Unitary Government

Answer

Answer: c


7. Which of the following countries is an example of “coming together federation”?
(a) U.S.A
(b) India
(c) Spain
(d) Belgium

Answer

Answer: a


8. Here are three reactions to the language policy followed in India. Which of the following holds true in the case of India?
(a) The policy of accommodation has strengthened national unity.
(b) Language based states have divided us by making everyone conscious of their language.
(c) The language policy has only helped to consolidate the dominance of English over all other languages.

Answer

Answer: a


9. Consider the following statements on the practice of federalism in India. Identify those which hold true for decentralisation after 1992.
A. Local governments did not have any power or resources of their own.
B. It became constitutionally mandatory to hold regular elections to local government bodies.
C. The state governments are required to share some powers and revenue with local government bodies.
D. No seats are reserved in the elected bodies for scheduled castes, scheduled tribes and other backward classes.
(a) B and C
(b) A and C
(c) A and D
(d) B and D

Answer

Answer: a


10. In a ‘Holding together federation’:
A. A large country divides its power between constituent states and the national government.
B. The Central government tends to be more powerful vis-a-vis the States.
C. All the constituent states usually have equal powers.
D. Constituent states have unequal powers.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C and D
(b) A and D
(c) B and C
(d) A, B and D

Answer

Answer: d


11. Which among the following are examples of ‘Coming together federations’?
(a) India, Spain and Belgium
(b) India, USA and Spain
(c) USA, Switzerland and Australia
(d) Belgium and Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: c


12. The Union List includes subjects such as:
(a) Education, forests, trade unions, marriages, adoption and succession.
(b) Police, trade, commerce, agriculture and irrigation.
(c) Residuary subjects like computer software.
(d) Defence, foreign affairs, banking, currency, communications.

Answer

Answer: d


13. The system of Panchayati Raj involves:
(a) Village, State and Union levels
(b) Village, District and State levels
(c) Village and State levels
(d) Village, Block and District levels

Answer

Answer: d


14. Which one of the following States in India has its own Constitution?
(a) Uttarakhand
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) J & K
(d) Nagaland

Answer

Answer: c


15. Match the following:

Column A Column B
(A) Union Territory (i) Decision-making body for the entire village
(B) Local self (ii) An alliance of more than government two parties
(C) Coalition (iii) Representatives’ government body at the district level
(D) Zila Parishad (iv) Area which is run by the Union / Central government

(a) A – (ii), B – (iii), C – (iv) and D – (i)
(b) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (iii) and D – (ii)
(c) A – (iv), B – (i), C – (ii) and D – (iii)
(d) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii) and D – (i)

Answer

Answer: c


16. The system of government in which there is only one level of government is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Unitary Government


17. Banking and Defence are the subjects of _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Union list


18. In 1947 the boundaries of several old states were changed on the basis of _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: language


19. The highest institution of Panchayati Raj in rural areas is _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Zila Parishad


20. The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Mayor


21. Local self-government exists only in urban areas. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


22. The popular name of rural government is Panchayati Raj. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


23. The chairperson of the municipal corporation is known as the Sarpanch. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


24. Union Territories are the areas run by both the Union and the State Government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


25. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) National Defence (i) rural areas
(b) Education (ii) District
(c) Local self- government (iii) urban areas
(d) Municipal Corporation (iv) State list
(e) Zila Parishad (v) Union list
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)
(e) (ii)


26. Name the government having two or more levels of government.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Federal government has two or more levels of government.


27. Define ‘jurisdiction’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is an area of functioning over which someone has legal authority to perform.


28. What are the two main objectives of a federal system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To safeguard and promote unity of the country
To accommodate regional diversity


29. What does the ‘coming together’ involve?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The‘coming together’ involves independent states come together on their own to form bigger unit where the constituent states have equal powers.


30. What is meant by ‘holding together federation’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a federation in which a large country decides to divide its power between the constituent states and the central government. The central government tends to be more powerful.


31. Name the countries having ‘coming together’ federation and ‘holding together’ federation. [CBSE 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Countries having ‘coming together’ federation are – USA, Switzerland, Australia.
Countries having ‘holding together’ federation are – India, Spain, Belgium.


32. What does the third tier of federalism include?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It includes local body governments like Panchayats at village levels and Municipalities in towns and cities.


