MCQ Questions

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Heredity and Evolution Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 9 Heredity and Evolution

50+ MCQs Of Heredity And Evolution Questions and Answers

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Process of selecting individuals with desired characters by man is called
(a) Hybridization
(b) Reproduction
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: c

2. Which one of the following pairs are homologous organs?
(a) Forelimbs of a bird and wings of a bat.
(b) Wings of a bird and wings of a butterfly.
(c) Pectoral fins of a fish and forelimbs of a horse.
(d) Wings of a bat and wings of a cockroach.

Answer

Answer: a

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution Question 3. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by
(a) Mendel
(b) Darwin
(c) Lamarck
(d) Weismann

Answer

Answer: b

4. A cross between a tall pea-plant (TT) and a short pea-plant (tt) resulted in progenies that were all tall plants because
(a) tallness is the recessive trait.
(b) shortness is the dominant trait.
(c) height of pea-plant is not governed by gene T or t.
(d) tallness is the dominant trait.

Answer

Answer: b

5. The number of pairs of sex chromosomes in the zygote of a human being is
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 1
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: c

6. A zygote which has an X-chromosome inherited from the father will develop into a
(a) girl
(b) boy
(c) either boy or girl
(d) X-chromosome does not influence the sex of a child.

Answer

Answer: a

7. A man with blood group A marries a woman having blood group O. What will be the blood group of the child?
(a) O only
(b) A only
(c) AB
(d) Equal chance of acquiring blood group A or blood group O.

Answer

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ With Answer: d

8. What does the progeny of a tall plant with round seeds and a short plant with wrinkled seeds look like?
(a) All are tall with round seeds.
(b) All are short with round seeds.
(c) All are tall with wrinkled seeds.
(d) All are short with wrinkled seeds.

Answer

Answer: a

9. If a round, green seeded pea-plant (RRyy) is crossed with a wrinkled yellow seeded pea- plant (rrYY), the seeds produced in F1 generation are
(a) round and green (b) round and yellow
(c) wrinkled and green
(d) wrinkled and yellow

Answer

Answer: b

10. The human species has genetic roots in
(a) Australia
(b) Africa
(c) America
(d) Indonesia

Answer

Answer: b

11. Which of the following is the ancestor of ‘Broccoli’?
(a) Cabbage
(b) Cauliflower
(c) Wild cabbage
(d) Kale

Answer

 

Heredity And Evolution MCQs With Answer: c

12. The process of evolution of a species whereby characteristics which help individual organisms to survive and reproduce are passed on to their offspring and those characteristics which do not help are not passed on is called
(a) Artificial selection
(b) Speciation
(c) Hybridization
(d) Natural selection

Answer

Answer: d

13. Identify the two organisms which are now extinct and are studied from their fossils.
(a) white tiger and sparrow
(b) dinosaur and fish (Knightia)
(c) ammonite and white tiger
(d) trilobite and white tiger

Answer

Answer: b

14. Which of the following decides the sex of the child?
(a) male gamete, i.e., sperm
(b) female gamete, i.e., ovum
(c) both sperm and ovum
(d) mother

Answer

Answer: a

15. Pure-bred pea plant A is crossed with pure¬bred pea plant B. It is found that the plants which look like A do not appear in Fj gene¬ration but re-emerge in F2 generation. Which of the plants A and B are tall and dwarf?
(a) A are tall and B are dwarf.
(b) A are tall and B are also tall.
(c) A are dwarf and B are also dwarf
(d) A are dwarf and B are tall

Answer

Answer: d

MCQ Questions On Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 16. In humans if gene B gives brown eyes and gene b gives blue eyes, what will be the colour of eyes of the persons having combinations
(i) Bb and (ii) BB?
(a) (i) Blue and (ii) Brown
(b) (i) Brown and (ii) Blue
(c) (i) Brown and (ii) Brown
(d) (i) Blue and (ii) Blue

Answer

Answer: c

17. A cross between two individuals results in a ratio of 9 : 3 : 3 :1 for four possible phenotypes of progeny. This is an example of a
(a) Monohybrid cross
(b) Dihybrid cross
(c) Test cross
(d) F1 generation

Answer

Answer: b

18. Which of the following characters can be acquired but not inherited?
(a) Colour of skin
(b) Size of body
(c) Colour of eyes
(d) Texture of hair

Answer

Answer: b

19. Those organs which have the same basic structure but different functions are called
(a) Vestigial organs
(b) Analogous organs
(c) Homologous organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c

20. Those organs which have different basic structure but have similar appearance and perform similar functions are called
(a) Analogous organs
(b) Homologous organs
(c) Vestigial organs
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a

21. The remaps (or impressions) of dead animals or plant? that lived in the remote past are known as
(a) extinct species
(b) fossils
(c) naturally selected species
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: b

22. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as
(a) Evolution
(b) Natural selection
(c) Artificial selection
(d) Speciation

Answer

Answer: d

23. Which of the following is an example of genetic variation?
(a) One person has a scar, but his friend does not.
(b) One person is older than another.
(c) Reeta eats meat, but her sister Geeta is a vegetarian.
(d) Two children have different eye colours.

Answer

Answer: d

24. Differences between organisms in a species are described as variation. Which of the following would you describe as continuous variation?
(a) Hair colour
(b) Eye colour
(c) Weight
(d) Sex

Answer

Answer: c

25. The more characteristics two species have in common :
(a) More closely they are related and more recently they had a common ancestors.
(b) More distantly they are related and more recently they have common ancestors.
(c) More closely they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.
(d) More distantly they are related and more distantly they have common ancestors.

Answer

Answer: a

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 26. To study the natural phenomenon of inheritance, Mendel selected the pea plants. Which of the following properties were suitable for their studies?
(i) Plants would easily self pollinate or cross-pollinate in nature.
(ii) Plants were easily grown in garden soil with a considerably shorter generation time.
(iii) Pea plants do not require the true-breeding for hybridisation experiments.
(iv) Many parts of the plant such as pod, seed, flower, cotyledons showed distinct phenotypes.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iii).
(b) (ii) and (iv).
(c) (i) and (ii).
(d) (ii), (iii) and (iv).

Answer

Answer: b

27. What is the difference between genetic drift and change due to natural selection?
(a) Genetic drift does not require the presence of variation.
(b) Genetic drift never occurs in nature, natural selection does.
(c) Genetic drift does not involve competition between members of a species.
(d) There is no difference.

Answer

Answer: c

28. Which concept was not included in Charles Darwin’s theory of Natural Selection?
(a) Struggle for existence
(b) Punctuated equilibrium
(c) Survival of the fittest
(d) Overproduction of offspring.

Answer

Answer: b

29. Natural selection is called ‘survival of the fittest’. Which of the following statements best describes an organism?
(a) How strong it is compared to other individuals of the same species.
(b) How much food and resources it is able to gather for its offspring.
(c) The ability to adapt to the environment in the niche it occupies.
(d) The number of fertiie offspring it has.

Answer

Answer: c

30. Human offspring’s sex is determined
(а) through father’s sex chromosomes.
(b) through mother’s sex chromosomes.
(c) by hormones.
(d) by enzymes.

Answer

Answer: a

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 31. Wild cabbage has evolved into new varieties like cabbage, broccoli and cauliflower by
(a) genetic drift
(b) natural selection
(c) reproductive isolation
(d) artificial selection

Answer

Answer: d

32. The fossil remains of Archaeopteryx is a connecting link between
(a) reptiles and mammals
(b) reptiles and bird
(c) fish and amphibian
(d) amphibian and reptile

Answer

Answer: b

33. The maleness of a child is determined by [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) the X chromosome in the zygote
(b) the Y chromosome in zygote
(c) the cytoplasm of germ cell which determines the sex
(d) sex is determined by chance

Answer

Answer: b

34. Some dinosaurs had feathers although they could not fly but birds have feathers that help them to fly. In the context of evolution this means that [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) reptiles have evolved from birds
(b) there is no evolutionary connection between reptiles and birds
(c) feathers are homologous structures in both the organisms
(d) birds have evolved from reptiles.

Answer

Answer: d

Direction (Q35 to Q39): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
35. Assertion: When pure breed tall plants are crossed with pure breed short plants, all the plants in F1 progeny are tall. When the tall plants of F1 progeny are crossed, short plants re-appear in F2 progeny.
Reason: Traits are independently inherited.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

36. Assertion: Variation is high in sexually reproducing organisms compared to asexually reproducing organisms.
Reason: Inaccuracies during DN A copying give rise to variation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 37. Assertion: Acquired trait cannot be passed on from one generation to next generation.
Reason: Inaccuracy during DNA copying of acquired trait is minimum.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

38. Assertion: Human, frog and bird have a common ancestor.
Reason: Limbs of human, bird and frog are homologous.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

39. Assertion: Speciation is the reproductive isolation amongst once interbreeding population.
Reason: Genetic drift, Natural selection and Severe DNA change can cause speciation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

40. The number of paift(s) of sex chromosomes in the zygote of humans is ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: one

41. The theory of evolution of species by natural selection was given by ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Darwin

42. Chromosomes are thread like structures in the nucleus of a cell formed of DNA which carriers the ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: genes

43. ____________ genes are those which decide the appearance of an organism only in the presence of another identical gene.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Recessive

MCQ of Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 44. ____________ is the description of genes present in an organism.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Genotype

45. Genes always work in ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: pair

46. The cut tail of an mice is an ____________ trait.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: acquired

47. involution led to tne tormation or a new ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: species

48. ____________ was the British scientist who proposed that life must have developed

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: J.B.S Haldane

49. Acquired variations in somatic traits are not passed from generation to generation. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

50. Human height is a trait which shows variations. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

51. Variation decreases the chances of survival of an organism in a changing environment. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

52. Genes controls the development of inherited characterstics such as hair colour, skin colour, etc. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

MCQ Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Question 53. The theory of origin of life on earth proposed by haldane was confirmed by Stanley L. Miller and Harold C Urey. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
54.

Column I Column II
(i) Variation (A) Reproductive isolation among once inter-breeding population.
(ii) Heredity (B) Difference in individuals of a species.
(iii) Evolution (C) Gradual changes to give rise to new species.
(iv) Speciation (D) Transmission of traits from parents to offsprings.
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) (B)
(ii) (D)
(iii) (C)
(iv) (A)

55. Define vanation. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Variation is defined as the differences in the characters or traits among the individuals of a species.

56. All the variationsin a species do not have equal chances of survival. Why? [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
All the variations do not have equal chances of survival as some variations might not be beneficial and would ultimately be eliminated.

Multiple Choice Questions On Heredity And Evolution Question 57. Why variations are more in human beings?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because human being reproduce sexually and variation are more in sexually reproducing organisms.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Cbse MCQ Question 58. Name two human traits which show variation. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Colours of eye
(ii) Height

59. What is a gene? [HOTS, DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gene is the unit of inheritance. It is the part of a chromosome which controls the appearance of a set of hereditary characters.

