MCQ Questions

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 15 Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer

Answer: b

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Our Environment MCQ Question 2. Which of the following is non- biodegradable?
(a) Wool
(b) Nylon
(c) Animal bones
(d) Tea leaves

Answer

Answer: b

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3. Which one of the following will undergo fastest bio-degradation?
(a) Mango seed
(b) Wood
(c) Mango peel
(d) Mango pulp

Answer

Answer: d

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Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 4.

An ecosystem is represented in the figure given above. This ecosystem will be self- sustaining if
(a) the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated.
(b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
(c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms labelled B.
(d) the organisms labelled A are equal in number to the organisms labelled B.

Answer

Answer: b

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MCQ of Our Environment Class 10 Question 5. In an ecosystem, herbivores represent
(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer

Answer: b

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Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 6. Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
(a) oxygen level
(b) water level
(c) energy level
(d) salt level

Answer

Answer: c

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7. A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man.
The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer

Answer: b

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8. First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores

Answer

Answer: c

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MCQ on Our Environment Question 9. Which of the following statements about food chain and energy flow through ecosystem is false?
(a) Food webs include two or more food chains.
(b) All organisms that are not producers are consumers.
(c) A single organism can feed at several trophic levels.
(d) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level.
(e) The lower the trophic level at which an organism feeds, the more energy available.

Answer

Answer: d

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10. Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposerproducer → consumer

Answer

Answer: a

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MCQ on Our Environment Class 10 Question 11. Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer

Answer: c

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12. In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer

Answer: c

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MCQ of Chapter Our Environment Class 10 Question 13. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Pond
(b) Crop field
(c) Lake
(d) Forest

Answer

Answer: b

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14. An ecosystem includes [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living objects
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes nonliving objects

Answer

Answer: c

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15. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-ray s results in [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcer
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: c

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Our Environment MCQ Class 10 Question 16. Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Grass, lion, rabbit
(b) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(c) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(d) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

Answer

Answer: c

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17. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer

Answer

Answer: c

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18. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

Answer: b

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19. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Lake
(b) Forest
(c) Pond
(d) Crop field

Answer

Answer: d

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20. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only
(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Answer

Answer: d

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21. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Answer: c

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22. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: a

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23. Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

Answer: b

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24. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: c

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25. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) decomposer
(d) producer

Answer

Answer: b

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26. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Answer: c

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27. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(a) 4 kJ
(b) 40 kJ
(c) 400 kJ
(d) 4000 kJ

Answer

Answer: d

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28. What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

Answer: d

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29. Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass; Grasshopper
(b) Goat; Spider
(c) Hawk ; Rat
(d) Frog ; Lizard

Answer

Answer: d

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Direction (Q30 to Q34): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
30. Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

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31. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

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32. Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

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33. Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason: Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that fall on the leaves.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

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34. Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non biodegradable waste should be discarded separately,
Reason: Biodegradable waste are not harmful.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

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35. A food chain comprises of frog, snake, grass and grasshopper. The organisms at third trophic level is ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: frog

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36. In an ecosystem, various organisms are linked forming interconnections such a condition is termed as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Food web

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37. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes a reaction which produces ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: O₃

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38. Burning of waste substances usually at high temperature of over 1000° C to convert them into ashes is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Incineration

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39. Animal dung is ___________ waste.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Biodegradable

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40. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is known as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: biomagnification

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41. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: chlorofluorocarbon compounds

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42. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: producers

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43. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: unidirectional

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44. Decomposers get their energy directly from autotrophs. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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45. Ozone layer presents harmful infrared radiation. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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46. Factors such as light, temperature, pressure and humidity are considered as biotic components. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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47. Food chains generally consist of three or four organisms. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

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48. Disposal of waste means recycling of wastes. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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49. The disposal of wastes by putting it in low-lying areas of ground and covering it with earth is called landfill. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

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Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
50.

Column I	Column II
1. Producers	(i) Suspended
2. Primary consumers	(ii) Group of colours
3. Secondary consumers	(iii) Scattering
4. Decomposers	(iv) Changing

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 (iii)
2 (i)
3 (iv)
4 (ii).

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51. We often use the word environment. What does it mean? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the sum total of all external conditions and influences that affect the life and development of an organism, i.e. the environment includes all the physical or abiotic and biological or biotic factors.

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52. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment? [AI2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is necessary to conserve our environment to prevent depletion of natural resources and environmental damage, thereby sustaining life.

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53. Select two non-biodegradable substances from the following wastes generated in a kitchen: spoilt food, paper bags, milk bags, vegetable peels, tin cans, used tea leaves. [Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Milk bags and tin cans.

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54. Why should biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins? [AI 2017(C); Delhi 2013, 15]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes must be discarded in two different dustbins because biodegradable Wastes gets decomposed by the microorganisms whereas non-biodegradable wastes can be recycled and reused.

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55. How should we dispose waste?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable material.

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56. Why is plastic called non-biodegradable?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastic cannot be broken-down into smaller particles by the action of bacteria and hence it is called non-biodegradable.

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57. What is biodegradable plastic?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastics that are decomposed by the action of living organisms such as bacteria are called biodegradable plastic.

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58. Name few biodegradable substances you generate.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Waste food, paper, cloth, etc.

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59. List two natural ecosystems. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two natural ecosystems are forest and river.

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60. List two biotic components of a biosphere. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two biotic components of a biosphere are plants and animals.

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61. Name any two man-made ecosystems. [Foreign 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Agricultural/crop fields, aquaria, gardens. (any two)

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62. Why are green plants called producers? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants can produce their own food by photosynthesis from inorganic compounds and hence are called producers.

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63. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
100 Joules of energy will be available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level.

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64. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Only green plants can make their own food from sunlight. Green plants therefore, always occupy the 1st trophic level in a food chain.

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65. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of the food chains? [AI 2015]
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Herbivores are always at the 2nd trophic level.

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66. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it. [Foreign 2015]
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon is called biomagnification.

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67. List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Secondly, the range of different life forms is also important.

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68. Name two decomposers operating in our cosystem. [AI 2011, Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bacteria and fungi.

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69. In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
10J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer to the tertiary consumer.

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70. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:
Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be available to the deer to transfer it to the lion? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 J energy will be available to deer to transfer it to lion.

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71. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? [AI 2017]
Plants → Deer → Lion

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1,000,000 J of energy was available to the producer.

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72. Which of the following belong to the first trophic level of a food chain?
Grass, Grasshopper, Plants, Rat, Tiger [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Grass and plants belong to the 1st trophic level of a food chain.

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73. What are the various steps in a food chain called? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The various steps in a food chain are called trophic levels.

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74. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment. [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The pesticides used in crop field are washed down into the water bodies. From water bodies, these are absorbed by the aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and thereby degrades the environment.

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75. When plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment and some amount goes in carrying out various life processes. State the average percentage of energy lost in this manner. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The average percentage of energy lost when plants are eaten by primary consumers is 90%.

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76. Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer. [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: CFC → Chlorofluorocarbon

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77. What is a consumer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Organisms which depend upon producers for food.

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78. What happens to Sun’s energy that fall on green plants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants absorb 1% of Sun’s energy that falls on their leaves.

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79. How much energy one trophic level gets from another?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Each trophic level makes 10% energy available to next trophic level.

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80. What happens when a harmful chemical enters a food chain?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Its concentration increases with increase in trophic level.

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81. Why does energy available at each trophic level diminish progressively?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Energy available at each trophic level diminishes progressively due to loss of energy at each level.

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82. Define Ozone hole. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Decline in the thickness of ozone layer in Antartica is termed as ozone hole.

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83. Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen. [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ozone and its chemical formula is O₃.

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84. Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFCs depletes the ozone layer around the earth, hence its production is controlled by United Nations.

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85. Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to a depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.

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86. What is the full form of CFC and UNEP? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFC: Chlorofloro carbon.
UNEP: United Nation Environmental Programmes.