33. Define Union List.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It includes the subjects of national importance such as defence, foreign affairs, banking, communications etc. The Union government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in this list.


34. Why have the subjects like defence, foreign affairs, banking, etc. been included in the Union List?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
These subjects are of national importance and require a uniform policy for execution.


35. Define State List.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It contains subjects of state and local importance such as police, trade, commerce etc. The state government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the list.


36. Define Concurrent List.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It includes subjects of common interest to both the union government as well as the state government, such as education, forest, trade unions etc. Both the union and as well as the state governments can make Lawson these subjects.


37. What are Residuary Powers? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Residuary powers mean that the Parliament has the right to make laws with respect to the matters that are not mentioned in any of the lists Union List, State List and Concurrent List.


38. In India’s federal system, which level of government has the power to legislate on residuary subjects? [CBSE 2013]
Or
Which level of government in India legislates on the residuary subjects? [CBSE 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Union government


39. Name an Indian state which enjoys special status. [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir


40. What are Union Territories?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The areas that are too small to be made an independent state and are so diverse that could not be merged with any of the existing states are called Union Territories.


41. Name any two Union Territories of India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Chandigarh and Puducherry


42. How can the fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution be changed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The fundamental provisions of the Indian constitution can be changed in a bilateral way wherein the consent of both the levels of government is required.


43. What is the role of judiciary in a federal government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The judiciary plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.


44. What ideals are shared through democratic politics in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The spirit of federalism, respect for diversity and desire for living together, (any two)


45. Why were the boundaries of several old states of India changed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The boundaries of several old states of India were changed to ensure that people speaking same language lived in the same state.


46. What are the two main basis on which new states of India have been created?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Language and regional ethnicity


47. What has been the experience of creation of linguistic states?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The experience of creation of linguistic states has proved that India has become more united.


48. What is a coalition government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A government by the coming together of two or more political parties is called coalition government.


49. Which judgement of the Supreme Court made Indian federal power sharing more effective?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Supreme Court declared that Central government cannot dismiss the state government in an arbitrary manner.


50. What does the concept of decentralisation signify?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The concept of decentralisation signifies – power taken away from central and state government and given to local government at both the urban and rural levels.


51. What was the basic idea behind decentralisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Problems and issues can be best settled at the local level as people know better about their problems and can manage them at their initial levels.


52. For whom, seats are reserved in the local government bodies?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Seats are reserved for the Scheduled Castes, Scheduled Tribes and Other Backward Classes. One-third of all are positions are reserved for women.


53. What is a Gram Panchayat?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a council consisting of several ward members, often called panch, and a president or sarpanch. It is the decision-making body for the entire village.


54. How are the members of a Panchayat elected?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They are directly elected by all the adult population living in that ward or village.


55. What is Panchayat Samiti? [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They are directly elected by all the adult population living in that ward or village.


56. What constitutes the Zila Parishad?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
All panchayat samities and mandals in a district together constitute the zila parishad.


57. Who are the political heads of the municipality and gram panchayat?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mayor and Sarpanch are the political heads of the municipality and gram panchayat respectively.


58. Which government is responsible for the entire country?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Central Government is responsible for the entire country. It is also called Union Government.


59. Name the lowest level of government in rural area.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gram Panchayat is the lowest level of Government in rural area.


60. What is decentralisation of power?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Decentralisation of power means taking away some power from the central and state governments and giving them to local government. It simply means sharing of power at different levels of government to ensure balance in power.


61. Why did some leaders fear when the demand for formation of states on language was raised? What was the outcome?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) When the demand for the formation of the states on the basis of language was raised, some national leaders feared that it would lead to the disintegration of the country. That is why the central government resisted linguistic states for some time.
(b) The creation of linguistic states was the first and major test for democratic politics in our country. In 1947, the boundaries of several old states of India were changed in order to create new states and this was done to ensure that people, who spoke the language, lived in the same state.
(c) But the experience has shown that the formation of linguistic states has actually made the country more united. It has also made the administration easier.


62. Describe the functions of a village panchayat.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A village panchayat, also known as the gram panchayat, is the first tier in the Panchayati Raj. It is constituted for one village or group of villages.
(a) It is a decision making body for the entire village. It has to meet at least twice in a year to approve the annual budget.
(b) They are responsible for day-to-day activities of the village level.
(c) The Gram Sabha works as a watchdog of the Gram Panchayat which is its executive body.