60. Name the branch of science that deals with heredity and variation. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Genetics

61. Name the genetic material that is responsible for inheritance of traits [Foreign 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gene.

62. Where are genes located? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Genes are located on DNA present in chromosomes.

63. Who is the father of Genetics? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gregor Johann Mendel is the father of genetics.

64. Define genetic drift.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The change in the frequency of certain genes in a population over generations.

65. What is DNA? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Deoxyribonucleic Acid (DNA) is a molecule which carry the hereditary characters or traits in a coded form from one generation to the next in all the organisms.

66. No two individuals are absolutely alike in a population. Why? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is because of the variations which take place during DNA copying.

67. Why do mice whose tails were surgically removed just after birth for generations, continue to produce mice with tails? [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because cutting of tail is an acquired trait and is not inherited.

68. What is monohybrid cross? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The cross between two individuals with one pair of contrasting characters is called monohybrid cross.

69. Why is the progeny always tall when a tall pea plant is crossed with a short pea plant? [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Some genes are dominant and others are recessive. Tallness is a dominant trait and hence the progeny is always tall when crossed with a short plant.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 MCQs Question 70. A Mendelian experiment consisted of breeding pea plants bearing violet flowers with pea plants bearing white flowers. What will be the result in F1 progeny? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
All plants in Fj generation will bear violet flowers.

71. Write the scientific name of men and garden pea. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Men- Homo sapiens Garden pea- Pisum sativum

72. Where did life originate on earth?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Life originated in the sea water.

73. Name the scientist who said life originated from inanimate matter.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: J.R.S. Haldane.

74. Name any two organisms which are now extinct and are studied from their fossils.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ammonite, trilobite, knightia and Rajasaurus. (any two)

75. Give as example where sex determination is regulated hy invironmental factors.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In snail, sex is determined by environmental factors such as temperature.

76. What is Heredity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It refers to the transmission of characters or traits from the parent to their offspring.

77. What determines the sex of a child?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Whether a child inherits X chromosome or Y chromosome from father determines the sex of the child.

78. What is evolution?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Formation of new species due to gradual change over a long period of time.

79. What do you mean by speciation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Evolution of reproductive isolation among once interbreeding population.

80. How can you determine evolutionary relationship?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By comparing DNA of different species.

80. Both birds and bat have wings. What name is given to this relationship?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Analogous organs.

82. What do you call the organs having same design but different function?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Homologous organs.

83. Will geographical isolation be a major factor in speciation of sexually reproducing animals? How?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, because it interrupts the flow of genes between their isolated populations through the gametes.

Heredity And Evolution Class 10 Objective Question 84. The human hand, cat paw and the horse foot, when studied in detail show the same structure of bones and point towards a common origin.
(i) What do you conclude from this?
(ii) What is the term given to such structures? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) In course of evolutions they have been modified to perform different functions.
(ii) Homologous organs.

85. Name the scientist who proposed the theory of evolution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Charles Darwin.

86. Give one characteristic to show that birds are closely related to dinosaurs.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Presence of feathers on birds.

87. Is it necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, it is necessary that homologous structures always have a common ancestor in order to carry out the different activities. Otherwise there cannot be any similarity in basic plan, internal structure, development or origin.

88. Name five varieties of vegetables which have been produced from ‘wild cabbage’ by the process of artificial selection. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Vegetables like cabbage, broccoli, cauliflower, kohlrabi and kale are formed from artificial selection.

89. Name the ancestor of brocoli, kale and cabbage.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Wild cabbage.

MCQ On Heredity And Evolution For Class 10 Question 90. Name the place where human species have genetic roots.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Africa.

91. Explain the term analogous with examples.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Analogous organs are those organs which have different basic structural designs and developmental origins but have similar appearance and perform similar functions.
Examples: Wings of an insect and wings of a bat.

Class 10 Science Heredity And Evolution MCQ Question 92. Explain the term homologous with examples.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Homologous organs are those organs which have the same basic structural design and developmental origin but have different functions and appearance.
Examples: Forelimbs of frog and forelimbs of human.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The study of the pattern of chromosomes from parents to the offspring is called ……….. .
2. The wings of a bird and mosquito are ……….. organs.
3. In Mendel’s experiment, the trait which did not appear in the F1 generation was said to be …………. .
4. The number of X chromosomes in a human ovum is ……….. .
5. ……….. proposed the “Theory of Natural Selection”.
6. If a sperm carrying ‘X’ chromosome fertilises an ovum, then the child bom will be a ……….. .
7. The process by which new species develop from the existing species is known as ……….. .
8. Transitional fossils like ……….. is a connecting link between reptiles and birds.

Answers

1. Heredity
2. analogous
3. recessive
4. two
5. Charles Darwin
6. girl
7. speciation
8. Archaeopteryx

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 14 Sources of Energy

1. Energy can neither be created nor destroyed but still everybody discuss about the energy crisis because
(a) Energy transform into different form continuously.
(b) Usable form of energy is dissipated to the surroundings in less usable forms.
(c) Energy is consumed and cannot be used again.
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQ with Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Energy can neither be created nor be destroyed but usable form is dissipated to surrounding in less usable farm which can’t be used again.

2. An ideal source of energy should have
(a) higher calorific value
(b) easy transportability
(c) easy accessibility
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) These are the characterises of ideal source of energy.

3. Fossile fuels are
(a) non-renewable source of energy
(b) renewable source of energy
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Fossile fuels were formed over million of years ago and there are only limited reserve. So they are non-renewable source of energy.

4. Dead organisms are transformed into petroleum and natural gas in
(a) presence of air
(b) absence of air
(c) presence of sunlight
(d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) absence of air

5. Which of the following problem is associated with a burning of coal?
(а) Carbon-dioxide emission
(b) acid rain
(c) ash with toxic metal supurity
(d) all of these.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) all of these.

6. Select the important factor for the site selection of a thermal power plant.
(a) Distance from the populated area
(b) Availability of fuel
(c) Availability’ of water
(d) Cost of plant

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Water is required to produce steam. Thermal power plants are setup near the coal field and transmission of electricity is easy than transporting fuel.

7. Select the correct order of energy conversion in thermal power plant-
MCQ on Sources of Energy

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) chemical energy – heat energy, mechanical energy, electrical energy

Sources of Energy Class 10 MCQs Question 8. Hydropower plant are located in the
(a) desert area
(b) plane area
(c) hilly terrains
(d) none-of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Hydroelectric power plant are generally located in high hilly areas where dam can easily be buit and large reservoir for storage of water can be obtained.

9. Biogas is a better fuel than animal dung cake because
(a) biogas has lower calorific value.
(b) animal dung cake has high calorific value
(c) biogas bums smoke and leaves no residue
(d) biogas is used as a fuel for cooking only wheareas dung cake can be used for cooking, illuminant the lanterns.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Biogas has high calorific value and leave no residue, no smoke after burning and can be used for domestic purpose, running engins and in gas lanterns for illumination.

10. Which of the following organism produces biogas from cow drug sherry in the biogas plant?
(a) aerobic bectria
(b) anaerobic bectria
(c) prolozoa
(d) fungi

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In the absence of oxygen, anaerobic micro-organism decomposed the compound of cow- dung sturry to generate biogas.

11. Wind is caused due to
(a) uneven heating of earth’s surface
(b) rotation of earth
(c) local conditions
(d) All of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All are the factors that responsible for the blowing of wind.

12. What are the disadvantage of solar energy
(a) A large surface area is required collect the solar
(b) Daily average of solar energy varies from 4 to 7 kwh/m2
(c) Highly hazardous toxic material is used in the manufacturing of solar device.
(d) All of the above are disadvantages.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the points given are the disadvantage age of using solar energy.

13. The temperature inside the solar cooker ranges from
(a) 500-100°C
(b) 100-140°C
(c) 150-200°C
(d) 70-80°C

Answer/Explanation

 

Sources of Energy Questions and Answer: bExplanation:
(b) The box type solar cooker have a range 100-140°C.

14. The use of reflector in the solar cooker is to
(a) Decrease efficiency
(b) create green house effect
(c) increase efficiency
(d) none of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Reflectors (mirror) are used to focus the sun rays along with heat radiation inside the box to achieve high temperature.

15. Solar cells are made of
(a) germanium
(b) silicon
(c) silver
(d) aluminium

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) special grade silicon is used for making solar cells.

16. The material used for interconnection the solar cells in the solar panel is
(a) silicon
(b) silver
(c) aluminium
(d) copper

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Silver is the best conductor of electricity.

17. A solar panel is made by combining in an arrangement
(a) solar concentrator
(b) solar cookers
(c) solar cells
(d) solar chimney

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) A large number of solar cells connected together in a particular arrangement to deliver useful electrical power is called solar cell panel.

18. Tidal energy is a farm of energy obtained from the
(a) motion of surface water in ponds
(b) ocean in the form of tidal waves
(c) tides occurs in the river water
(d) motion of the wave in sea

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The energy produced by the surge of ocean water during high and low tides due to difference in sea level is called tidal energy.

Sources of Energy MCQ Question 19. Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam across
(a) narrow opening to the sea
(b) wide opening to the sea
(c) the river in hilly trains
(d) the river in plane areas

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Tidal energy is harnessed by constructing a dam near the shores across narrow opening it.

20. Wave energy is caused due to
(a) strong winds blowing across the sea
(b) kinetic energy possessed by huge waves near the sea shore
(c) potential energy possessed by the stored water
(d) both (a) and (b)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The waves are generated by a strong wind due to solar energy across the sea.

21. The working fluid in ocean thermal power plant is
(a) Volatile liquid like ammonia
(b) petrol
(c) charcoal
(d) liquified petroleum gas

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) volatile liquid like ammonia

22. Geothermal energy is
(a) Heat energy in the interior of earth
(b) energy of molten mars exists in the farm of magma inside the earth.
(c) molten lava on the surface of earth
(d) energy obtained from solar thermal electric plants

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The heat energy trapped in the certain region of earth’s crust is called geo thermal energy.

23. U-235 will undergo fission by
(a) low energy neutrons only
(b) high energy neutrons only
(c) medium energy neutrons
(d) low energy protons only

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Heavy nucleus such as uranuim-235, when bombarded with low energy neutrons split into lighter nuclear with the liberation of large amount of energy.

Multiple Choice Questions on Sources of Energy Question 24. In a hydropower plant [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Potential energy possessed by stored water is converted into electricity
(b) Kinetic energy possessed by stored water is converted into potential energy
(c) Electricity is extracted from water
(d) Water is converted into steam to produce electricity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The stored water behind the dam has a potential energy which charges into the kinetic energy of falling water. This kinetic energy is utilized to rotate the turbine to produce electricity.

25. Which is the ultimate source of energy? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Uranium
(d) Fossil fuels

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Sun is the ultimate source of energy directly or indirectly, all the form of energy are desired from solar energy.