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87. Some time back, Kulhadas, that is disposable cups made up of clay, were suggested as an alternative. Why Kulhads are not being used in trains now? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Manufacturing Kulhads on large scale would result in the depletion of fertile top soil making the land inadequate for the cultivation of crops.

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Fill in the Blanks

1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of time by the action of micro-organisms are called …….. wastes.
2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called …….. .
3. …….. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 …….. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on …….. molecule.
6. …….. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Answers

1. biodegradable
2. non-biodegradable wastes
3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
5. oxygen (O₂)
6. Consumers

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Consumer Rights MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 5 Consumer Rights

Consumer Rights Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Why do we need to have set rules and regulations for consumer rights?
(a) To protect and promote the interest of the consumers against unethical and unfair trade practices.
(b) To bring discipline in the country.
(c) To provide police protection to consumers during a dispute with the sellers.
(d) Its aim is to make all the sellers fair and honest.

Answer

Answer: a

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Multiple Choice Questions on Consumer Rights Question 2. When was the Consumer Protection Act passed in India?
(a) 1968
(b) 1986
(c) 1984
(d) 1976

Answer

Answer: b

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Multiple Choice Questions on Consumer Rights and Responsibilities Question 3. In which year did the United Nations adopt the guidelines for consumer protection?
(a) 1960
(b) 1988
(c) 1985
(d) 1999

Answer

Answer: c

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CBSE Class 10 Economics Chapter 5 MCQ Question 4. When was the ‘Right to Information’ Act passed?
(a) October 2005
(b) March 2006
(c) December 2007
(d) September 2003

Answer

 

CBSE Class 10 Chapter Consumer Rights Objective Questions and Answer: a

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Which of The Following Does Not Fall Under Consumer Rights Question 5. What was the cause of the rise of consumer movement?
(a) The movement started to help consumers to form a group to protest against price rise.
(b) The movement grew out of consumers dissatisfaction due to unfair practices of sellers.
(c) The movement grew out of the satisfaction enjoyed by the consumers for fair practices of the sellers.
(d) The movement was started to help the sellers to promote their own interest and cheat consumers.

Answer

Answer: b

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Question 6. What can be the maximum claim amount at the district level of the consumer court?
(a) Less than ₹1 lakh
(b) ₹1 crore
(c) Upto ₹20 lakhs
(d) Above ₹1 crore

Answer

Answer: c

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Class 10 Consumer Rights MCQ Question 7. Which one of the following does not provide certificate of standardization in India?
(a) ISI
(b) Agmark
(c) Hallmark
(d) COPRA

Answer

Answer: d

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MCQ on Consumer Rights and Protection Question 8. When is ‘National Consumers’ Day’ celebrated in India?
(a) 26^th January
(b) 22^nd October
(c) 24^th December
(d) 25^th December

Answer

Answer: c

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Question 9. The quasi-judicial machinery set up at the highest level for redressal of consumer disputes is:
(a) The District Forum
(b) The State Consumer Commission
(c) Consumers International
(d) National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission

Answer

Answer: d

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MCQ Questions on Consumer Awareness Question 10. What was the name given to the agency at the global level for the protection of consumer rights?
(a) Consumer Court of Justice
(b) International Consumer Forum
(c) Consumers Commission
(d) Consumers International

Answer

Answer: d

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Which of The Following Is Not a Function of Consumer Organisations NGOs MCQ Question 11. Which of the following is not a function of Consumer Protection Councils?
(a) To create awareness of consumer rights among consumers.
(b) To guide consumers on how to file cases in consumer courts.
(c) To provide compensation to consumers when they are cheated by shopkeepers.
(d) To represent consumers in Consumer Courts at times.

Answer

Answer: c

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We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Consumer Rights with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 5 Consumer Rights Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Globalisation and the Indian Economy MCQs with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 Question MCQ 1. Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is called:
(a) Liberalisation
(b) Investment
(c) Fovourable trade
(d) Free trade

Answer

Answer: a

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CBSE Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ Question 2. Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as:
(a) Privatisation
(b) Globalisation
(c) Liberalisation
(d) Socialisation

Answer

Answer: b

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MCQ Of Globalisation And Indian Economy Question 3. Globalisation has led to improvement in living conditions:
(a) of all the people
(b) of people in the developed countries
(c) of workers in the developing countries
(d) none of the above.

Answer

Answer: c

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MCQ On Globalisation And The Indian Economy Question 4. Which one of the following Indian indus¬tries has been hit hard by globalisation?
(a) Information Technology (IT)
(b) Toy making
(c) Jute
(d) Cement

Answer

Answer: b

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MCQ On Globalisation Class 10 Question 5. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the initiative of which one of the following group of countries?
(a) Rich countries
(b) Poor countries
(c) Developed countries
(d) Developing countries

Answer

Answer: c

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MCQ On Globalisation Question 6. Which of the following organisations lays stress on liberalisation of foreign trade and foreign investment?
(a) International Labour Organisation
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) World Health Organisation
(d) World Trade Oraganisation

Answer

Answer: d

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Globalisation MCQ Class 10 Question 7. Investments made by MNCs are termed as:
(a) Indigenous investment
(b) Foreign investment
(c) Entrepreneur’s investment
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b

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Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 8. Which of the following is not a feature of a Multi-National Company?
(a) It owns/controls production in more than one nation.
(b) It sets up factories where it is close to the markets.
(c) It organises production in complex ways.
(d) It employs labour only from its own country.

Answer

Answer: d

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Globalisation Class 10 MCQ Question 9. Tax on imports is an example of:
(a) Terms of Trade
(b) Collateral
(c) Trade Barriers
(d) ForeignTrade

Answer

Answer: c

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MCQ Of Chapter 4 Economics Class 10 Question 10. Which one of the following is not characteristic of‘Special Economic Zone’?
(a) They do not have to pay taxes for long period.
(b) Government has allowed flexibility in labour laws.
(c) They have world class facilities.
(d) They do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

Answer

Answer: a

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Globalisation And The Indian Economy MCQ Question 11. Companies who set up production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs) do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of:
(a) 2 years
(b) 5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 10 years

Answer

Answer: b

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MCQ On Globalization Pdf Question 12. It refers to the globalisation which creates opportunities for all and ensures that its benefits are better shared.
(a) Privatisation
(b) Special Economic Zones (SEZs)
(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(d) Fair globalisation

Answer

Answer: d

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Globalisation MCQ Question 13. An MNC is a company that owns or controls production in
(a) one country
(b) more than one country
(c) only developing countries
(d) only developed countries

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ Of Chapter Globalisation And Indian Economy Question 14. The process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries through free trade, free mobility of capital and labour is called
(a) Foreign trade
(b) Liberalisation
(c) Globalisation
(d) Privatisation

Answer

Answer: c

---

Objective Type Questions On Globalization Question 15. What was the main channel connecting countries in the past?
(a) Labour
(b) Religion
(c) Technology
(d) Trade

Answer

Answer: d

---

Multiple Choice Questions On Globalisation Question 16. ‘The impact of Globalisation has not been fair.’ Who among the following people have not benefitted from globalisation?
(a) Well off consumers
(b) Small producers and workers
(c) Skilled and educated producers
(d) Large wealthy producers

Answer

Answer: b

---

Class 10 Economics Chapter 4 MCQ With Answers Question 17. What is the main motive behind the investments of MNCs?
(a) The main motive is to increase their assets and earn profits.
(b) The main motive is the welfare of the poor people.
(c) The main motive of an MNCs is to offer financial support to the government of their country.
(d) The main motive is to benefit foreign countries.