Fill in the Blanks

1. The ………… Government alone can make laws relating to the subjects mentioned in the Union List
2. The Union Government has the power to legislate on ………… subjects which do not fall in any of the three lists.
3. The ………… plays an important role in overseeing the implementation of constitutional provisions and procedures.
4. If there is a conflict in the laws made in the concurrent list, the law made by the ………… Government will prevail.
5. A third tier of government is called ………… government.
6. When power is taken away from Central and State governments and given to local government, it is called …………
7. ………… are the local governing bodies in the villages and ………… in urban areas.
8. The political head of a Municipal Corporation is called the ………… .

Answers

1. Union
2. Residuary
3. Judiciary
4. Union
5. Local
6. Decentralisation
7. (i) Panchayats, (ii) Municipalities 8. Mayor

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Federalism with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 2 Federalism Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Power Sharing with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Civics (Political Science) Chapter 1 Power Sharing Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Power Sharing Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 1 Power Sharing

1. Which of the following is an example of horizontal sharing of power? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Power sharing between different states.
(b) Power sharing between different organs of the government.
(c) Power sharing between different levels of the government.
(d) Power sharing between different political parties.

Answer

Answer: b


2. Who elects the community government in Belgium? [CBSE 2011]
(a) People belonging to one language community only.
(b) By the leader of Belgium.
(c) The citizens of the whole country.
(d) The community leaders of Belgium.

Answer

Answer: a


3. The Community Government signifies:
(a) The powers of government regarding community development.
(b) The powers ofthegovemmentregarding law making for the community.
(c) The powers of the government regarding cultural, educational and language related issues.
(d) The government enjoys privileges to safeguard the interest of a particular community.

Answer

Answer: c


4. The word ‘ethnic’ signifies:
(a) different religions.
(b) social division on shared culture.
(c) a violent conflict between opposite groups.
(d) a careful calculation of gains and losses.

Answer

Answer: b


5. Power sharing is:
(a) the very spirit of democracy
(b) separation of powers at different levels.
(c) system of checks and balances.
(d) a type of balancing powers.

Answer

Answer: a


6. Choose the correct option: [CBSE 2011]
Power sharing is desirable because it helps:
(a) To increase pressure on government.
(b) To reduce possibilities of conflicts.
(c) To generate awareness among people.
(d) To increase percentage of voters.

Answer

Answer: b


7. System of ‘checks and balances’ means:
(a) Horizontal distribution of powers.
(b) Separation of powers.
(c) Put a check on the exercise of unlimited powers of the organs of government by maintaining a balance of power among various institutions.
(d) Federal division of powers

Answer

Answer: c


8. Which of the following features are common to Indian and Belgian form of power-sharing arrangements?
A. Power is shared among governments at different levels.
B. Power is shared among different organs of government.
C. Power is shared among different social groups.
D. Power is shared among different parties and takes the form of competition.
(a) A, B, C, D
(b) B, C and D
(c) A and C
(d) A, C and D

Answer

Answer: (b) B, C and D


9. In dealing with power sharing, which one of the following statements is NOT correct about democracy?
(a) People are the source of all political power. !
(b) In a democracy, people rule themselves j through institutions of self-governance.
(c) In a democracy, due respect is given to diverse groups and views that exist in a society.
(d) In a democracy, if the power to decide is dispersed, it is not possible to take quick decisions and enforce them.

Answer

Answer: d


10. A belief that the majority community should be able to rule a country in whichever way it wants, by disregarding the wishes and needs of the minority is:
(a) Power Sharing
(b) Central Government
(c) Majoritarianism
(d) Community Government

Answer

Answer: c


11. A system of ‘checks and balances’ is another name for which one of the following power-sharing arrangements:
(a) Power sharing among different social groups.
(b) Vertical division of power or power shared among different levels of government.
(c) Horizontal division of power or power shared among different organs of the government.
(d) Power sharing in the form of political parties, pressure groups and governments.

Answer

Answer: c


12. Which one of the following statements about power-sharing arrangements is correct?
(a) Power sharing is necessary only in societies which have religious, linguistic or ethnic divisions.
(b) Power sharing is suitable only for big countries that have regional divisions.
(c) Every society needs some form of power sharing even if it is small or does not have social divisions.
(d) Power-sharing is not necessary at all.