MCQ Questions on Sources of Energy Class 10 Question 26. Which one of the following forms of energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilisation? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Nuclear energy
(b) Thermal energy
(c) Solar energy
(d) Geothermal energy

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Solar energy leads to least environmental pollution in the process of its harnessing and utilisation.

27. Ocean thermal energy is due to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) energy stored by waves in the ocean
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean
(c) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean
(d) tides arising out in the ocean

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Energy of warm surface water used to vaporise the low boiling point liquid ammonia. This vapours at high pressure is used to strin the turbines to generate electricity. Deep ocean cold water again condenses the used vapour into liquid.

28. The major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is how to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) split nuclei?
(b) sustain the reaction?
(c) dispose off spent fuel safely?
(d) convert nuclear energy into electrical energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The waste product obtained from nuclear power plant is highly radioactive material and harmful for human beings and environment.

29. Which part of the solar cooker is responsible for green house effect? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Coating with black colour inside the box
(b) Mirror
(c) Glass sheet
(d) Outer cover of the solar cooker

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Glass lid of solar cooker trapped the heat energy inside the box.

30. The power generated in a windmill [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) is more in rainy season since damp air would mean more air mass hitting the blades
(b) depends on the height of the tower
(c) depends on wind velocity
(d) can be increased by planting tall trees close to the tower

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) About 75% methane is present in bir-gas

31. Choose the correct statement [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Sun can be taken as an inexhaustible source of energy
(b) There is infinite storage of fossil fuel inside the earth
(c) Hydro and wind energy plants are non-polluting
(d) Waste from a nuclear power plant can be easily disposed off

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) In rainy season, wind velocity is higher. So the blades of windmill moves with greater speed.

32. A good fuel should possess
(a) high ignition temperature
(b) moderate ignition temperature
(c) high calorific value
(d) both high calorific value and moderate ignition temperature

Answer

Answer: d

33. The variety of coal which has the highest car-bon content
(a) Anthracite
(b) Peat
(c) Bituminous
(d) Lignite

Answer

Answer: a

34. Unit of calorific value of a substance is
(a) Kcal
(b) Joules
(c) J kg
(d) J/kg

Answer

Answer: d

MCQ on Sources of Energy Class 10 Question 35. Biogas is formed in the
(a) presence of air only
(b) presence of water only
(c) absence of air only
(d) presence of water and absence of air

Answer

Answer: d

36. Solar energy can be directly converted to elec-trical energy by which of the following de-vices?
(a) solar cooker
(b) solar heater
(c) solar cell
(d) solar geyser

Answer

Answer: c

37. Which of the following is the ultimate source of energy?
(a) Water
(b) Sun
(c) Fossil fuels
(d) Uranium

Answer

Answer: b

38. Which of the following gases is the main con-stituent of natural gas?
(a) Methane
(b) Ethane
(c) Propane
(d) Butane

Answer

Answer: a

39. Which element is used in solar cells?
(a) Carbon
(b) Silicon
(c) Phosphorous
(d) Sulphur

Answer

Answer: b

40. Ocean thermal energy is produced due to
(a) pressure difference at different levels in the ocean.
(b) temperature difference at different levels in the ocean.
(c) energy stored by waves in the ocean.
(d) tides rising out of the ocean.

Answer

Answer: b

41. A device in which electricity is produced by the process of controlled nuclear fission reaction is called
(a) nuclear chain reaction
(b) hydel power plant
(c) nuclear reactor
(d) thermal power plant

Answer

Answer: c

42. One major problem in harnessing nuclear energy is
(a) converting nuclear energy into electrical energy.
(b) sustaining the reaction.
(e) splitting the nuclei.
(d) disposing off spent fuel easily.

Answer

Answer: d

43. Spent slurry (Bio-waste after obtaining biogas) is used as
(a) fuel
(b) manure
(c) food for livestock
(d) used again for generating biogas

Answer

Answer: b

Direction (Q44 to Q48): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are . correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
44. Assertion: Fuel has to be burnt to obtain heat energy.
Reason: The minimum temperature to which a fuel must be heated so that it may catch fire and start burning is known as ignition temperature.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

45. Assertion: The major constituent of biogas is methane.
Reason: Biogas is produced by the aerobic degradation by animal wastes like cow ding in the presence of water.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

46. Assertion: Wind energy farms cannot be established every where.
Reason: The wind energy farms can be established only at those places where wind blows for most part of the year.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

47. Assertion: Coke is a better fuel than coal.
Reason: Burning of coke cause air pollution.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

48. Assertion: Non-conventional sources of energy are the major source of energy for generating electricity in power plants.
Reason: Coal and petroleum are non- conventional energy sources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

49. Mirrors used for solar cooker are ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: convex

50. A fuel is a good one if its ______________ value is high.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Butane

51. Geothermal energy is widely trapped in USA and ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: New Zealand

52. ______________ reaction is more powerful than a fission reaction.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Fusion

53. Ocean thermal energy is used to boil ______________ before running the turbine.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ammonia

54. Artificial satellites and space probes are electrified using ______________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Solar cells

55. Fossil fuels do not cause pollution. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

56. Acid rain is formed by acidic oxides of carbon, sulphur and nitrogen. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

57. The use of turbine is essential for the production of electrical energy. [True/F alse]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

58. The approximate percentage of energy met by India with the use of hydel energy is 25%. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

59. Windmills require giant structural erection and vast space. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

60. New Zealand is called as “Country of Winds”. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

Direction (Q49 to Q50): Match Column I with Column II.
61.

Column I Column II
(a) Fossil fuels (i) Renewable
(b) Silicon (ii) Electrical energy
(c) Geothermal energy (iii) Depleting
(d) Turbine (iv) Solar cells
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iii)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (ii)

62.

Column I Column II
(a) Black surface (i) Water heaters
(b) Turbine (ii) Solar cell
(c) Semi conductors (iii) Generators
(d) Digestor (iv) Bio gas
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (i)
(b) (iii)
(c) (ii)
(d) (iv)

63. Define source of energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A source of energy is one which can provide sufficient amount of energy in convenient manner over a long period of time.

64. Why are the coal, petroleum and natural gas called fossil fuels?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Coal, petroleum and natural gas, the common sources of energy, being organic (biotic) in their origin and formed over a long period of time are called fossil fuels.

65. If you could use any source of energy for heating your food which one would you prefer? State one reason for your choice.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
LPG because it does not leave any residue on burning.

66. What do you mean by the term ‘thermal power plant’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Thermal power plant is the power plant where coal is burnt to produce heat energy which is converted into electrical energy.

67. The cost of production of electricity in a thermal power station located in Bihar/ Jharkhand/Orissa is lesser than in Gujarat/ Maharashtra. Do you agree? Justify your answer. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, it is because in Bihar/Jharkhand/Orissa, coal for thermal power plant is locally available whereas it has to be transported for any thermal power plant to be located in Gujrat/Maharashtra.

68. Which of the following power plants to produce electricity involves more running expenses and why? Thermal power station, hydro power station, an array of solar panel, wind energy farm or geothermal source.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Thermal power stations involve more running cost due to continuous use of coal.

69. What is acid rain? [CBSE 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The rain containing the acidic oxides such as oxides of carbon and traces of nitrogen and sulphur.

70. List two non-conventional source of energy. [Delhi 2014, DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Geothermal, solar, biomass, water, wind are the non-convention source of energy, (any two)

71. How does technology help in the transformation of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Technologoy help us to provide the various means to transform the energy obtained from different source into useful form of energy.

72. Justify that the hydropower is a renewable source of energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hydropower is generated from water flowing out of the dam and water in the reservoir would be refilled each time it rains through the high altitude rivers on which dam is constructed.

73. Why the dams for generating hydroelectricity can be built only in the hilly areas or at the foothill?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is because to generate hydroelectricity water can fall from a considerable height.

74. State the main difference between thermal power and hydropower plants based on electricity generation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In thermal power plant, chemical energy of fossil fuel is used while potential energy of stored water is used in hydropower plant to produced electricity.

75. Write the energy conversion that takes place in a hydropower plant. [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The energy transformation taking place at hydropower plants is shown below:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers 1

76. Name the kind of energy possessed by wind and the device used to harness it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kinetic energy, wind mill.

77. What is the minimum speed of wind to run a windmill to maintain the necessary speed of turbine of an electric generator?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 15 km/h.

78. Name the place in India where the largest wind energy farm has been established and how much electricity does it generate?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is established near Kanyakumari is Tamil Nadu and it generates 380 MW of electricity.

79. Which country ranked first in harmessing wind energy for the production of electricity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Germany.

80. How much land area is needed to establish a wind energy farm for generating 1 MW of electricity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
About 2 hectares of land.

81. Which country is known as ‘country of winds’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Denmark.

82. Why a solar cooker painted black form outside? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Black surface absorbs more heat as compared to white or reflecting surface under identical conditions.

83. Which metal is used to connect various solar cells?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Silver.

84. A solar cell transforms energy of one form into another. What are these two ferm of energy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A solar cell transform solar energy into electrical energy.

85. Name any two elements that are used in fabricating solar cells. [CBSE 2014, 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Germanium, Silicon.

86. Define solar panel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A group of solar cells arranged in a definite pattern is called a solar panel.

87. What is the voltage developed by a typical solar cell?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A voltage of about 0.5 V to 1 V is developed by a typical solar cell.

88. How do satellites get energy to operate all the devices ?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
From solar energy conversion using solar cell panels.

89. Name the main component of solar cell. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Solar cell consists of different thin layers of silicon.

90. Name a device which can be used for cooking so as to save fuel.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Solar cooker.

91. Which gas is formed by decomposing plant and animal matter in masting areas?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Methane.

92. Name the part of a biogas plant where reactions take place in the absence of oxygen. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Digester chamber.

93. Bio-gas is also known as gobar gas. Justify. [DoE] [CBSE 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Starting material for biogas is mainly cow-dung. So, it is also known as gobar gas.

94. Name the microorganism which decompose slurry into biogas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Anaerobic bacteria.

95. List two nutrients that the slurry left behind in the biogas plant contain. [CBSE 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Nitrogen and phosphorous.

96. Aspart from cow-dung, name other materials which can be used for making bio gas.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Various plant materials like the residue after harvesting the crops, vegetable waste and sewage.

97. Why is CNG considered as environmental friendly fuel?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CNG does not produce any harmful gases on burning. So atmosphere does not gets polluted.

Fill in the Blanks

1. In the wind energy farms, the wind speed should be higher than ………. to maintain the required speed of
the turbine.
2. The energy produced during controlled ………. reactions is used for generating electricity at nuclear
power plants.
3. The energy available due to the difference in the temperature of water at the surface of the ocean and at
deeper levels is called ………. .
4. Biogas is produced by the ………. of animal wastes or plant wastes in the presence of water.
5. Biogas is an excellent fuel as it contains 75% ………. along with other gases like ………., ………. and ………. .