Answer

Answer: a

---

MCQs On Globalisation Class 10 Question 18. “MNCs keep in mind certain factors before setting up production”. Identify the incorrect option from the choices given below
(a) Availability of cheap skilled and unskilled labour
(b) Proximity to markets
(c) Presence of a large number of local competitors
(d) Favourable government policies

Answer

Answer: c

---

Globalization MCQs With Answers Question 19. WTiich Indian company was bought over by Cargill Foods—a large American MNC? Pick out the name from the alternatives provided
(a) Amul
(b) Fun Foods Ltd.
(c) Agro Tech Foods Ltd.
(d) Parakh Foods

Answer

Answer: d

---

MCQ On Economics Class 10 With Answers Question 20. WTiich organisation supports liberalisation of foreign trade and investments in India?
(a) International Labour Organisation (ILO)
(b) World Bank
(c) World Trade Organisation (WTO)
(d) International Monetary Fund (IMF)

Answer

Answer: c

---

Globalization MCQ Question 21. In which year did the government decide to remove barriers on foreign trade and investment in India?
(a) 1993
(b) 1992
(c) 1991
(d) 1990

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQ On Globalization Question 22. Which of the following industries have been hard hit by foreign competition?
(a) Dairy products
(b) Leather industry
(c) Cloth industry
(d) Vehicle industry

Answer

Answer: a

---

MCQ On Globalisation And Liberalisation Question 23. _____________ refers to all those different economic reforms or policy measures and changes which aim at increasing the productivity and efficiency by creating an environment of competition in the economy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: New Economic Policy

---

Economics Class 10 MCQ Question 24. Indian government felt the need for removing barriers on foreign trade and foreign investment in ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 1991

---

Globalization Multiple Choice Questions And Answers Question 25. A _____________ is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation/country.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Multinational Corporation (MNC)

---

Globalisation And The Indian Economy Class 10 Questions Answers Question 26. _____________ refers to exchange of goods, i.e., purchase and sale, across geographical boundaries of the countries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Foreign trade

---

27. The main aim of World Trade Organisation is _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: To liberalise international trade

---

28. ‘Increased job opportunities’ is an impact of _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Globalisation

---

29. The industrial zones which are set up to attract the foreign investment are known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Special Economic Zones (SEZs)

---

30. ‘Increase in GNP’ is a positive impact of liberalisation. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as with the trade and investment barriers being removed, international trade and investments would get promoted.

---

31. ‘Deregulation of Industries’ is a feature of economic reforms introduced in 1991 in India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as the government imposes less restrictions and is more liberal.

---

32. Rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as socialisation. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as rapid integration or interconnection between countries is known as globalisation.

---

33. World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the initiative of developing countries. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as World Trade Organisation (WTO) was started at the initiative of developed countries.

---

34. ‘Ensuring that rules are being followed’ is a function of World Trade Organisation. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
True, as it is an international body looking after the free-trade between the numbers.

---

35. As on July 2016, 175 countries are the members of World Trade Organisation. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as on July 2016, nearly 165 countries are the members of World Trade Organisation.

---

36. UNICEF is one such organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
False, as WTO is one such organisation whose aim is to liberalise international trade and not UNICEF.

---

37. Define a Multinational Corporation (MNC).

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A Multinational Corporation (MNC) is a company that owns or controls production in more than one nation.

---

38. Why do MNCs set up their offices and factories in those regions where they get cheap labour and other resources? [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To redu.ee their cost of production and increase their profits.

---

39. Define investment.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machines and other equipments is called investment.

---

40. What is foreign investment?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Investment made by MNCs to buy assets like land, building, machines and other equipments is called foreign investment.

---

41. Mention two benefits that local companies get when they set up production units in association with the MNCs.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The benefits that local companies can get are:
(a) MNCs can provide money for additional investment like buying latest and new machines for faster production.
(b ) MNCs might bring the latest technology of production with them.

---

42. How are the MNCs spreading their production across the globe?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
MNCs are spreading their production across the globe by setting up partnerships with local companies, by using the local companies for supplies and by closely competing with local companies or buying them up.

---

43. What happens to the sales of the Indian toys when Chinese toys invade the domestic market?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
As a result of the invasion of Chinese toys in the domestic market, the sale of Indian toys fall.

---

44. Define globalisation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Globalisation is the process of rapid integration or interconnection between countries.

---

45. Due to which reason the latest models of different items are available within our reach? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Due to Globalisation, the latest variety of different items is available within our reach.

---

46. Give one major factor that has stimulated the globalisation process.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rapid improvement in technology has stimulated the globalisation process.

---

47. What is meant by trade barrier? [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Tax on imports by the government is called trade barrier. It is called a barrier because some restrictions have been set up.

---

48. How government can use trade barriers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Government can use trade barriers to increase or decrease foreign trade and to decide what kind of goods and how much of each good should come into the country.

---

49. Why had the Indian Government put barriers to foreign trade and foreign investment after independence? State any one reason. [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To save domestic producers from international competition so that they may develop.

---

50. Why did the Indian Government remove barriers to a large extent on foreign trade and foreign investment? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Indian Government felt that time has come for Indian producers to compete in international markets.

---

51. What is liberalisation? [All India 2017(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Removing barriers or restrictions set by the government is known as liberalisation.

---

52. What is the aim of World Trade Organisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The aim of World Trade Organisation is to liberalise international trade.

---

53. How many countries of the world were members of the World Trade Organisation in July 2016?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
As on July 2016, about 165 countries of the world were the members of the World Trade Organisation.

---

54. Who forced the developing countries to remove the trade barriers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
World Trade Organisation (WTO) forced the developing countries to remove the trade barriers.

---

55. How has globalisation benefited the well- off consumers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Globalisation benefited the well-off consumers as there is greater choice before these consumers who now enjoy improved quality and lower prices for several products. As a result, these consumers, today, enjoy much higher standards of living than was possible earlier.

---

56. What are the benefits of goods or products produced by the MNCs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The goods or products produced by the MNCs have a larger number of well-off buyers. In MNCs, new jobs have been created. Also, local companies supplying raw materials etc. to these industries have prospered.

---

57. Give two examples of Indian Companies which have emerged as Multinational Companies.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Infosys (IT) and Tata Motors (automobiles)

---

58. Which industries have been hit hard by the competition?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Industries which have been hit hard by the competition are small-scale industries.

---

59. What are SEZs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Indian government has taken special steps to attract the foreign investors to invest in India. Industrial Zones called Special Economic Zones (SEZs) are being set up for the same purpose. SEZs are to have world class facilities such as electricity, water, roads and transport.

---

60. What special benefit is offered to the companies setting up their production units in the Special Economic Zones (SEZs)?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The companies which set up their production units in the SEZs, do not have to pay taxes for an initial period of five years.

---

61. What do you mean by fair globalisation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Fair globalisation means creating opportunities for all. It also ensures better sharing of the benefits of globalisation.

---

62. What do you think can be done so that trade between countries is more fair?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
All countries should remove trade barriers to make for a fair international trade. Developed countries should desist from forcing the developing countries in agreements which they themselves may not obey.

---

63. Differentiate between investment and foreign investment. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The money that is spent to buy assets such as land, building, machine and other equipments is known as investment whereas investment made by a MNC is known as foreign investment.

---

64. What is the basic function of foreign trade?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Foreign trade creates an opportunity for the producers to reach beyond the domestic market, i.e., markets of their own countries.

---

65. What prompts people to move from one country to another?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
People usually move from one country to another in search of better income, jobs and education.

---

66. Which factor is responsible for the faster delivery of goods across the world in recent times?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Improvement in transportation technology.

---

67. After independence, which items were allowed to be imported by the government of India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The government of India allowed imports of only essential items such as machinery, fertilizers, petroleum etc. after independence.

---

68. After independence, which items were allowed to be imported by the government of India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
MNCs have been interested in industries such as cell phones, automobiles, electronics, softdrinks and fast food.

---

69. What has brought about the availability of greater choice of goods in the market for the consumers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The entry of MNCs in the market has led to the availability of greater choice of goods for the consumers.

---

70. In which two different forms do we participate in the market?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
We participate as producers and consumers in the market.