Answer

Answer: c


13. Consider the following statements about the
ethnic composition of Sri Lanka:
A. Major social groups are the Sinhala- speaking (74%) and Tamil-speaking (18%)?
B. Among the Tamils, there are two sub-groups, Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils.
C. There are about 7% Christians, who are both Tamil and Sinhala.
D. Most of the Sinhala-speaking are Hindus or Muslims and most of the Tamil-speaking are Buddhists.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B, C
(b) A, B, D
(c) B, C, D
(d) A, B, C, D

Answer

Answer: (a) A, B, C


14. Prudential reasons of power sharing stress on the facts that:
A. It ensures the stability of political order.
B. It reduces the possibility of conflict between social groups.
C. It gives a fair share to minority.
D. It is the very spirit of democracy.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) A, B
(b) A, C and D
(c) All are correct
(d) A, B & C

Answer

Answer: d


15. Sinhala was recognised as the only official language by the ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Act of 1956


16. A government for the entire country is usually called ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Federal Government


17. A belief that the maj ority community should be able to rule country in whichever way they want, by disregarding the wishes and needs of minority is known as ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Majoritarianism


18. ______________ is referred to as social division based on culture and language.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ethnic group


19. Community government is a very specific type of government in ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Belgium


20. ______________ was amended four times between 1970 and 1993.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Belgium Constitution


21. Power sharing is the distribution of powers at only one level of government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


22. Power sharing arrangement among the different organs of the government is known as horizontal sharing. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


23. Belgium successfully solved its problem by Community Government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


24. Two languages spoken in Sri Lanka are English and Sinhalese. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


25. Match the columns

Column A Column B
(a) Coalition Government (i) Each organ of the government checks the other
(b) Civil War (ii) Government of more than two political parties
(c) Check and Balance (iii) Power may also be shared among different social groups
(d) Community Government (iv) A violent conflict between opposing groups
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)


26. In which continent is Belgium?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Europe


27. Name the countries with which Belgium shares its boundaries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium shares its boundaries with France, Netherlands, Germany and Luxembourg.


28. Where does the majority of population of Belgium live?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The majority of population of Belgium lives in the Flemish region.


29. Which two languages are generally spoken in Belgium? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
French and Dutch are the two languages spoken in Belgium.


30. Which language is spoken by the majority of population in Brussels, the capital city of Belgium?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: French language


31. Mention the minority community that was relatively rich and powerful in Belgium.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: French community


32. Which social group constituted the largest share in population of Sri Lanka?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sinhala-speakers


33. Name the two subgroups of Tamils in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sri Lankan Tamils and Indian Tamils


34. After independence, Sri Lanka witnessed the supremacy of which community? [CBSE 2014, 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In Sri Lanka, the policies of the government under the Act of 1956 sought to ensure the dominance of Sinhala speaking.


35. What is the official religion of Sri Lanka? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Buddhism is the religion of Sri Lanka.


36. Which factors are responsible for increasing the feeling of alienation among Sri Lankan Tamils?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Sinhala was recognised as the only official language in Sri Lanka and the government formulated a policy that favoured Sinhala applicants for university and government jobs.


37. What was Tamil Eelam?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It was to be an independent state as demanded by Srilankan Tamils.


38. How many times did Belgium amend its constitution regarding power sharing?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium amended its constitution four times between 1970 and 1993.


39. Name the third level government of Belgium.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Community Government


40. Differentiate between community government in Belgium and majoritarian government in Sri Lanka. [CBSE 2018 (C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In Belgium, all the benefits of economic development and education were given to Dutch speaking communities as well as French Minority community while in Sri Lanka, the government adopted a series of majoritarian measures to establish Sinhala supremacy on Tamils.


41. Which city was chosen as the headquarters of the European Union?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Brussels


42. What is power sharing?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Power sharing means sharing of responsibilities and powers by the different organs of the government.


43. Why power sharing is essential for democracy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Power sharing helps to reduce the possibility of conflict between social groups.


44. What is the difference between prudential and moral reasons for power sharing?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Prudential reason: Power sharing in democracy reduces the possibility of conflicts between different social groups. Moral reason: In a democracy, citizens have the right to be consulted on how they are to be governed.