Answers

1. 15 km/h
2. nuclear fission
3. Ocean thermal energy
4. anaerobic degradation
5. methane, carbon dioxide, hydrogen and hydrogen sulphide

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Sources of Energy with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 14 Sources of Energy Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 13 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Magnetic effect of current was discovered by
(a) Oersted
(b) Faraday
(c) Bohr
(d) Ampere

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Oersted showed that electricity and magnetism were related phenomena.

2. Inside the magnet, the field lines moves
(a) from north to south
(b) from south the north
(c) away from south pole
(d) away from north pole

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Magnetic field inside the magnet moves from south to north pole.

3. Relative strength of magnetic field at a point in the space surrounding the magnet is shown by the
(a) length of magnet
(b) thickness of magnet
(c) degree of closeness of the field.
(d) resistance offered by the surroundings

Answer/Explanation

Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ With Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The force acting on the pole of another magnet by the crowded magnetic field lines is greater.

4. Which of the following statement is not correct about the magnetic field?
(a) Magnetic field lines form a continuous closed curve.
(b) Magnetic field line do not interest each other.
(c) Direction of tangent at any point on the magnetic field line curve gives the direction of magnetic field at that point.
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field lines go from South to North pole of the magnet.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(d) Outside the magnet, magnetic field line emerges from North-pole and moves towards south-pole.

5. By which instrument, the presence of magnetic field be determined?
(a) Magnetic Needle
(b) Ammeter
(c) Galvanometer
(d) Voltmeter

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(a) With the help of magnetic field, one can find the presence of magnetic field in a region by observing its deflection.

6. The pattern of the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conducting wire is
(a) in the direction opposite to the current
(b) in the direction parallel to the wire
(c) circular around the wire
(d) in the same direction of current

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(c) Magnetic field line around a current carrying straight conductor is represented by concentric circles.

7. The strength of magnetic field around a current carrying conductor is
(a) inversely proportional to the current but directly proportional to the square of the distance from wire.
(b) directly proportional to the current and inversely proportional to the distance from wire.
(c) directly proportional to the distance and inversely proportional to the current
(d) directly proportional to the current but inversely proportional the square of the distance from wire.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
• magnetic field strength increases on increasing the current through the wire.
• magnetic field strength decreases as the distance from the wire increases.

8. A current through a horizontal power line flows from south to North direction. The direction of magnetic field line 0.5m above it is
(a) North
(b) South
(c) West
(d) East

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Apply right-hand thumb rule.

9. The nature of magnetic field line passing through the centre of current carrying circular loop is
(a) circular
(b) ellipse
(c) parabolic
(d) straight line

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) magnetic field line at the centre of current carrying loop appears as a straight line.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Question 10. The strength of each of magnet reduces to half when it cut along its length into the equal parts magnetic field strength of a solenoid. Polarity of solenoid can be determined by
(a) use of compass needle
(b) Right hand thumb rule
(c) fleming left hand rule
(d) either (a) or (b)

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) both (a) and (b) can be use to determine the polarity of solenoid.

11. The factors on which one magnetic field strength produced by current carrying solenoids depends are
(a) Magnitude of current
(b) Number of turns
(c) Nature of core material
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Factors shown in (a), (b) and (c).

12. A soft iron bar is introduced inside the current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will decrease
(b) will remains same
(c) will increase
(d) will become zero

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Soft iron inside the current carrying solenoid act as an electromagnet.

13. When current is parallel to magnetic field, then force experience by the current carrying conductor placed in uniform magnetic field is
(a) Twice to that when angle is 60°
(b) Thrice to that when angle is 60°
(c) zero
(d) infinite

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) If the current direction is parallel to the magnetic field, then there will no force on the conductor exerted by the magnetic field.

14. A positive charge is moving upwards in a magnetic field directed towards north. The particle will be deflected towards
(a) west
(b) north
(c) south
(d) east

Answer/Explanation

Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Class 10 MCQ Questions and Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Apply fleming’s left hand rule

15. Which of the following factors affect the strength of force experience by a current carrying conduct in a uniform magnetic field?
(a) magnetic field strength
(b) magnitude of current in a conductor
(c) length of the conductor within magnetic field
(d) All of above.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All the factors affect the strength of magnetic force.

16. Direction of rotation of a coil in electric motor is determined by
(a) fleming’s right hand rule
(b) fleming’s left hand rule
(c) faraday law of electromagnetic inductors
(d) None of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule.

Multiple Choice Questions on Magnetic Effect of Electric Current Question 17. In electric motor, to make the coil rotating continuously in the same direction, current is reversed in the coil after every half rotation by a device called
(a) carbon brush
(b) commutator
(c) slip ring
(d) armature

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) A device that reverses the direction of current in the arms of armature through a circuit is called commutation.

18. The condition for the praenomen of electromagnetic induction is that there must be a relative motion between
(a) the galvanometer and magnet
(b) the coil of wire and galvanometer
(c) the coil of wire and magnet
(d) the magnet and galvanometer

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) The relative motion between the magnet and coil of wire causes change in magnetic field lines linked with the coil to produces induced current if the circuit is closed.

19. The instrument that use to defect electric current in the circuit is known as
(a) electric motor
(b) A.C generator
(c) galvanometer
(d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) A galvanometer is an instrument that can direct the presence of current in a circuit.

20. We can induce the current in a coil by
(a) moving the coil in a magnetic field
(b) by changing the magnetic field around it
(c) by changing the orientation of the coil in the magnetic field
(d) All of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The method can be used to induce the potential difference across the ends of a coil and hence induce current.

21. A magnet is moved towards a coil (i) quickly (ii) slowly. The induced potential difference
(a) more in (i) than in (ii) case
(b) more in (ii) than in (i) case
(c) same in both
(d) can’t say

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) When magnet is moved quickly, more will be the changing magnetic field strength and hence larger is the induced potential difference.

22. A.C generator works on the principle of
(a) force experience by a conductor in magnetic field
(b) electromagnetic induction
(c) electrostatic
(d) force experience by a charge particle in electric field.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Generator works on principle of electromagnetic induction.

23. Fleming’s left hand and Right hand rules are used in
(а) Generator and electric motor
(b) Electric motor and generator
(c) any rule can be used for any device
(d) both are not applied for generator and motor.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Electric motor employs Fleming left hand rule while for generator, Fleming right-hand rule is used.

24. A D.C generator works on the principle of
(a) ohnis law
(b) Joule’s law of heating
(c) faraday’s law of electromagnetic induction.
(d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) electric generator works on the basis of electromagnetic induction.

25. If the current values periodically from zero to a maximum value, back to zero and then reverses its direction, the current is
(a) direct
(b) alternative
(c) pulsating
(d) none of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The alternating current reverse its direction periodically.

26. Earth wire carries
(a) current
(b) voltage
(c) no current
(d) heat

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Earth wire carries no current.

27. The main advantage of A.C power transmission over D.C power transmission over’ long distance is
(a) AC transmit without much loss of energy
(b) less insulation problem
(c) less problem of instability
(d) easy transformation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) AC transmit over a long distance without much loss of energy as compare to DC.

28. Which among of these are the main characteristics of fuse element?
(a) High conductivity
(b) low melting point
(c) do not bum due to oxidation
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Fuse wire must have all the characteristic to prevent from a possible damage.

MCQ of Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Question 29. Overloading is due to
(a) Insulation of wire is damaged
(b) fault in the appliances
(c) accidental hike in supply voltage
(d) All of the above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) All are the causes to occur overloading

30. If the key in the given arrangement is taken out (the circuit is made open) and magnetic field lines are drawn over the horizontal plane ABCD, the lines are
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 1
(a) concentric circles
(b) elliptical in shape
(c) straight lines parallel to each other
(d) concentric circles near the point O but of elliptical shapes as we go away from it [NCERT Exemplar Problems]

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Magnetic field lines around a straight current carrying conductor are in the form of concentric circle.

31. For a current in a long straight solenoid N-pole and S-pole are created at the two ends. Among the following statements, the incorrect statement is [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) The field lines inside the solenoid are in the form of straight lines which indicates that the magnetic field is the same at all points inside the solenoid.
(b) The strong magnetic field produced inside the solenoid can be used to magnetise a piece of magnetic material like soft iron, when placed inside the coil.
(c) The pattern of the magnetic field associated with the solenoid is different from the pattern of the magnetic field around a bar magnet.
(d) The N-pole and S-pole exchange position when the direction of current through the solenoid is reversed.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) A solenoid behaves like a bar magnet. Hence the pattern of magnetic field associated with solenoid and around the bar magnet is same.

32. Commercial electric motors do not use
(a) an electromagnet to rotate the armature
(b) effectively large number of turns of conducting wire in the current carrying coil
(c) a permanent magnet to rotate the armature
(d) a soft iron core on which the coil is wound

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Using electromagnet, the magnetic field strength further increase by increasing the current. Hence it will enhance the power of electric.

33. The strength of magnetic field inside a
long current carrying straight solenoid is
(a) more at the ends than at the centre
(b) minimum in the middle
(c) same at all points
(d) found to increase from one end to the other

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) A current carrying solenoid produces a uniform magnetic field inside it.

34. To convert an AC generator into DC generator
(a) split-ring type commutator must be used
(b) slip rings and brushes must be used
(c) a stronger magnetic field has to be used
(d) a rectangular wire loop has to be used

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) To connect AC generator into DC generator, split ring type commutation must be used to get a unidirectional direct current.

35. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short circuiting or overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of fuse
(c) use of stabilizers
(d) use of electric meter

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) It is most important method for protecting the electrical devices from short circuiting or overloading by stopping the flow of any large electric current exceeds from its rating.

36. What should be the core of an electromagnet?
(a) soft iron
(b) hard iron
(c) rusted iron
(d) none of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation: (a) soft iron

37. Who has stated the Right hand Thumb Rule?
(a) Orsted
(b) Fleming
(c) Einstein
(d) Maxwell

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation: (d) Maxwell

38. What is that instrument which can detect the presence of electric current in a circuit?
(a) galvanometer
(b) motor
(c) generator
(d) none of above

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation: (a) galvanometer

Magnetic Class Question 39. Which device produces the electric current?
(a) generator
(b) galvanometer
(c) ammeter
(d) motor

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation: (a) generator

40. The best material to make permanent magnets is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) alnico

Answer

Answer: d

41. The magnetic field lines always begin from
(a) N-pole and end on S-pole.
(b) S-pole and end on N-pole.
(c) start from the middle and end at N-pole.
(d) start from the middle and end at S-pole.

Answer

Answer: a

42. The magnetic field is the strongest at
(a) middle of the magnet.
(b) north pole.
(c) south pole.
(d) both poles.

Answer

Answer: d

43. Material of the core of a strong magnet is
(a) aluminium
(b) soft iron
(c) copper
(d) steel

Answer

Answer: b

44. Magnetic lines of force inside current carrying solenoid are
(a) perpendicular to axis.
(b) along the axis and are parallel to each other.
(c) parallel inside the solenoid and circular at the ends.
(d) circular.