---

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Globalisation and the Indian Economy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Economics Chapter 4 Globalisation and the Indian Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Minerals and Energy Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Minerals need to be conserved because
(i) They are renewable.
(ii) They are depleting rapidly.
(Hi) They are needed for country’s industrial development.
(iv) Their formation is very fast.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (Hi)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: b

---

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ Question 2. Which of the following statements are incorrect with regard to placer deposits?
(i) They occur as alluvial deposits.
(ii) They are corroded by water.
(iii) They occur in ocean beds.
(iv) They are found in sands of the valley floors and the base of hills.
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (iii) and (iv)
(d) (i) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 3. The Hazira – Vij aipur – Jagdishpur pipeline . does not pass through this state.
(a) Uttar Pradesh
(b) Gujarat
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: d

---

Mineral And Energy Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 4. Low grade brown coal is called
(a) Magnetite
(b) Bauxite
(c) Lignite
(d) Limonite

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQ Of Minerals And Energy Resources Question 5. Which of the following states is the oldest producer of oil?
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Assam
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

Answer

Answer: b

---

Class 10 Geography Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 6. Metallurgical coal used in the smelting of iron ore is
(a) Anthracite
(b) Bituminous
(c) Lignite
(d) Peat

Answer

Answer: b

---

Class 10 Geography Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 7. Which one of the following states is the leading producer of Iron ore?
(a) Chhattisgarh
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Karnataka
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQ Of Chapter Minerals And Energy Resources Question 8. Kakrapara nuclear power station is located in the state of
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Andhra Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Gujarat

Answer

Answer: d

---

MCQ On Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 9. Which one of the following is a non- metallic mineral? [All India 2012]
(a) Lead
(b) Copper
(c) Tin
(d) Limestone

Answer

Answer: d

---

MCQ Questions On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 10. Kudremukh is an important Iron Ore mine of
(a) Kerala
(ft) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: c

---

Minerals And Energy Resources MCQ Question 11. Which of the following minerals is mined at Balaghat mines?
(a) Manganese
(b) Aluminium
(c) Copper
(d) Limestone

Answer

Answer: a

---

MCQ Chapter 5 Geography Class 10 Question 12. Which of the following is an offshore oil field?
(a) Ankaleshwar
(b) Digboi
(c) Kalol
(d) Mumbai High

Answer

Answer: d

---

Class 10 Geography Chapter 5 MCQ With Answers Question 13. Which one of the following minerals is formed by decomposition of rocks, leaving a residual mass of weathered material? (Textbook)
(a) Coal
(b) Bauxite
(c) Gold
(d) Zinc

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ For Minerals And Energy Resources Question 14. Koderma, in Jharkhand, is the leading producer of which one of the following minerals? (Textbook)
(a) Bauxite
(b) Mica
(c) Iron ore
(d) Copper

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ Of Chapter Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 15. Minerals are deposited and accumulated in the stratas of which of the following rocks?
(a) Sedimentary rocks
(b) Igneous rocks
(c) Metamorphic rocks
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a

---

Minerals MCQ Question 16. Which one of the following minerals is contained in the Monazite sand? (Textbook)
(a) Oil
(b) Uranium
(c) Thorium
(d) Coal

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQs On Minerals And Energy Resources Question 17. Which one of the following is a ferrous metal?
(a) copper
(b) manganese
(c) coal
(d) bauxite

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ On Minerals Question 18. Which one of the following is a non-metal?
(a) gold
(b) silver
(c) mica
(d) platinum

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQ Minerals And Energy Resources Question 19. Large occurrences of minerals in cracks, crevices, faults in igneous and metamorphic rocks are called:
(a) Layers
(b) Veins
(c) Lodes
(d) Chamber

Answer

Answer: c

---

Minerals And Energy Resources Question Answers Question 20. Mineral deposits that occur as alluvial deposits in sands of valley floors are called:
(a) Placer deposits
(b) Lodes
(c) Reserve
(d) Layers

Answer

Answer: a

---

Minerals And Energy Resources Class 10 Question 21. How many kilograms of manganese is required to manufacture one tonne of steel?
(a) 2 kgs
(b) 11 kgs
(c) 10 kgs
(d) 20 kgs

Answer

Answer: c

---

Multiple Choice Questions On Minerals Question 22. Most of India’s mineral reserves are found in
(a) Himalayan region
(b) Coastal region
(c) Peninsular rocks
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c

---

23. Which is the finest quality iron ore in terms of iron content?
(a) Hematite
(b) Magnetite
(c) Siderite
(d) Limonite

Answer

Answer: b

---

24. Which state is the largest producer of j manganese ore in India?
(a) Karnataka
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Orissa
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: c

---

25. Which among the following is a 100 per cent ‘export-oriented’ iron ore mine of India?
(a) Kendujhar in Orissa
(b) Bailadila range of Chhattisgarh
(c) Ratnagiri of Maharashtra
(d) Kudremukh mines of Karnataka

Answer

Answer: d

---

26. India is deficient in which of the following minerals?
(a) Iron ore
(b) Coal
(c) Copper
(d) Mica

Answer

Answer: c

---

27. Which of the following are copper mines of India?
(a) Ratnagiri and Bailadila
(b) Jharia and Raniganj
(c) Balaghat and Khetri
(d) Tarapur and Kakrapara

Answer

Answer: c

---

28. Which is the largest bauxite producing state of India?
(a) Orissa
(b) Goa I
(c) Sikkim
(d) Bihar

Answer

Answer: a

---

29. Limestone is the basic raw material of
(a) Paper industry
(b) Cement industry
(c) Sugar industry
(d) Textile industry

Answer

Answer: b

---

30. Balaghat mines in Rajasthan are famous for
(a) Iron ore
(b) Mica
(c) Copper
(d) Limestone

Answer

Answer: c

---

31. Mica is used in electric and electronic industries because
(a) of its insulating properties and resistance to high voltage
(b) it is a good conductor of electricity
(c) of its great malleability
(d) of its sonorous nature

Answer

Answer: a

---

32. Gondwana coal deposits are found in
(a) Ganga valley
(b) Damodar valley
(c) Kaveri delta
(d) Narmada valley

Answer

Answer: b

---

33. Tertiary coals occur in the
(a) North-western states
(b) Coastal states
(c) North-eastern states
(d) Southern states

Answer

Answer: c

---

34. Neyveli lignite mines are located in the State of:
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Karnataka
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b

---

35. In which region of India tidal energy is produced?
(a) Gulf of Kuchchh
(b) Puga Valley of Ladakh
(c) Gulf of Cambay
(d) Madhapur near Bhuj

Answer

Answer: a

---

36. Electricity produced from the heat of the earth’s interior is
(a) Geothermal energy
(b) Solar energy
(c) Hydel energy
(d) Nuclear energy

Answer

Answer: a

---

37. Uranium and thorium used for generating nuclear power are found in
(a) Godavari Basin
(b) Gulf of Cambay
(c) Manikarn in Himachal Pradesh
(d) Aravalli ranges of Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: d

---

38. Nearly 10 kg of ____________ is required to manufacture one tonne of steel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: manganese

---

39. ____________ in India has ideal conditions for utilising tidal energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gulf of Kuchchh

---

40. ____________ is the most important lignite mine of Tamil Nadu.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Neyveli

---

41. Minerals are generally found in ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: ores

---

42. About 63% of India’s petroleum production comes from ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Mumbai High

---

43. Kalpakkam is the nuclear power plant located in Tamil Nadu. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

44. The plant using cow dung is known as Gobar Gas Plant. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

45. Parvati Valley is the leading producer of Solar energy. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

---

46. The Bailadila Hills look like the hump of a camel. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

---

47. The full form of CNG Compressed Natural Gas. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

48. Match the columns

Column A	Column B
(a) Manganese	(i) Electrical industries
(b) Copper	(ii) Karnataka
(c) Mica	(iii) West Bengal
(d) Limestone	(iv) Madhya Pradesh
(e) Coal	(v) Cement

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (i)
(d) (v)
(e) (iv)

---

49. What are minerals?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Minerals are homogeneous naturally occurring substances normally found in solid, liquid and gaseous state.

---

50. How do minerals occur in Igneous and Metamorphic rocks? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In Igneous and Metamorphic rocks, minerals may occur in the cracks, crevices, faults and joints.