45. What is separation of power?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The separation of power is the power sharing among the different organs of government with their specific jurisdiction.


46. The system of’checks and balances’ comes under which form of power sharing? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Horizontal distribution of power sharing arrangement is known as a system of checks and balances.


47. In which form of power sharing, power is shared at different levels of government?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Power is shared at different levels of government in vertical form of power sharing.


48. What does the federal division of power imply? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The term federal division implies power sharing at different levels of government.


49. The community government in Belgium is a good example of which form of power sharing? [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Social group sharing


50. What is the proportion of Tamils in Sri Lanka’s total population?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The proportion of Tamils in Sri Lanka is 18 per cent out of which Sri Lankan Tamils constitute 13 per cent of the population and Indian Tamils constitute 5 per cent of the population.


51. What do you mean by checks and balances?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Checks and Balances is a system in which each organ of the government keeps a check on the others which results in a balance of power among various institutions. It ensures that none of the organs can exercise unlimited power.


52. Define coalition government.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Coalition Government implies a government of two or more parties. When the alliance of two or more parties gets elected and forms a government it is known as the coalition government. This is another form of power sharing.


Fill in the Blanks

1. When European countries came together to form the European Union (EU), ………. was chosen as the headquarters.
2. The ………. distribution of power is also called a system of checks and balances.
3. The religion followed by Sinhala-speaking people in Sri Lanka is ……….
4. ………. division of power means power to be shared among the government at different levels.
5. In ………. leaders realised that unity of the country is possible by respecting the interests of different communities.
6. In the year ………. an Act was passed to recognise Sinhala as the official language.

Answers

1. Brussels
2. horizontal
3. Buddhism
4. Federal
5. Belgium
6. 1956

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Power Sharing with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Political Science (Civics) Chapter 1 Power Sharing Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Money and Credit with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Money and Credit MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 3 Money and Credit

1. Which one of the following statements is most appropriate regarding transaction made in money?
(a) It is the easiest way.
(b) It is the safest way.
(c) It is the cheapest way.
(d) It promotes trade.

Answer

Answer: a


2. Which one of the following is a modem form of currency?
(a) Gold
(b) Silver
(c) Copper
(d) Paper notes

Answer

Answer: d


3. Which among the following authorities issues currency notes on behalf of the government?
(a) Government of India
(b) The State Bank of India
(c) National Bank for Agriculture and Rural Development
(d) Reserve Bank of India

Answer

Answer: d


4. In which of the following systems exchange of goods is done without use of money?
(a) Credit system
(b) Barter system
(c) Banking system
(d) Collateral system

Answer

Answer: b


5. Banks provide a higher rate of interest on which of the following accounts?
(a) Saving account
(b) Current account
(c) Fixed deposits for long period
(d) Fixed deposits for very short period

Answer

Answer: c


6. Banks use the major portion of the deposits to:
(a) Keep as reserve so that people may withdraw
(b) Meet their routine expenses
(c) Extend loans
(d) Meet renovation of bank

Answer

Answer: c


7. What percentage of their deposits is kept as cash by the banks in India?
(a) 25%
(b) 20%
(c) 15%
(d) 10%

Answer

Answer: c


8. The informal source of credit does not include which one of the following?
(a) Traders
(b) Friends
(c) Cooperative Societies
(d) Moneylenders

Answer

Answer: c


9. Which one of the following is the new way of providing loans to the mral poor?
(a) Co-operative societies
(b) Traders
(c) Relatives and friends
(d) SHGs

Answer

Answer: d


Question 10. Why is currency accepted as a medium of exchange?
(a) Because the currency is authorised by the government of the country.
(b) Because it is liked by the people who use it.
(c) Because the use of currency has its origin in ancient times.
(d) Because the currency is authorised by the World Bank.

Answer

Answer: a


11. Who issues the currency notes in India?
(a) Currency notes are issued by the Finance Commission.
(b) All the nationalized banks can issue the currency notes.
(c) Only Reserve Bank of India can issue currency notes.
(d) Any individual or organization can issue cur¬rency notes with the permission of the govt.