Answer

Answer: c

45. A soft iron bar is introduced inside a current carrying solenoid. The magnetic field inside the solenoid
(a) will become zero.
(b) will increase.
(c) will decrease.
(d) will remain unaffected.

Answer

Answer: b

46. An electric generator actually acts as
(a) a source of electric charge.
(b) a source of neat energy.
(c) an electromagnet.
(d) a converter of energy.

Answer

Answer: d

47. A magnetic field directed in north direction acts on an electron moving in east direction. The magnetic force on the electron will act
(a) vertically upwards.
(b) towards east.
(c) vertically downwards.
(d) towards north.

Answer

Answer: c

48. The direction of force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field is given by
(a) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a

49. The direction of induced current is given by
(a) Fleming’s right hand rule.
(b) Fleming’s left hand rule.
(c) Right hand thumb rule.
(d) Left hand thumb rule.

Answer

Answer: a

50. Switches are connected to
(a) live wire.
(b) neutral wire.
(c) earth wire.
(d) any one.

Answer

Answer: a

51. The most important safety method used for protecting home appliances from short-circuiting or Overloading is
(a) earthing
(b) use of stabilizers
(c) use of fuse
(d) use of electric meter

Answer

Answer: c

Direction (Q52 to Q58): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
52. Assertion: Only a change in magnetic field lines linked with coil will induces current in the coil.
Reason: The presence of large magnetic flux through the coil maintains a current in a closed circuit coil.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

53. Assertion: When the direction of velocity of moving charge is perpendicular to the magnetic field, it experience a maximum force.
Reason: Force on the moving charge does not depends on the direction magnetic field in which it moves.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

54. Assertion: Fuse is a safety device which is installed to prevent electrical circuits and possible fires.
Reason: Fuse consist of tin-plated copper wire having low melting point, which melts and breaks the circuit if the current exceeds a safe value.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

55. Assertion: Steel core is used as an electromagnet.
Reason: Steel gets permanently magnetised when the current flows through the coil wound around.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

56. Assertion: It is fatal to touch a live electric wire as the person gets a severe electric shock. In some cases, electric shock can even kill a person.
Reason: The electric current passes through the body to the earth forming a circuit and bums the blood.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

57. Assertion: Strength of an electromagnet depends on the magnitude of current flowing through them.
Reason: Electromagnets are majorly used for lifting heavy weights.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

58. Assertion: It is easier to bring North pole of a magnet to South pole of other magnet.
Reason: There is a force of attraction between unlike poles of magnet.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

59. __________ is the commercial unit of electrical energy.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: kilowatt hour

60. The touching of the live wire and neutral wire directly is known as __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: short circuit

61. A D.C. generator is based on the principle of __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: electromagnetic induction

62. __________ generators are used in power stations to generate electricity which is supplied to our homes.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: A.C.

63. A __________ works on the principle that when a rectangular coil is placed in a magnetic field and current is passed through it, a force acts on the coil which rotates it continuously.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: motor

64. When North pole approaches a coil, the front side of the coil will show an __________ current.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: anticlockwise

65. By sending current through a coil wound round a rod one can magnetise it permanently. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

66. The rate of change in magnetic flux produces induced emf or potential. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

67. In ideal conditions, green colour insulation is given for live wire. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

68. Over-loading is caused by connecting many devices to one supply point. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

69. Potential of the earthed wire is zero. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

70. When a magnet is moved with its north polarity towards a coil placed in a closed circuit, then the neares face of the coil shows north polarity. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

71. When a coil and magnet both are stationary an induced emf is setup across the coil. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
72.

Column I Column II
(i) Electric motor (A) Electromagnet
(ii) Solenoid (B) Heating effect of electric current
(iii) Safety Fuses (C) Electrical energy to mechanical energy
(iv) Electric generator (D) Electromagnetic induction
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) → (C)
(ii) → (A)
(iii) → (B)
(iv) → (D)

73. State the observation made by Oersted on 1 the basis of his experiment with curren carrying conductors.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The electric current passing through a conducting wire produces magnetic effect.

74. Name the device which is used to draw magnetic field lines.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Compass needle.

75. Identify the poles of the magnet in the given figure.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Both the poles facing each other represent south pole in nature as the magnetic field lines outside the magnet move from North to South Poles.

76. A magnet AB is broken into two pieces. What is the polarity of A, B, C and D?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 3

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
If A is the North pole, then C – South pole D – North pole B – South pole

77. What is the direction of magnetic field lines inside and outside of a bar magnet?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Direction of magnetic field lines:
Inside a bar magnet: from South pole to North pole.
Outside of a bar magnet: from North pole to a South pole.

78. A magnetic needle deflects when it’s brought near a current carrying conductor. Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Magnetic force exerted by the magnetic field produced by the straight current carrying conductor causes the deflection in the needle.

79. Name two parts of your body where magnetic field is produced significantly.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Heart and Brain.

80. Suggest one way of discriminating a ware carrying current from a wire carrying no current.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Deflection in the compass needle discriminates a wire carrying current from a wire carrying no current.

81. State the conclusions that can be drawn from the observation that a current carrying wire deflects a magnetic needle placed near it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Current carrying wire exhibits properties of magnetism which indicate that electricity and magnetism are related phenomena.

82. How can you show that the magnetic field produced by a given electric current in the wire decreases as the distance from the wire increases?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The decrease in deflection of the magnetic compass needle clearly shows that the magnetic field decreases as we move away from the current-carrying conductor.

83. A current carrying straight wire held perpendicular to the plane of paper and current passes through this conductor in the vertically upward direction. What is the direction of magnetic field produced around it?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
According to right-hand thumb rule, the direction of magnetic field produced around the given conductor is anticlockwise.

84. If the circular coil has n turns, the field produced is n times as large as that produced by a single turn. Justify it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
This is because the current in each circular turn has the same direction, and the field due to each turn then just adds up along the axis of the coil.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers 4

85. The diagram shows a coil of wire wound on a soft iron core forming an electromagnet. A current is passed through the coil in the direction indicated by the arrows. Mark the N and S poles produced in the iron core.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Using clock face rule A is South pole. B is North pole.

86. How will you determine the direction of the magnetic field due to a current-carrying solenoid?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Direction of magnetic field: Imagine the current carrying solenoid in your right hand such that the curled fingers are in the direction of current, then the extended thumb will indicate the direction of emerging magnetic field line, i.e. the face of solenoid which has North polarity.

87. What will the polarity be of one end of a solenoid if the current appears to be flowing anticlockwise in it ?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
North pole by using Clock Face Rule.

88. Magnetic field inside the solenoid is uniform or non-uniform?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Uniform

89. State important features of the magnetic field obtained inside the solenoid. Write one use of solenoid.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The field lines inside the solenoid are parallel and closely spaced showing the field is highly uniform, same in strength at all the points and in the same direction.
Solenoid is used for making electromagnet.

90. Give one difference between the wires used in the element of an electric heater and in a fuse.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Electric wire used in electric heater has a high melting point whereas fuse wire has a low melting point.

91. A magnet is hung using a string. How will you identify the poles?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The north seeking pole is north pole and the south seeking pole is south pole.

92. What is the colour of wire conventionally used for (i) Live, (ii) Earth and (iii) Neutral?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Red, (ii) Green (iii) Black.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The magnetic field of a solenoid carrying a current is similar to that of a ……….. .
2. The direction of the induced current is given by ………..
3. A generator converts ……….. into ……….. .
4. In our houses, we receive AC electric power of ……….. V with a frequency of ……….. Hz.
5. The direction of magnetic force acting on a charged particle moving in a magnetic field can be found by ……….. .
6. According to Fleming’s left hand rule, if the first finger points in the direction of ……….., the second finger
in the direction of ……….., then the thumb will point in the direction of ……….. .

Answers

1. bar magnet
2. Fleming’s right hand rule
3. mechanical energy, electrical energy
4. 200 V, 50 Hz
5. Fleming’s left hand rule
6. magnetic field, current, force acting on the conductor

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Magnetic Effects of Electric Current with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 1 Magnetic Effects of Electric Current Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 10 Light Reflection and Refraction

Light Reflection and Refraction Class 10 MCQ With Answers Pdf Question 1. An object is placed at a distance of 0.25 m
in front of a plane mirror. The distance between the object and image will be
(a) 0.25 m
(b) 1.0 m
(c) 0.5 m
(d) 0.125 m

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Distance between object and image = 0.25 + 0.25 = 0.5 m

MCQ On Light Class 10 Question 2. The angle of incidence for a ray of light having zero reflection angle is
(a) 0
(b) 30°
(c) 45°
(d) 90°

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) For reflecting surface ∠i = ∠r

MCQ Questions On Light Class 10 Question 3. For a real object, which of the following can produce a real image?
(a) Plane mirror
(b) Concave mirror
(c) Concave lens
(d) Convex mirror

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Only concave mirror can produces a real image for the any position of object between its focus and infinity.

MCQ On Reflection Of Light Class 10 Question 4. Which of the following mirror is used by a dentist to examine a small cavity?
(a) Convex mirror
(b) Plane mirror
(c) Concave mirror
(d) Combination of convex and concave mirror

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Concave mirror forms erect and enlarged image when held close to the cavity.

MCQ On Reflection And Refraction Of Light With Answers Pdf Question 5. An object at a distance of 30 cm from a
concave mirror gets its image at the same point. The focal length of the mirror is
(a) – 30 cm
(b) 30 cm
(c) – 15 cm
(d) +15 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) When object is placed at 2F, the image formed by concave mirror is also at 2F.
So 2F = -30 or F = -15 cm.

Light Class 10 MCQ With Answers Question 6. An object at a distance of + 15 cm is slowly moved towards the pole of a convex mirror. The image will get
(a) shortened and real
(b) enlarged and real
(c) enlarge and virtual
(d) diminished and virtual

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) Convex mirror always formed virtual and diminished image.

MCQ Of Chapter Light Class 10 Question 7. A concave mirror of radius 30 cm is placed in water. It’s focal length in air and water differ by
(a) 15
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) 0

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The focal length of spherical mirror does not depends on the surrounding medium.

Reflection And Refraction Questions And Answers Question 8. A concave mirror of focal length 20 cm forms an image having twice the size of object. For the virtual position of object, the position of object will be at
(a) 25 cm
(b) 40 cm
(c) 10 cm
(d) At infinity

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) For virtual image,
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 8

Multiple Choice Questions On Light Reflection And Refraction Question 9. The image formed by concave mirror is real, inverted and of the same size as that of the object. The position of object should be
(a) at the focus
(b) at the centre of curvature
(c) between focus and centre of curvature
(d) beyond centre of curvature

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) When object lies at C of a concave mirror, image is also formed at ‘C’ and having same size real and inverted.