---

51. Which rock consists of a single mineral? [Delhi 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Limestone

---

52. Mention any two properties used by geologists to classify minerals.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Geologists use the following properties to classify minerals.
(a) Colour
(b) Hardness
(c) Crystal forms
(d) Lustre
(e) Density (any two)

---

53. State the types of minerals.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Minerals are either metallic or non-metallic.

---

54. Give two examples of the following.
(a) Ferrous minerals
(b) Non-ferrous minerals
(c) Non-metallic minerals
(d) Energy minerals

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Ferrous minerals →Iron-one, Cobalt, Nickel, Manganese
(b) Non-ferrous minerals → Copper, lead, Zinc, Bauxite
(c) Non-Metallic → Mica, salt, potash, sulphur, granite, limestone, marble, sandstone
(d) Energy minerals → coal, petroleum, natural gas (any two from each)

---

55. What are ores?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The term ore is used to describe an accumulation of any mineral mixed with other elements.

---

56. What determines the extraction of minerals?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The type of formation or structure in which the minerals are found determines the extraction of minerals.

---

57. Define ‘Veins’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Smaller occurrences of minerals are called veins.

---

58. What are ‘lodes’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The larger deposits of minerals in the igneous and metamorphic rocks are called lodes.

---

59. Which type of minerals are mainly obtained from veins and lodes? [All India 2017(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The minerals obtained from veins and lodes are tin, copper, zinc, lead etc.

---

60. Where do the minerals in the sedimentary rocks occur?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Minerals in the sedimentary rocks occur in beds or layers.

---

61. In the horizontal strata of which rocks are the minerals deposited and accumulated?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sedimentary rocks

---

32. Name any two minerals formed as a result of evaporation in arid regions.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gypsum, potash salt and sodium salt (any two)

---

63. How is bauxite formed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bauxite is formed because of the decomposition of surface rocks and removal of soluble constituents leaving a residual mass of weathered material containing bauxite ore.

---

64. What are placer deposits? [All India 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Certain minerals may occur as alluvial deposits in the sands of the valley floors and the base of hills.

---

65. Give any two examples of minerals found in the ‘placer deposits’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gold, Silver, Tin and Platinum (any two)

---

66. Name any two minerals derived from the ocean water?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Magnesium, common salt, bromine (any two)

---

67. Which region of India is almost devoid of economic minerals?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The alluvial plains of north India are devoid of economic minerals.

---

68. Name the finest quality of iron ore with magnetic qualities.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Magnetite is the finest quality of iron ore with magnetic qualities.

---

69. Which type of iron ore is mostly used by industries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Haematite

---

70. In which state are the Bailadila mines located?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Bailadila mines are located in the state of Chhattisgarh.

---

71. Mention any two uses of Manganese Ore.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Manganese ore is used:
(a) For the making of iron and steel and preparing alloys.
(b) To manufacture bleaching powder, insecticides, paints and batteries.

---

72. Besides steel, name two other industries which use large amounts of manganese.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bleaching powder and paints

---

73. Name the largest manganese producing state of India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Odisha

---

74. In which mineral reserve is India critically deficient?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
India is critically deficient in copper.

---

75. In which state of India are the Balaghat copper mines situated?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh

---

76. In which state of India are the Khetri Copper mines situated?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rajasthan

---

77. Why does aluminium metal have great importance? [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Aluminium is an important metal because of its quality of extreme lightness, good conductivity and great malleability.

---

78. What are the main features of Mica which make it indispensable?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The essential features of mica that make it indispensable are its electric strength, insu-lating properties and resistance to high voltage.

---

79. For which mineral is Koderma in Jharkhand, a leading producer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Mica

---

80. Name the belt which is a leading producer of Mica?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Koderma-Gaya-Hazaribagh belt is the leading producer of Mica.

---

81. What is referred to as a ‘killer industry’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mining is referred to as a killer industry.

---

82. Why is energy needed? Write one reason. [Delhi 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Energy is needed for activities like cooking, lightening, heating, driving etc.

---

83. Which type of coal is most popular for commercial use?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bituminous coal

---

84. Name the highest quality of hard coal.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Anthracite is the highest quality of hard coal.

---

85. Coal of which geological age is found in north-eastern India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Coal of the tertiary age is found in the north-eastern parts of India.

---

86. Name any two important oil fields in Assam.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two important oil fields in Assam are:
(a) Digboi
(b) Naharkatiya
(c) Moran
(d) Hygrijan. (any two)

---

87. Name one environment friendly fuel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Natural gas is an environment friendly fuel.

---

88. Which industries are the key users of natural gas?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The power and fertilizer industries are the key users of natural gas.

---

89. Per capita consumption of which energy is considered as an index of development?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Per capita consumption of electricity is considered as an index of development.

---

90. Name the type of electricity generated by burning fossil fuels.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The electricity generated by burning fossil fuels is called thermal electricity.

---

91. Which mineral is found in the Monazite sands?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Thorium is found in Monazite sands.

---

92. In which state is the largest wind farm cluster located?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Tamil Nadu

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93. Name any two regions in India ideal for utilising tidal energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gulf of Khambhat, Gulf of Kuchch in Gujarat on the western coast and the Gangetic delta in Sunderbans regions of West Bengal. (any two)

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94. What do you mean by Geothermal Energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the heat and electricity produced by using the heat from the interior of the earth.

---

95. Which non-conventional source of energy is harnessed in the Parvati valley near Manikam in Himachal Pradesh?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Geothermal Energy is harnessed in the Parvati valley near Manikam in Himachal Pradesh.

---

96. Give two examples of non-metallic minerals.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two examples of non-metallic minerals are limestone, nitrate, potash, mica, gypsum, coal, petroleum. (any two)

---

97. Which mineral is indispensable for electric and electronic industries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mica is indispensable for electric and electronic industries.

---

98. Name the type of coal mining carried on in Meghalaya.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Coal mining is Meghalaya (Cherapunjee) is done by family members in the form of a long narrow tunnel known as ‘Rate hole’ mining.

---

99. Where is an experimental geothermal energy project located in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
An experimental geo-thermal energy project is located in the Puga valley, Ladakh.

---

100. Which mineral is mined at Balaghat mines?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Manganese

---

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Minerals and Energy Resources with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 5 Minerals and Energy Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Manufacturing Industries Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Which one of the following cities has emerged as the ‘electronic capital’ of India?[All India 2012]
(a) Delhi
(b) Kolkata
(c) Bengaluru
(d) Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: c

---

2. Which one of the following factors plays the most important role in the location of an industry in a particular region? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Raw material
(b) Market
(c) Least production cost
(d) Transport

Answer

Manufacturing Industries Class 10 MCQ With Answer: c

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3. Which of the following industries is not a heavy industriy.
(a) Cotton textile
(b) Cement
(c) Iron and Steel
(d) Ship building

Answer

Answer: a

---

4. Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computer, etc.?
(a) Cement
(b) Iron and Steel
(c) Electronic
(d) Chemical

Answer

Answer: c

---

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ Question 5. Which one of the following public sector plants is located in Chhattisgarh? [Foreign 2011]
(a) Bokaro Steel Plant
(b) Bhilai Steel Plant
(c) Durgapur Steel Plant
(d) Rourkela Steel Plant

Answer

Answer: b

---

6. Which one of the following agencies, markets steel for the public sector plants?
(a) HAIL
(b) SAIL
(c) TATA Steel
(d) MNCC

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. Which one of the following is not a centre of Automobile industry ?
(a) Chennai
(b) Bengaluru
(c) Jamshedpur
(d) Coimbatore

Answer

Answer: d

---

8. Leading centre of woollen textile industry in Punjab
(a) Kanpur
(b) Ludhiana
(c) Murshidabad
(d) Panipat

Answer

Answer: d

---

9. TISCO is
(a) Joint Sector Industry
(b) Private Sector Industry
(c) Co-operative Sector Industry
(d) Public Sector Industry

Answer

Answer: b

---

10. Iron and Steel industry requires Iron ore, coking coal and limestone in which of the following proportions?
(a) 2 : 3 : 1
(b) 4 : 2 : 1
(c) 1 : 2 : 3
(d) 2 : 3 : 4