Answer

Answer: c


12. Which among the following banks issues currency notes on behalf of the Central Government in India?
(a) RBI
(b) State Bank of India
(c) Bank of India
(d) Central Bank of India

Answer

Answer: a


13. What do the banks do with the deposits which I they accept from the customers?
(a) Banks use these deposits for charitable activities.
(b) Banks use a major portion of deposits to extend loans.
(c) Banks use deposits to give bonus to their employees.
(d) Banks use deposits to set up more branches in the country.

Answer

Answer: b


14. What is the main source of income of a bank?
(a) Bank charges that the depositors pay for ; keeping their money safe is the main ; source of the bank’s income.
(b) The difference between what is charged from the borrowers and paid to the depositors is the main source of bank’s income.
(c) Banks earn huge amounts of money by investing the money of the depositors in various company shares.
(d) The Government of India gives huge amounts of money to the banks to help their smooth functioning.

Answer

Answer: b


15. An agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future payment refers to
(a) Debt
(b) Deposit
(c) Credit
(d) Collateral

Answer

Answer: c


16. Which body (authority) supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?
(a) Finance Ministry
(b) Head Office of each Bank
(c) Reserve Bank
(d) Cooperative Societies

Answer

Answer: c


17. Money-lenders usually demand a ‘security’ from the borrower. What is the formal word used for the ‘security’, such as land, vehicle, livestock, building, etc.?
(a) Deposit
(b) Collateral
(c) Credit
(d) Guarantee

Answer

Answer: b


18. Which among the following options will be the cheapest source of credit in rural areas?
(a) Bank
(b) Cooperative Society
(c) Money-lender
(d) Finance Company

Answer

Answer: b


19. In which country is the Grameen Bank meeting the credit needs of over 6 million poor people?
(a) Bhuta
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) Bangladesh
(d) Nepal

Answer

Answer: c


20. A typical Self Help Group usually has
(a) 100-200 members
(b) 50-100 members
(c) less than 10 members
(d) 15-20 members

Answer

Answer: d


21. Which of the following is not an informal source of credit?
(a) Money-lender
(b) Relatives and Friends
(c) Commercial Banks
(d) Traders

Answer

Answer: c


22. According to Crowther, “____________ can be defined as anything that is generally accepted as a means of exchange and at the same time acts as a measure and as a store of value.”

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Money


23. The modern forms of money include ____________ and ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Paper notes; coins


24. A ____________ is the apex institution of monetary system of a country.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Central Bank (RBI in case of India)


25. Currency (coins and notes) is a ____________ which cannot be refused in payment for transactions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Legal tender money


26. The deposits in a bank which are payable on demand are called ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Demand deposits


27. ____________ is an agreement whereby a financial institution agrees to lend a borrower a maximum amount of money over a given period of time.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Credit


28. ‘Low rate of interest’ is a feature of ____________ credit.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Formal


29. ____________ includes details regarding interest rate, collateral and documentation requirement, and the mode of payment.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Terms of Credit


30. The situation when it becomes impossible to repay the loan and the borrower adds on a new debt to pay the existing one is known as _________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Debt-trap


31. Money eliminates the need for double coincidence of wants. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as money acts as the medium of exchange.


32. Credit card is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name it has been made. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as it is cheque which is a paper instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name it has been made.


33. Informal sector credit includes loans from banks and cooperatives. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as informal sector credit includes loans from friends, relatives, moneylenders, traders etc.


34. Rich households largely depend on informal sources of credit. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as rich households largely depend on formal sources of credit.


35. In formal sector, higher rate of interest is charged. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as higher rate of interest is charged in informal sector and not in the formal sector.


36. In rural areas, the main demand for credit is for building houses. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as in rural areas, the main demand for credit is for crop production.


37. ‘Inculcating saving habits in community’ is an objective of Self Help Groups, (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as the SHGs try to organise rural poor especially to promote the saving habit.


38. What is demonetisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
On November 8, 2016, currency notes of ? 500 and ? 1,000 were declared invalid. People were asked to deposit these notes to the banks by a specific period and receive new currency notes. This is known as demonetisation.


39. List various ways through which digital transactions are made.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Internet or mobile phones, cheques, ATM cards, credit cards, and POS swipe machines.


40. What is the main objective to promote digital transactions?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To reduce the requirement of cash for transcations and also control corruption.