Multiple Choice Questions On Light Class 10 Question 10. The nature of the image formed by concave mirror when the object is placed between the focus (F) and centre of curvature (C) of the mirror observed by us is
(a) real, inverted and diminished
(b) virtual, erect and smaller in size
(c) real, inverted and enlarged
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(c) When object lies between C and F, the real, inverted and enlarged image is formed beyondC.

Light Chapter Physics Class 10 MCQ Question 11. The nature of image formed by a convex mirror when the object distance from the mirror is less than the distance between pole and focal point (F) of the mirror would be
(a) real, inverted and diminished in size
(b) real, inverted and enlarged in size
(c) virtual, upright and diminished in size
(d) virtual, upright and enlarged in size

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(c) Convex mirror always forms a virtual, erect diminished image irrespective of the position of object in front of it.

Reflection Of Light MCQ Pdf Question 12. If a man’s face is 25 cm in front of concave shaving mirror producing erect image 1.5 times the size of face, focal length of the mirror would be
(a) 75 cm
(b) 25 cm
(c) 15 cm
(d) 60 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) In concave shaving mirror, virtual erect and large size image, behind the mirror is obtained, using
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 9
Hence, focal length of concave mirror is 75 cm.

Multiple Choice Questions On Light Class 10 Question 13. As light travels from a rarer to a denser medium it will have
(a) increased velocity
(b) decreased velocity
(c) decreased wavelength
(d) both (b) and (c)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(d) When light ray travel from rarer to denser medium, its velocity and wavelength both decrease as v = vλ.

MCQ On Refraction Of Light Question 14. The angle of incidence i and refraction r are equal in a transparent slab when the value of i is
(a) 0°
(b) 45°
(c) 90°
(d) depend on the material of the slab

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) When the incident ray falls normally on the glass slab, it will refracted without deviation, i.e. along the normal in the glass slab. So, ∠i = ∠r = 0

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 Questions Question 15. The refractive index of transparent medium is greater than one because
(a) Speed of light in vacuum < speed of light in tansparent medium (b) Speed of light in vacuum > speed of light in tansparent medium
(c) Speed flight in vacuum = speed of light in tansparent medium
(d) Frequency of light wave changes when it moves from rarer to denser medium

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 11

MCQs On Light Question 16. The refractive index of water is 1.33. The speed of light in water will be
(a) 1.33 × 108 m/s
(b) 3 × 108 m/s
(c) 2.26 × 108 m/s
(d) 2.66 × 108 m/s

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 12

Light Multiple Choice Questions And Answers Question 17. You are given three media A, B and C of refractive index 1.33, 1.65 and 1.46. The medium in which the light will travel fastest is
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) equal in all three media

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 13
So, the light will travel faster in a medium having lower refractive index.

MCQ Of Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 Question 18. Light from the Sun falling on a convex lens will converge at a point called
(a) centre of curvature
(b) focus
(c) radius of curvature
(d) optical centre

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The parallel ray coming from the sun, after refraction through the convex lens converge at its focus.

Light MCQ Class 10 Question 19. Large number of thin stripes of black paint are made on the surface of a convex lens of focal length 20 cm to catch the image of a white horse. The image will be
(a) a zebra of black stripes
(b) a horse of black stripes
(c) a horse of less brightness
(d) a zebra of less brightness

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Complete image of the white horse is formed but of less intensity, the light falling on the curved portion will not react at the image position.

Light Reflection And Refraction Class 10 Solutions Question 20. A divergent lens will produce
(a) always real image
(b) always virtual image
(c) both real and virtual image
(d) none of these

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Diverging (concave) lens will always forms a virtual, erect and diminished image.

MCQ Of Light Class 10 Question 21. When object moves closer to convex lens, the image formed by it shift
(a) away from the lens
(b) towards the lens
(c) first towards and then away from the lens
(d) first away and then towards the lens

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) As object moves from infinity towards optical centre of the convex lens image is shifted away from its focal point and towards infinity.

22. When object moves closer to a concave lens the image by it shift
(a) away from the lens on the same side of object
(b) toward the lens
(c) away from the lens on the other side of lens
(d) first towards and then away from the lens

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) When object infinity, image is formed at the focus of concave lens of object is moved towards lens, the image is also moved from its focus towards lens and its size increase.

23. A magnified real image is formed by a convex lens when the object is at
(a) F
(b) between F and 2F
(c) 2F
(d) only (a) and (b) both

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) When object is at 2F, real inverted and same size image is formed by convex lens. So, according to question option (a) and (b) both are correct.

24. The distance between the potical centre and point of convergence is called focal length in which of the following cases?
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 1

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Parallel rays after refiracting meet at the focus of a convex lens.

25. A10 mm long awl pin is placed vertically in front of a concave mirror. A 5 mm long image of the awl pin is formed at 30 cm in front of the mirror. The focal length of this mirror is [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) – 30 cm
(b) – 20 cm
(c) – 40 cm
(d) – 60 cm

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Given h0 = +10 mm = + 0.1 cm
h2 = – 5 mm = -0.5 cm
for real image, v = – 30 cm
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 14

26. Figure shows a ray of light as it travels from medium A to medium B. Refractive index of the medium B relative to medium A is [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 2

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Here, ∠i = 60°, ∠r = 45°
Using Snell’s law of refraction, refractive index of medium B with respect to medium A.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 15

27. A light ray enters from medium A to medium B as shown in figure. The refractive index of medium B relative to A will be [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 3
(a) greater than unity
(b) less than unity
(c) equal to unity
(d) zero

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) In medium B, light ray bends away from the normal. It indicates that medium B is optically rarer than medium A. Hence speed of light in medium B is more than that in medium A.
Now, refractive index
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 16

28. Beams of light are incident through the holes A and B and emerge out of box through the holes C and D respectively as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 4
(a) A rectangular glass slab
(b) A convex lens .
(c) A concave lens
(d) A prism

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Figure shows that emergent ray are parallel to the incedent ray and shifted side ward slightly. This can be done by the rectangular glass slab only.

29. A beam of light is incident through the holes on side A and emerges out of the hole on the other face of the box as shown in the figure. Which of the following could be inside the box? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Concave lens
(b) Rectangular glass slab
(c) Prism
(d) Convex lens
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 5

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) From figure, it is clear that parallel rays converge at a point and emerges from face B. So convex lens would be possible inside the box.

30. Which of the following statements is/are true? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) A convex lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(b) A convex lens has -4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(c) A concave lens has 4 dioptre power having a focal length 0.25 m
(d) A concave lens has – 4 dioptre having a focal 0.25 m

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Positive sign with power and focal length indicates that the given lens is convex.
Also f = \(\frac{1}{P}=\frac{1}{4}\) = 0.25m

31. Magnification produced by a rear view mirror fitted in vehicles [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) is less than one
(b) is more than one
(c) is equal to one
(d) can be more than or less than one depending upon the position of the object in front of it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Convex mirror is used as rear view mirror and alway forms virtual, erect and diminished inage. So magnification produced by a rear view mirror is less than one.

32. A full length image of a distant tall building can definitely be seen by using [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) a concave mirror
(b) a convex mirror
(c) a plane mirror
(d) both concave as well as plane mirror

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) Convex mirror has a wide field of view as it forms virtual, erect and diminished image. Hence, fall length of image of distance tall building can definitely be seen by using it.

33. In torches, search lights and headlights of vehicles the bulb is placed [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) between the pole and the focus of the reflector
(b) very near to the focus of the reflector
(c) between the focus and centre of curvature of the reflector
(d) at the centre of curvature of the reflector

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) When source of light is placed verg near to the focus of the reflector which are concave in shape, the reflected light becomes parallel to the principal axis.

34. The laws of reflection hold good for [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) plane mirror only
(b) concave mirror only
(c) convex mirror only
(d) all mirrors irrespective of their shape

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The laws of reflection hold good for light reflected from any smooth surface irrespective of their shapes.

35. The path of a ray of light coming from air passing through a rectangular glass slab traced by four students are shown as A, B, C and D in figure. Which one of them is correct? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 6
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) When a light ray is incident oblikely on one face of rectangular glass slab, the emergent ray will be parallel to the incident ray and shifted sideward slightly.

36. In which of the following, the image of an object placed at infinity will be highly diminished and point sized? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Concave mirror only
(b) Convex mirror only
(c) Convex lens only
(d) Concave mirror, convex mirror, concave lens and convex lens.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: d
Explanation:
(d) The incident ray coming from the object placed at infinity will be parallel to the principal axis. When the parallel beam of light incident on a mirror or lens, irrespective of their nature, after reflection/refraction, will pass or appear to pass through their principal focus. Hence highly diminished and point size image will be formed at their focus.

37. When light falls on a smooth polished surface, most of it
(a) is reflected in the same direction
(b) is reflected in different directions
(c) is scattered
(d) is refracted into the second medium

Answer

Answer: a

38. Image formed by reflection from a plane mirror is
(a) real and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) virtual and inverted

Answer

Answer: b

39. If an incident ray passes through the focus, the reflected ray will
(a) pass through the pole
(b) be parallel to the principal axis
(c) retrace its path
(d) pass through the centre of curvature

Answer

Answer: b

40. Magnifying power of a concave lens is
(a) always > 1
(b) always < 1
(c) always = 1
(d) can have any value

Answer

Answer: b

41. The image formed by a convex lens can be
(a) virtual and magnified
(b) virtual and diminished
(c) virtual and of same size
(d) virtual image is not formed

Answer

Answer: a

42. A point object is placed at a distance of 20 cm from a convex mirror of focal length 20 cm. The image will form at:
(a) at infinity
(b) at focus
(c) at the pole
(d) behind the mirror

Answer

Answer: d

43. Focal length of a concave mirror is
(a) negative
(b) positive
(c) depends on the position of object
(d) depends on the position of image

Answer

Answer: a

44. If the power of a lens is – 2 D, what is its focal length?
(a) +50 cm
(b) -100 cm
(c) -50 cm
(d) +100 cm

Answer

Answer: c

45. A spherical mirror and a spherical lens each have a focal length of -10 cm. The mirror and the lens are likely to be
(a) both concave
(b) both convex
(c) the mirror is concave and the lens is convex
(d) the mirror is convex and the lens is concave

Answer

Answer: a

46. If the magnification produced by a lens has a negative value, the image will be
(a) virtual and inverted
(b) virtual and erect
(c) real and erect
(d) real and inverted

Answer

Answer: b

47. When the object is placed between f and 2f of a convex lens, the image formed is
(a) at f
(b) at 2f
(c) beyond 2f
(d) between O and f

Answer

Answer: c

48. Which mirroji can produce a virtual, erect and magnified ifhage of an object?
(a) Concave mirror
(b) Convex mirror
(c) Plane mirror
(d) Both concave and convex mirrors

Answer

Answer: a

49. If the image is formed in front of the mirror, then the image distance will be
(a) positive or negative depending on the size of the object
(b) neither positive nor negative
(c) positive
(d) negative

Answer

Answer: d

50. A ray of light is travelling from a rarer medium to a denser medium. While entering the denser medium at the point of incidence, it
(a) goes straight into the second medium
(b) bends towards the normal
(c) bends away from the normal
(d) does not enter at all

Answer

Answer: b

51. A student does the experiment on tracing the path of a ray of light passing through a rectangular glass slab for different angles of incidence. He can get a correct measure of the angle of incidence and the angle of emergence by following the labelling indicated in figure:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 1
(a) I
(b) II
(c) III
(d) IV

Answer

Answer: d

Direction (Q52 to Q56): The questions given below consist of an assertion and the reason. Use the following key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
52. Assertion: Incident light is reflected in only one direction from a smooth surface.
Reason: Since the angle of incidence and the angle of reflection are same, a beam of parallel rays of light falling on a smooth surface is reflected as a beam of parallel light rays in one direction only.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

53. Assertion: The word AMBULANCE on the hospital vans is written in the form of its mirror as
Reason: The image formed in a plane mirror is same size of the oblect.MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 10

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

54. Assertion: Cannot see the distant object clearly.
Reason: The far point of an eye suffering j, from myopia is less than infinity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

55. Assertion: Pupil is black in colour.
Reason: Pupil is black in colour as no light is reflected in it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

56. Assertion: The rainbow is a man made spectrum of sunlight in the sky.
Reason: The rainbow is formed in the sky when the sun is shining and it is raining at the same time.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.