Answer

Answer: b

---

11. Which one of the following industries uses limestone as a raw material? (Textbook)
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Sugar
(d) Jute

Answer

Answer: b

---

12. Which one of the following agencies markets steel for the public sector plants? (Textbook)
(a) HAIL
(b) SAIL
(c) Tata Steel
(d) MNCC

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ Of Manufacturing Industries Question 13. Which one of the following industries uses bauxite as a raw material? (Textbook)
(a) Aluminium
(b) Cement
(c) Jute
(d) Steel

Answer

Answer: d

---

14. Which one of the following industries manufactures telephones, computers, etc.?
(a) Steel
(b) Electronic
(c) Aluminium
(d) Information Technology

Answer

Answer: b

---

15. The processing of raw material into more valuable products falls under the category of
(a) Secondary activities
(b) Tertiary activities
(c) Primary activities
(d) None of the above

Answer

Class 10 Geography Chapter 6 MCQ With Answer: a

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16. Which of the following statements regarding manufacturing is not true?
(a) Manufacturing helps in modernising agriculture.
(b) Development of manufacturing industries is a precondition for eradication of unemployment and poverty.
(c) Export of manufactured goods expands trade and commerce and brings in much needed foreign exchange.
(d) Manufacturing puts the country into a debt trap.

Answer

Answer: d

---

17. Which one of the following does not influence industrial location?
(a) Raw material
(b) Capital and power
(c) Market and labour
(d) Underground railway line

Answer

Answer: d

---

MCQ Questions On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 18. Industries that use minerals as raw material are called
(a) Agro-based industries
(b) Forest-based industries
(c) Basic industries
(d) Mineral-based industries

Answer

Answer: d

---

19. Cotton textile industry is a
(a) Forest-based industry
(b) Key industry
(c) Agro-based industry
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c

---

20. The industries that produce goods for direct use by consumers are called
(a) Key industry
(b) Small-scale industry
(c) Consumer industry
(d) Heavy industry

Answer

Answer: c

---

21. The first cotton mill of India was set up in
(a) Ahmedabad
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Coimbatore

Answer

Answer: c

---

22. Which country is the major importer of Indian yarn?
(a) Indonesia
(b) Bhutan
(c) Japan
(d) Spain

Answer

Answer: c

---

23. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding spinning sector in India?
(a) Spinning mills are mostly located in Maharashtra, Gujarat and Tamil Nadu.
(b) India has world-class production in spinning.
(c) Our spinning mills are capable of using all the fibres we produce.
(d) Most of the yam we produce is used by our local weavers.

Answer

Answer: d

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24. Most of India’s jute mills are located on the banks of
(a) Alaknanda river
(b) Son river
(c) Hooghly river
(d) Yamuna river

Answer

Answer: c

---

25. Which of the following is not a private sector industry?
(a) Dabur Industries
(b) Bajaj Auto Ltd.
(c) SAIL
(d) TISCO

Answer

Answer: c

---

26. The first cement plant was set up in India in 1904 in
(a) Jamshedpur
(b) Hyderabad
(c) Nagpur
(d) Chennai

Answer

Answer: d

---

27. Which marketing body does all public sector undertakings market their steel through?
(a) TISCO
(b) NTPC
(c) SAIL
(d) BHEL

Answer

Answer: c

---

28. Which are the two prime factors for the location of aluminium industry?
(a) Market and labour
(b) Transport network and water supply
(c) Cheap and regular supply of electricity and bauxite
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c

---

29. Which two states are more famous for their cotton textile industry?
(a) Jammu & Kashmir and Punjab
(b) Maharashtra and Gujarat
(c) Kerala and Tamil Nadu.
(d) Assam and West Bengal

Answer

Answer: b

---

30. Most of the integrated steel plants in India are located in
(a) Malwa Plateau
(b) Bundelkhand Plateau
(c) Meghalaya Plateau
(d) Chotanagpur Plateau

Answer

Answer: d

---

MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Question 31. The Software Technology Parks are set up by the government to provide
(a) Skilled software professionals
(b) Capital to start a software company
(c) Single window service and high-speed data communication facility to software experts
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c

---

32. Air pollution is caused by
(a) Organic and inorganic industrial effluents discharged into rivers.
(b) Presence of high proportion of sulphur dioxide, carbon monoxide and air-borne particulate materials.
(c) Unwanted sounds from industries, generators, saws and pneumatic and electric drills.
(d) Overdrawing of groundwater.

Answer

Answer: b

---

33. Which of the following are the major water polluting industries?
(i) Tanneries
(ii) Chemical industries Brick kilns
(iii) Refineries
(iv) Brick kilns
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (iii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: a

---

MCQ Of Chapter Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 34. Which of the following factors are not necessary to set up an iron and steel plant?
(a) Proximity to iron-ore mines
(b) Availability of coking coal
(c) Good resources of limestone and manganese
(d) Nearness to a water body to discharge wastes

Answer

Answer: d

---

35. In which State is the Bhilai Steel Plant located?
(a) Bihar
(b) Jharkhand
(c) Chhattisgarh
(d) Uttarakhand

Answer

Answer: c

---

36. SAIL is an example of ___________ industry.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Public Sector

---

37. The first textile mill was set up at ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Mumbai

---

38. India exports jute goods to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: France

---

39. Silencers can be used to control ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Noise pollution

---

MCQ On Manufacturing Industries Class 10 Question 40. The employees employed in the manufacturing of the car belongs to the ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Secondary Sector

---

41. ___________ region has the maximum concentration of iron and s’teel industries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Chhotanagpur region.

---

42. The sugar industry is well suited to the cooperative sector. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

43. Coir industry is an example of cooperative sector. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

44. India is the largest producer of Sponge Iron. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

45. The Dabur industry is a public sector industry. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

---

46. Edible oil industry is an example of the agro based industry. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

---

MCQ Questions On Manufacturing Industries Question 47. Match the columns

Column A	Column B
(a) Leading centre of Automobile industry	(i) Mumbai
(b) A software technology park	(ii) Gurgaon
(c) Software	(iii) Chhattisgarh
(d) A leading centre of cotton textile	(iv) Bhubaneswar
(e) Bhilai Steel Plant	(v) Thiruvananthapuram

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (v)
(d) (i)
(e) (iii)

---

48. In which sector are the manufacturing industries placed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Secondary sector

---

49. State any two components through which country’s economic growth of measured?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Development of manufacturing industries
(b) Development of agriculture

---

50. What was the philosophy behind setting up public sector industries and joint ventures in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Eradication of unemployment and poverty from India.

---

51. With what aim were industries established in the tribal and backward areas?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To bring down regional disparities between the developed regions and backwards areas.

---

52. What is NMCC?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National Manufacturing Competitiveness Council.

---

53. Which factor is considered as the most prominent one in the industrial location in a region?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Availability of raw materials is considered the most prominent factor in the industrial location in a region.

---

54. Name the main advantages provided by cities to industries.
Or
Which advantage is provided by agglomeration cities to industries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Market and services are the main advantages provided by cities to industries.

---

55. What are agglomeration economies?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Many industries tend to come together to make use of the advantages offered by the urban centres. This is known as agglomeration economies.

---

56. Which key factors influence the location of an industry?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cost, government policies and specialised labour influence the location of industry.

---

57. To which sector does the textile industry belong to?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The textile industry is an example of the agro-based industry.

---

58. On what basis are the small scale and large scale industries classified?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Small scale and large scale industries are classified on the basis of capital investment.

---

59. Oil India Limited (OIL) belongs to which type of industry?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Joint sector industries

---

60. Which industry, due to its seasonal nature, is ideally suited to the cooperative sector?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sugar industry

---

61. Name two industries belonging to the category of heavy industries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Shipbuilding and iron and steel industries.

---

62. Which techniques of cotton textile production came into use after the 18th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The powerloom technique of cotton textile production came into use after the 18^th century.