41. What is meant by double coincidence of wants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Double coincidence of wants means owner of good X, say shoes, to find someone else with good Y, say a bag of wheat, and both being in need of each other’s good.


42. What is the meaning of barter system? [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A system where goods are directly exchanged, without the use of money, is called barter system.


43. Define money.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Money is anything which has common acceptability as a means of exchange, a measure and a store of value.


44. Why is money called ‘a medium of exchange’? [All India 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Money acts as an intermediary in the exchange process, thus it is called a medium of exchange.


45. What objects were used as money in India, before the introduction of coins?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Foodgrains and cattle were used as money before the introduction of coins in India.


46. Which metals were used for making coins in India in later stages?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gold, silver and copper coins were used for making coins in later stages in India.


47. Give the modem forms of money.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The modern forms of money include currency-paper notes and coins and plastic money.


48. The modern currency is accepted as a medium of exchange. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is accepted as a medium of exchange because it is authorised by the Government of India.


49. Why one cannot refuse a payment made in mpees in India? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One cannot refuse a payment made in rupees in India because it is authorised by the Indian government.


50. Define a bank.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A bank is a financial institution whose demand deposits are widely accepted as money for making payments and has the power to create money.


51. What are demand deposits?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Deposits in the bank accounts, which can be withdrawn on demand are called demand deposits.


52. What is a cheque? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A cheque is an instrument instructing the bank to pay a specific amount from the person’s account to the person in whose name the cheque has been issued.


53. What determines the main source of income for the banks?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the difference between what is charged from the borrowers and what is paid to the depositors or savers, which determines the income of the banks.


54. Define credit.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Credit or loan refers to an agreement in which the lender supplies the borrower with money, goods or services in return for the promise of future repayment.


55. For what purpose credit is mainly demanded in rural areas?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Credit is mainly demanded for the purpose of crop production in rural areas.


56. What is a debt-trap?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A debt-trap is a situation when it becomes impossible to repay the loan and the borrower adds on a new debt to pay the
existing debt.


57. What is collateral?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Collateral is an asset, such as land, vehicle, building, livestock and deposits with banks, that the borrower owns and uses this as a guarantee to a lender until the loan is repaid.


58. What are the main ‘terms of credit’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Interest rate, collateral, documentation requirements and the mode of repayment together comprise ‘terms of credit’.


59. Which are the two major sources of formal loan for rural households?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Banks and Cooperatives


60. Who supervises the functioning of formal sources of loans?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Reserve Bank of India


61. Why are banks unwilling to lend loans to small farmers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Banks provide loans after collateral and documentation securities, which generally the small farmers fail to comply with.
Therefore, banks are unwilling to give loans to small farmers.


62. What kind of credit is cmcial for a country’s development?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cheap and affordable credit plays a crucial role in a country’s development.


63. Besides banks, what are the other sources of credit from which the small farmers borrow?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Besides banks, the small farmers borrow from landlords, moneylenders, traders, relatives and friends etc.


64. What are SHGs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They are Self-Help Groups formed by the poor rural women.


65. What does the stock of money consist of?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The stock of money consists of currency held by the public and the demand deposits that they hold with the banks.


66. Who issues the currency notes in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In India, the currency notes are issued by the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) on behalf of the central government.


67. For which purpose are a major portion of the deposits with the banks used?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Banks use the maj or portion of their deposits to extend loans.


Fill in the Blanks

1. …………. implies the direct exchange of goods
against goods without the use of money.
2. …………. may be defined as anything which is generally accepted by people in exchange of goods and services or in repayment of debts.
3. In India, the law legalises the use of …………. as a medium of payment that cannot be refused in settling any transaction.
4. Money as a medium of exchange has removed the problem of …………. of wants.
5. Modern forms of money include currencies which are …………. and ………….
6. …………. help in pooling the savings of their members, who are poor women to meet their credit needs.
7. The share of formal sector credit is …………. for the richer households as compared to the poor households in India.
8. Absence of …………. as a guarantee is a major cause that prevents poor people from obtaining loans from formal sector sources, such as commercial banks.

Answers

1. Barter system
2. Money
3. rupee
4. double coincidence
5. paper notes, coins
6. Self Help Groups
7. higher
8. collateral

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Money and Credit with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 3 Money and Credit Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.