57. ____________ mirror is used as a security mirror in shops and on roads at sharp bends and concealed entrances.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Convex

58. The refractive index of a transparent medium is the ratio of the speed of light in ____________ to that in the ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: vacuum, medium

59. If the magnification has a minus sign, then the image is ____________ and ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: real, inverted

60. The focal length of a lens is the distance between ____________ and ____________ of the lens.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: optical centre, principal focus

61. The focal length of a concave lens is considered to be ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: negative

62. In order to calculate the power of a lens, we need its focal length in ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: metres

63. Angle of refraction cannot exceed 90°. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

64. When incident angle i satisfies n = \(\frac{1}{\sin i}\), the refracted light will pass along the surface. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

65. A person standing in front of a mirror finds his image larger than himself. This shows that mirror is convex in nature. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False
Convex mirror always forms a diminished image so it is false statement.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 17
i.e., the object distance from the mirror is numerically equal to (m – 1 )f.

66. Lateral displacement increases with the thickness of the given slab. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

67. Lateral displacement is directly proportional to thickness of the glass slab. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

68. Nature of image formed by mirror gives an ideal about nature of mirror. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

69. A convex lens (ng = 3/2) when placed in water (nw = 4/3) has increased focal length [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

70. A convex and a concave lens of equal focal length behaves as a regular glass slab receiving light normally. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

71. Concave lens and convex mirror diverge the rays which fall parallel to the principal axis. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

72. The power of a concave lens is positive. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
73.

Column I Column II
(i) Ray through centre of curvature (A) Reflected parallel to principal axis
(ii) Ray through focus (B) Converge at focus
(iii) Rays from infinite distance (C) Emerge through focus
(iv) Refracted rays to infinity (D) Retracing in mirrors
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) → (D), (ii) → (A), (iii) → (B), (iv) → (C)
(i) → (D): For this ray Zi = Zr = 0
(ii) → (A): The ray of light passing through the focus will emerge parallel to the principal axis after reflection.
(iii) → (B): When object is at infinity, the image is formed at the focus of a concave mirror.
(iv) → (C): A ray from the object parallel to principal axis will pars through the principal . focus after refraction in a convex lens.

74. What is light?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Light is a form of energy. It brings the sensation of sight. It is a form of electromagnetic radiation. It also provides us means of communication (fibre-optics).

75. Write any one observation from everyday life which show us that light travels in a straight line.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A small source of light costs a sharp shadow of an opaque object tells us that light travels in a straight line.

76. What is a ray?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ray is a line defining the path of light.

77. What is beam?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A bundle of rays originating from the same source of light in a particular direction is called beam of light.

78. Explain why a ray of light passing through the centre of curvature of a concave mirror, gets reflected along the same path.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The ray passing through the centre of curvature incident to the mirror along its normal, so ∠i = ∠r = 0. Therefore, the ray retraces its path.

79. Is light a ray or a wave?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is considered in both the forms.

80. What are the characters associated with light as a wave?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Frequency and wavelength.

81. What is Spherical mirror?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A reflecting surface which is of the form of a sphere (hollow) in which inner or outer surface is reflecting.

82. What is the relation connecting focal length and radius of a spherical mirror?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: F = \(\frac{R}{2}\)

83. Can any spherical surface act as a reflector?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Yes, polished surface can be better reflectors.

84. Redraw the diagram given below in your answer book and show the direction of the light ray after reflection from the mirror.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 7

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Light Reflection and Refraction with Answers 18

85. For what position of object, a concave mirror forms a real image equal to size of object?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
When object is placed at the centre of curvature (C) same size real image is formed by concave mirror.

86. A concave mirror forms a sharp image of a distant tree. What name is given to the distance between the concave mirror and screen on which sharp image is formed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Focal length.

87. In what condition, the image formed by a concave mirror is virtual?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
When the object is placed between the focus and the pole of a concave mirror, a virtual image is obtained.

88. Specified the size of image formed by a concave mirror when m > 1.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The image is enlarged.

89. Name the mirror that can be used to check theft in shops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Convex mirror.

90. What is the position of the object placed on the side of reflecting surface of a concave mirror of focal length 15 cm if the image is formed at the distance of 30 cm from the mirror?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 30 cm

91. Which mirror, concave or convex always converges the light rays?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Concave mirror.

92. For what position of the object does a concave mirror forms a real image which is highly enlarged?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: At F.

93. When object is placed at centre of centre of curvature of concave mirror, where is the image formed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: At C.

94. What focal length can be assigned to a plane mirror?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Infinity.

95. Size of the image formed on a concave mirror is highly diminished, state the position of object and image.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Position of object: at infinity Position of image : at the focus F

Fill in the Blanks

1. Light shows the phenomena of reflection, refraction and ………. .
2. The speed of light in vacuum is ………. .
3. Power of’ a lens is the ………. of its focal length.
4. The SI unit of power is ………. .
5. A ………. lens will always give a virtual, erect and diminished image, irrespective of the position of the object.
6. A positive sign in the value of magnification indicates that the image is ………. .
7. A ………. mirror is used as a head mirror by the doctors to concentrate light on the body parts to be examined.
8. No matter how far you stand from a spherical mirror, your image appears erect. The mirror may be ………. .

Answers

1. dispersion
2. 3 x 108 m/s
3. reciprocal
4. dioptre
5. concave
6. virtual
7. concave
8. plane or convex mirror .

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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources

Management of Natural Resources Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Which one of the following is an example of renewable resource ?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Wildlife
(d) Natural gas

Answer

Answer: c

MCQs on Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Question 2. Which one of the following is an example of nonrenewable resource?
(a) Water
(b) Vegetation
(c) Wind
(d) Coal and minerals

Answer

Answer: d

MCQ on Management of Natural Resources Class 10 Question 3. Which of the following are to be managed for sustainable development?
(a) Industries (b) Forests
(c) Crops (d) Resources

Answer

Answer: d

4. Which of the following is the ‘biodiversity hot spots’ ?
(a) Rivers
(b) Forests
(c) Deserts
(d) Oceans

Answer

Answer: b

Natural Resources MCQ Question 5. When we destroy a forest, we destroy
(a) the trees
(b) population of wildlife
(c) the environment
(d) food and shelter of wild animals

Answer

Answer: c

Management of Natural Resources MCQ Question 6. Which of the following community in Rajasthan has a religious tenet of conservation of forest and wildlife ?
(a) Agarwal
(b) Jaishwal
(c) Bishnoi
(d) Jain

Answer

Answer: c

MCQ Management of Natural Resources Question 7. Which of the following canals brought about greenery in Rajasthan ?
(a) Rajiv Gandhi Canal
(b) Indira Gandhi Canal
(c) Jawaharlal Canal
(d) Mahatma Gandhi Canal

Answer

Answer: b

8. Which of the following is the age old concept of water harvesting system in Madhya Pradesh ?
(a) Bundhis
(b) Ponds
(c) Bandharas
(d) Nadis

Answer

Answer: a

MCQ on Sustainable Management of Natural Resources Question 9. Surangams are the age-old concept of water harvesting in
(a) Karnataka
(b) Kerela
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b

10. Which of the following is not an use of forest ?
(a) Controls floods.
(b) Used to make paper.
(c) Causes soil erosion.
(d) Resin, gum and drugs are obtained.

Answer

Answer: c

11. From the list given below pick the item that is not a natural resource [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Soil
(b) Water
(c) Electricity
(d) Air

Answer

Answer: c

12. The main cause for abundant coliform bacteria in the river Ganga is [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) disposal of human excreta directly
(b) discharge of effluents from electroplating industries
(c) washing of clothes
(d) immersion of ashes.

Answer

Answer: a

13. Among the statements given below select the ones that correctly describe the concept of sustainable development [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) Planned growth with minimum damage to the environment
(ii) Growth irrespective of the extent of damage caused to the environment
(iii) Stopping all developmental work to conserve the environment
(iv) Growth that is acceptable to all the stakeholders
(a) (i) and (iv)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) and (iv)
(d) (iii) only

Answer

Answer: a

14. In our country, vast tracts of forests are cleared and a single species of plant is cultivated. This practice promotes [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) biodiversity in the area
(b) monoculture in the area
(c) growth of natural forest
(d) preserves the natural ecosystem in the area

Answer

Answer: b

15. Expand the abbreviation GAP [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Governmental Agency for Pollution Control
(b) Gross Assimilation by Photosynthesis
(c) Ganga Action Plan
(d) Governmental Agency for Animal Protection

Answer

Answer: c

16. Ground water will not be depleted due to [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) afforestation
(b) thermal power plants
(c) loss of forest, and decreased rainfall
(d) cropping of high water demanding crops

Answer

Answer: a

17. Pick the right combination of terms which has no fossil fuel. [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Wind, ocean and coal
(b) Kerosene, wind and tide
(c) Wind, wood, sun
(d) Petroleum, wood, sun

Answer

Answer: c

18. Environment Day falls on
(a) 28th February
(b) 23rd March
(c) 5th June
(d) 16th August

Answer

Answer: c

19. The pH range most conducive for life of fresh water plants and animals is
(a) 6.5 – 7.5
(b) 2.0 – 3.5
(c) 3.5 – 7.0
(d) 9.0 – 10.5

Answer

Answer: a

20. Which environmental problem is associated with the construction of high rise dams?
(a) A large number of human settlements are submerged in the water.
(b) It contributes to deforestation and loss of biodiversity.
(c) It involves the spending of huge amounts of money.
(d) All the above.