---

63. Where was the first successful textile mill established in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The first successful textile mill was established in Mumbai in India.

---

64. Which groups of states have the largest number of cotton textile centres?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gujarat and Maharashtra

---

65. Name any two countries which import Cotton from India. (any two)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Japan
(ii) U.S.A.
(iii) U.K.
(iv) Russia
(v) Sri Lanka
(vi) Nepal

---

66. Which country has the largest installed capacity of spindles in the world?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: China

---

67. Where are most of the jute mills located in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Most of the jute mills are located in West Bengal on the banks of Hugh river.

---

68. State any two objectives behind the formulation of National Jute Policy, 2005.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Increasing productivity, improving quality, ensuring good prices and enhancing the yield per hectare. (any two)

---

69. Name any two countries that compete Indian jute industry.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bangladesh, Brazil, Philippines, Egypt and Thailand. (any two)

---

70. Why has the jute industry become more popular recently?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The global concern for environment friendly, biodegradable materials and its durability has once again made jute products more popular.

---

71. In which states are the majority of sugar mills concentrated?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The majority of sugar mills are concentrated in Uttar Pradesh and Bihar.

---

72. Sugar industry is ideally suited to the co-operative sector? Give reasons.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) The industry is seasonal in nature.
(b) The industry is dependent on raw material.

---

Manufacturing Industries MCQ Question 73. What are the challenges before sugar industry. Mention any one .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Old and inefficient methods of production.

---

74. State any one feature of Iron and Steel Industry.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Iron and steel is a heavy industry because all the raw materials as well as finished goods are heavy and bulky entraining heavy transportation costs.

---

75. Which region in India has the maximum concentration of iron and steel industry in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Chhotanagpur plateau region.

---

76. Name two factors that have given a boost to iron and steel industry in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Liberalisation and foreign direct investment.

---

77. What is the use of automobiles?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Automobiles provide vehicles for quick transport of goods, services and passengers.

---

78. Name the major centres of the automobile industry.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Delhi, Gurugram, Mumbai, Pune, Chennai, Kolkata, Lucknow, Indore, Hyderabad, Jamshedpur and Bengaluru.

---

79. Which industry has been a major foreign exchange earner in the last few years?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Information Technology has been the major foreign exchange earner in the last few years.

---

80. What does the software technology park provide?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The software technology parks provide single window service and high data communication facility to software experts.

---

81. Name any two industries that are respon-sible for water pollution?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Textile, dying and petroleum refineries (any two)

---

82. Name any two major solid wastes produced by industries.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Fly ash phospo-gypsum and iron and steel slags. (any two)

---

83. What are the harmful effects of nuclear energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Wastes from nuclear plants cause cancer, birth defects and miscarriages.

---

84. Mention the effects of noise pollution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Noise pollution causes imitation and anger.
(b) It can cause hearing impairment and can also cause high blood pressure and physiological effects.

---

85. What is the criteria used to measure the strength of a country?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The economic strength of a country is measured by the development of manufacturing industries.

---

86. How can industrialization assist in bringing in foreign exchange?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Industrialization assists in bringing foreign exchange through the export of manufactured goods.

---

87. Why is the Steel Authority of India said to be a public sector undertaking?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Steel Authority of India is a public sector industry because it is owned and operated by government agencies.

---

88. Where was the first cement plant set up in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The first cement plant was set up in Chennai in 1904.

---

89. Which industry manufactures telephones, computer etc.?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Electronic

---

90. Name the industry which uses limestone as its main raw material.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Cement and iron and steel industry

---

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Manufacturing Industries with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 6 Manufacturing Industries Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Lifelines of National Economy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 7 Lifelines of National Economy

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ Question 1. What is the name given to the International Airport at Kolkata?
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru
(b) Meenambakkam
(c) Rajiv Gandhi
(d) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer

Answer: d

---

2. Which one of the following means of transport is used for carrying solids in a slurry form? [Foreign 2012]
(a) Trucks
(b) Railways
(c) Pipelines
(d) Ships

Answer

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 MCQ With Answer: c

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3. Which one of the following is an inland riverine port? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Kandla
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai
(d) Tuticorin

Answer

Answer: b

---

4. Which one of the following is not the means of mass communication?
(a) Cards and envelopes
(b) Radio
(c) Newspaper
(d) Films

Answer

Answer: a

---

5. The longest pipeline connects
(a) Hazira to Kanpur
(.b) Salaya to Jalandhar
(c) Flazira to Jagdishpur
(d) Koyali to Haldia

Answer

Answer: c

---

6. Difference between the total value of exports and imports is called.
(a) Balance of Payment
(b) Balance of Trade
(c) Surplus Budget
(d) Deficit Balance

Answer

Answer: b

---

7. Which one of the following countries has the largest telecom network in Asia?
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Pakistan
(d) India

Answer

Answer: d

---

8. STD refers to
(a) Suburban Telephone Dialing
(b) Subscriber Trunk Dialing
(c) Social Telephone Distributor
(d) Speed Telephone Dialing

Answer

Answer: b

---

MCQ on Lifelines of National Economy Question 9. The first train was steamed off from
(a) Mumbai to Kalyan
(b) Mumbai to Delhi
(c) Mumbai to Thane
(d) Mumbai to Satara

Answer

Answer: c

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Which One of The Following Is A Subsidiary Port of Kolkata Question 10. Which one of the following is a subsidiary port of Kolkata?
(a) Tuticorin
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Haldia
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: c

---

11. The first-class mail includes which one of the following?
(a) Book packets
(b) Registered newspapers
(c) Envelopes and cards
(d) Periodicals and journals

Answer

Answer: c

---

Lifelines of National Economy MCQ Class 10 Question 12. The people who make the products come to the consumers by transportation are called ______________ .
(a) Businessman
(b) Retailers
(c) Traders
(d) Industrialists

Answer

Answer: c

---

13. Which one of the following commodities does not belong to items of export?
(a) Gems and jewellery
(b) Agriculture and allied products
(c) Fertilizers
(d) Engineering Goods

Answer

Answer: c

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14. Which two of the following extreme locations are connected by the east-west corridor? (Textbook)
(a) Mumbai and Nagpur
(b) Silchar and Porbandar
(c) Mumbai and Kolkata
(d) Nagpur and Siliguri

Answer

Answer: b

---

15. Which mode of transportation reduces trans-shipment losses and delays? (Textbook)
(a) Railways
(b) Roadways
(c) Pipelines
(d) Waterways

Answer

Answer: c

---

MCQ on Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Question 16. Which one of the following States is not connected with the H.V.J. pipeline? (Textbook)
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b

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17. Which one of the following ports is the deepest land-locked and well protected port along the east coast? (Textbook)
(a) Chennai
(b) Paradip
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Vishakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: d

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18. Which one of the following is the most important modes of transportation in India? (Textbook)
(a) Pipelines
(b) Railways
(c) Roadways
(d) Airways

Answer

Answer: c

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19. Which one of the following terms is used to describe trade between two or more countries? (Textbook)
(a) Internal trade
(b) International trade
(c) External trade
(d) Local trade

Answer

Answer: b

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20. The Golden Quadrilateral Super Highways connect
(a) Delhi-Silchar-Madurai and Gandhinagar
(b) Srinagar-Kanyakumari-Bhopal & Allahabad
(c) Delhi-Mumbai-Chennai and Kolkata
(d) Kashmir-Kanyakumari

Answer

Answer: c

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Lifelines of National Economy Question 21. The highway projects in India are being implemented by which organisation?
(a) GAIL
(b) NTPC
(c) NHAI
(d) NDDB

Answer

Answer: c

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22. What is the historical Sher Shah Suri Marg now called?
(a) NH 4
(b) NH 1
(c) NH 3
(d) NH 7

Answer

Answer: b

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23. Which of the following national highways covers most of Rajasthan?
(a) NH 2
(b) NH 34
(c) NH 23
(d) NH 15

Answer

Answer: d

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MCQ of Lifelines of National Economy Question 24. Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as
(a) National highways
(b) District roads
(c) State highways
(d) Other roads

Answer

Answer: c

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25. Which organisation constructs and maintains roads in the border areas?
(a) NHAI
(b) BRO
(c) Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojana
(d) BSF

Answer

Answer: b

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26. How many railway zones are there in our country?
(a) 20
(b) 16
(c) 19
(d) 6

Answer

Lifelines of National Economy Class 10 Questions and Answer: b

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27. Which one of the following is not an advantage of pipeline transportation?
(a) Pipelines are used for transporting crude oil and gas from fields to refineries.
(b) Solids can be transported in slurry form through pipelines.
(c) Pipelines rule out trans-shipment losses or delays.
(d) Initial cost of laying a pipeline is high.

Answer

Answer: d

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28. Which of the following regions is suitable to construct railway lines?
(a) Himalaya mountains
(b) Garo, Khasi and Jaintia Hills
(c) The Northern Plains
(d) Rajasthan desert

Answer

Answer: c

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29. The Konkan railway has connected places situated
(a) along the east coast of India
(b) in the Himalayas
(c) along the west coast of India
(d) in the north-eastern region of the country

Answer

 

MCQ of SST Class 10 with Answer: c

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30. Narrow Gauge railway line is found in
(a) the Northern Plains
(b) the hilly areas of Darjeeling, Shillong and Ooty
(c) deserts of Rajasthan
(d) the Central Highlands

Answer

Answer: b

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31. The width of the broad gauge railway track is
(a) 1.76 metres
(b) 1.67 metres
(c) 1.87 metres
(d) 1.97 metres

Answer

Answer: b

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32. Which one of the following is the oldest port of the eastern coast of India?
(a) Kolkata (Haldia)
(b) Vishakhapatnam
(c) Tuticorin
(d) Chennai (Madras)

Answer

Answer: d

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33. Which of the following is the northernmost international airport in India?
(a) Raja Sansi
(b) Meenam Bakkam
(c) Srinagar
(d) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose

Answer

 

MCQ Questions For Class 10 Social Science with Answer: a

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34. Which one of the following is the southernmost international airport in India?
(a) Nedimbacherry
(b) Chhatrapati Shivaji
(c) Raja Sansi
(d) Meenam Bakkam

Answer

Answer: a

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35. Which of the following is not a means of communication?
(a) radio
(b) press
(c) roads
(d) films

Answer

Answer: c

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36. Which one of the following pairs is not correctly matched?

Column A	Column B
(a) First port	(i) Kandla
(b) Biggest port	(ii)Mumbai
(c) A port located at the entrance of a lagoon	(iii) Tuticorin
(d) An inland riverine port	(iv) Kolkata
(e) Oldest artificial port	(v) Chennai

Answer

Answer: c

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37. ______________ is the largest producer of feature films in the world.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: India

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38. ______________ has the lowest density of roads in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jammu and Kashmir

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39. The two important navigable rivers of India are ______________ the and the ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ganga and Yamuna

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40. ______________ maintains the District Roads.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Zila Parishad

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41. Maximum numbers of newspapers published in India are in ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: hindi

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42. The Raja Sansi is the southernmost International Airport. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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43. Marmagao is the premier iron ore exporting port of Goa. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

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44. International Trade is considered as economic barometer for a country. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

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45. Foreign tourists visit India for heritage tourism, medical tourism, adventure tourism and business tourism. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

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46. Andhra Pradesh has the maximum road density in India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

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47. Match the columns.

Column A	Column B
(a) Indira Gandhi International Airport	(i) Odisha
(b) Netaji Subhash Chandra Bose	(ii) Mumbai
(c) Chhatrapati Shivaji	(iii) Kolkata
(d) Kandla	(iv) Gujarat
(e) Paradwip	(v) Delhi

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iv)
(e) (a)

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48. What is the pre-requiste for the fast development of a country?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Efficient means of transport

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49. What is the Golden Quadrilateral Highway?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is major road development project linking Delhi, Kolkata, Chennai and Mumbai.

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50. Name the extreme locations connected by North-South corridor.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Srinagar (Jammu and Kashmir) and Kanyakumari (Tamil Nadu).

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51. Name the extreme locations connected by the east-west corridor.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Silcher and Porbandar are the extreme locations connected by the east-west corridor.

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52. Which organisation implements the highway projects.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National Highway Authority of India

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53. What are National Highways?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National highways link all major cities of extreme parts of the country. These are the primary road systems. They are maintained by the Central Public Works Department (CPWD).

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54. What are State Highways?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Roads linking a state capital with different district headquarters are known as State Highways. Public Works Department (PWD) in the State and the Union Territories maintains them.

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55. What are district roads?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Roads which connect the district headquarters with other places of the district are called district roads. These roads are maintained by the Zila Parishad.

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56. Which type of roads received special impetus under Pradhan Mantri Grameen Sadak Yojanal

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rural Roads

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57. What is road density?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The length of road per 100 square kms of area is known as road density.

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58. Which state has the highest number of roads in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kerala has the highest density of roads in India.

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59. Mention one drawback of roads in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Most of the bridges and culverts are old and narrow.

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60. Name the busiest railway junction in Northern India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: New Delhi

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61. The Northern plains provide favourable conditions for the growth of a railways. Mention any two.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Vast level plains
(b) High population density

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62. Why railway tracks are laid with difficulty in Rajasthan?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is difficult to lay railway lines on the sandy plains of Rajasthan.

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63. In the recent times which railway has been developed along the west coast?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Konkan railway

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64. Which network of pipelines bring mineral oil to the refinery of Barauni and the petrochemical complex of Haldia?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Pipeline from the Upper Assam oilfields to Kanpur in Uttar Pradesh brings mineral oil to the refinery of Barauni and the petrochemical complex of Haldia.

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65. Why are waterways useful? State any two advantages.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Waterways are the cheapest means of transport.
(b) It is fuel efficient and environment friendly mode of transport.

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66. Name any four inland waterways on which substantial transportation takes place.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mandavi, Zuari and Cumberjua, Sunderbans, Barak and backwaters of Kerala.

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67. Which port was the first to be developed soon after Independence to ease the volume of trade on Mumbai Port?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kandla port

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68. Name the port that accounts for about fifty percent of India’s iron ore export.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Marmagao Port in Goa

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69. Which port is located at the entrance of a lagoon with a natural harbour?
Or
Name the port on the extreme south western part of India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Kochchi Port

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70. Which is the deepest landlocked and well protected part in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Vishakhapatnam

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71. Name the part that serves a large a rich hinterland of Ganga-Brahmaputra basin.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Kolkata port

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72. Name any two airlines operators that provide domestic air services in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Indian Airlines and Alliance Air.

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73. Give two examples of personal communication.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two examples of personal communication are letters and phone.

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74. Name any two means of mass communication?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Radio and Television

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75. Why have mail channels been introduced?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
For quick delivery of mails in cities and large towns.

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76. Give any two examples of second-class mail.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Book, packets, registered newspapers, periodicals etc. (any two)

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77. In which language are the largest number of newspapers published?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Hindi

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78. Which authority certifies India and foreign films in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Central Board of Film Certification.

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79. What is Trade? [All India 2015, Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The exchange of goods among people, states and countries is referred to as trade.

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80. Which term is used to describe trade between two or more countries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: International Trade

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81. What leads to unfavourable balance of trade?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
When the value of imports of a country exceeds the value of exports, it is termed as unfavourable balance of trade.

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82. Which states are important destinations of foreign tourists India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rajasthan, Goa, Jammu and Kashmir and Temple touns of South India.

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83. Which two factors were responsible for the expansion of trade and transport?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Science and technology

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84. Give the full form of CPWD.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Central Public Works Department

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85. Which two end cities does the National Highway No 7 join?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Varanasi and Kanyakumari

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86. Who maintains the State Highways?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The State Public Works Department (P. W.D)

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87. Why was the Haldia seaport set up?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Haldia seaport was set up to decongest the port of Kolkata as a subsidiary port.

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