Answer

Answer: d

21. Sardar Sarovar Dam is constructed on which river?
(a) Ganga
(b) Sutluj
(c) Narmada
(d) Kaveri

Answer

Answer: c

22. What is the purpose of rain-water harvesting?
(a) To hold rain water on the surface of the earth.
(b) To recharge ground water.
(c) To use water for the irrigation of crops.
(d) To rear fish

Answer

Answer: b

23. What are the three R’s to save the environment?
(a) Reduce, Recycle, Reuse
(b) Replenish, Reduce, Reuse
(c) Reconstruct, Recycle, Reduce
(d) Reduce, Recycle, Remove

Answer

Answer: a

24. Expand the abbreviation GAP
(a) Government Action Plan
(b) Ganga Action Plan
(c) Government Agency for Pollution Control
(d) Government Animal Protection Plant

Answer

Answer: b

25. The Indira Gandhi Canal has brought greenery to considerable areas of
(a) Gujarat
(b) Rajasthan
(c) Bihar
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b

26. Which gas is formed, when fossil fuels are burnt in insufficient air (oxygen)?
(a) Carbon dioxide
(b) Carbon monoxide
(c) Both CO2 and CO
(d) Neither CO2 nor CO

Answer

Answer: b

27. The bacteria present in contaminated water is _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Coliform

28. Large-scale deforestation decreases _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rainfall

29. In the Arabari forest range of Midnapore district involvement of villagers helped to recover trees of _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sal

30. Sanctuaries are established to _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Protect animals

31. Red Data book provides a list of _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rare, endangered or endemic species

32. Sardar Sarovar Dam is situated on river _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Narmada

33. Tehri Dam is being constructed on _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ganga

34. Kulhs system of irrigation is common in _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Himachal Pradesh

35. Soil and water are non-renewable natural resources. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

36. Revival of ancient systems of water harvesting is better than big dams. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

37. Monoculture forestry is more suitable for industries but it is not good for the environment. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

38. Control of local people over their own water resources may cause mismanagement and over-exploitation of these resources. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

39. The river water is said to be polluted with acidic wastes when the pH of river water above 7. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

Direction (Q40 to Q41): Match Column I with Column II.
40.

Column I Column II
(i) Reduce (A) Reprocess to make desired things
(ii) Recycle (B) Use again and again.
(iii) Reuse (C) Sustainable development.
(iv) Safe disposal of waste (D) Less use of things.
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) (D)
(ii) (A)
(iii) (B)
(iv) (C)

41.

Column I Column II
(i) Himachal Pradesh (A) Surangams
(ii) Rajasthan (B) Bandharas
(iii) Bihar (C) Kulhs
(iv) Karnataka (D) Khadins
(E) Kattas
(F) Ahars
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) (C)
(ii) (D)
(iii) (F)
(iv) (E)

42. Define the term ‘Conservation of environment’. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Conservation of environment means ‘to keep safe the environment as it is’, i.e. the sensible use of the earth’s natural resources in order to avoid excessive degradation and betterment of the environment.

43. What are the two kinds of natural resources? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Water and forest.

44. How natural resources are protected?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
With the help of various national and international laws and regulations.

45. What do you call the resources, viz, coal, petroleum, water, wildlife, etc.?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Natural resources.

46. What is Wildlife?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It comprises of living beings which occur in natural habitats and are neither domesticated nor cultivated.

47. Who are called forest stakeholders? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Forest stakeholders include all those people who either live in forest or near to forest and depend on forest to meet their day to day need.

48. How does increasing demand for energy adversely affect our environment? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To meet the increased demand for energy, more and more natural resources are exploited. Pollutants are emitted during exploitation and use of natural resources which affect our environment.

49. A person lives near a forest. Make a list of four items which he can get from the forest to meet his daily needs.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Timber, Firewood, honey and fruits.

50. Name any two forest products, each of which is the basis for some industry. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Pine wood for matchbox industry
(ii) Bamboo for paper industry

51. State an instance where human intervention saved the forests from destruction. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Human intervention saved the Arabari forest range of West Bengal from destruction with active and willing participation of local community. The Sal forest of Arabari underwent a remarkable recovery.

52. Name two industries based on forest produce. [Allahabad 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Timber industry, paper manufacturing industry, lac industry and sports equipment industry. (Any two)

53. Name one river which gets polluted while passing through towns of Haridwar, Kanpur, Allahabad, Patna and Howrah?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ganga.

54. Name the most common practice used to recharge ground water. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rain water harvesting.

55. What are the obj ectives of Namami Gange Programme?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Namami Gange Programme was launched to accomplish twin objectives of effective abatement of pollution and rejuvenation of river Ganga.

56. When was National Mission for Clean Ganga set up?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
National Mission for Clean Ganga was set up in October, 2016.

57. Who won the Stockholm Water Prize in 2015?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Dr. Rajendra Singh won the Stockholm Water Prize in 2015.

58. Name some traditional water harvesting systems in India. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Traditional water harvesting systems are Khadims, tanks, bandharas, tals, bundhis, pynes etc.

59. State the main purpose of rain-water harvesting.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is done to recharge the ground water by percolating water under the soil.

60. What types of fuels are coal and petroleum?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Fossil fuels.

61. What action Government has taken to save the river Ganga from pollution?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Government launched Ganga Action Plan in 1985.

62. Name the bacteria whose presence in water indicate contamination of water. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Coliform.

63. What does coliform presence in Ganga water mean?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It means contamination by disease causing microorganisms.

64. You must have heard the word ‘water harvesting.’ What does it mean?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It means capturing rain water or run off in a local area.

65. What is the main purpose of rain water harvesting?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To make rain water percolate under the soil so as to recharge ‘ground water’.

66. How long will the known reserves of coal and petroleum last with present rate of consumption?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The coal reserve will last for about 200 years and petroleum will last us for about 40 years.

67. Which fossil fuel is conserved when we use bicycle for covering short distances instead of vehicle?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Petroleum.

68. Name a clean fuel other than LPG and Natural gas. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: CNG.

69. Name two fossil fuels. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Coal and petroleum.

Fill in the Blanks

1. The management of ……… resources requires a long term perspective.
2. ……… are ‘biodiverse hotspots’.
3. The Government of India, has recently instituted an ‘Amrita Devi Bishnoi National Award’ for ……… in the memory of Amrita Devi Bishnoi.
4. ‘Khadin’ system of rain-water harvesting is practiced in ……… .
5. The Chipko Andolan originated from an incident in a remote village called.’……….’ in Garhwal.

Answers

1. natural
2. Forests
3. wildlife conservation
4. Rajasthan
5. Reni

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Management of Natural Resources with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 16 Management of Natural Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers

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Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Science Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Science MCQs Chapter 15 Our Environment

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 1. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Plastic mugs
(b) Leather belts
(c) Silver foil
(d) Iron nails

Answer

Answer: b

Our Environment MCQ Question 2. Which of the following is non- biodegradable?
(a) Wool
(b) Nylon
(c) Animal bones
(d) Tea leaves

Answer

Answer: b

3. Which one of the following will undergo fastest bio-degradation?
(a) Mango seed
(b) Wood
(c) Mango peel
(d) Mango pulp

Answer

Answer: d

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Pdf Question 4.
MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers 1
An ecosystem is represented in the figure given above. This ecosystem will be self- sustaining if
(a) the type of organisms represented by B are eliminated.
(b) materials cycle between the organisms labelled A and the organisms labelled B.
(c) the organisms labelled A outnumber the organisms labelled B.
(d) the organisms labelled A are equal in number to the organisms labelled B.

Answer

Answer: b

MCQ of Our Environment Class 10 Question 5. In an ecosystem, herbivores represent
(a) producers
(b) primary consumers
(c) secondary consumers
(d) decomposers

Answer

Answer: b

Our Environment Class 10 MCQ Question 6. Trophic level in an ecosystem represents
(a) oxygen level
(b) water level
(c) energy level
(d) salt level

Answer

Answer: c

7. A food chain comprising birds, green plants, fish and man.
The concentration of harmful chemical entering the food chain will be maximum in
(a) green plants
(b) man
(c) birds
(d) fish

Answer

Answer: b

8. First link in any food chain is usually green plants because
(a) they are widely distributed
(b) they are fixed at one place in the soil
(c) they alone have the capacity to synthesise food using sunlight
(d) there are more herbivores than carnivores

Answer

Answer: c

MCQ on Our Environment Question 9. Which of the following statements about food chain and energy flow through ecosystem is false?
(a) Food webs include two or more food chains.
(b) All organisms that are not producers are consumers.
(c) A single organism can feed at several trophic levels.
(d) Detritivores feed at all trophic levels except the producer level.
(e) The lower the trophic level at which an organism feeds, the more energy available.

Answer

Answer: d

10. Which of the following is a logical sequence of food chain
(a) producer → consumer → decomposer
(b) producer → decomposer → consumer
(c) consumer → producer → decomposer
(d) decomposerproducer → consumer

Answer

Answer: a

MCQ on Our Environment Class 10 Question 11. Which of the following is an autotroph?
(a) Lion
(b) Insect
(c) Tree
(d) Mushroom

Answer

Answer: c

12. In the garden ecosystem, which of the following are producers?
(a) Insects
(b) Snakes
(c) Grasses
(d) Rabbits

Answer

Answer: c

MCQ of Chapter Our Environment Class 10 Question 13. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Pond
(b) Crop field
(c) Lake
(d) Forest

Answer

Answer: b

14. An ecosystem includes [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) all living organisms
(b) non-living objects
(c) both living organisms and non-living objects
(d) sometimes living organisms and sometimes nonliving objects

Answer

Answer: c

15. Excessive exposure of humans to UV-ray s results in [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(i) damage to immune system
(ii) damage to lungs
(iii) skin cancer
(iv) peptic ulcer
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: c

Our Environment MCQ Class 10 Question 16. Which group of organisms are not constituents of a food chain? [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) Grass, lion, rabbit
(b) Plankton, man, fish, grasshopper
(c) Wolf, grass, snake, tiger
(d) Frog, snake, eagle, grass, grasshopper

Answer

Answer: c

17. If a grasshopper is eaten by a frog, then the energy transfer will be from [NCERT Exemplar Problems]
(a) producer to decomposer
(b) producer to primary consumer
(c) primary consumer to secondary consumer
(d) secondary consumer to primary consumer

Answer

Answer: c

18. Excessive exposure to ultraviolet radiation causes
(a) inflammation of liver
(b) cancer of skin
(c) damage to the lungs
(d) jaundice

Answer

Answer: b

19. Which one of the following is an artificial ecosystem?
(a) Lake
(b) Forest
(c) Pond
(d) Crop field

Answer

Answer: d

20. Acid rain is caused by the oxides of
(a) carbon
(b) nitrogen only
(c) sulphur only
(d) sulphur and nitrogen

Answer

Answer: d

21. Which of the following is biodegradable?
(a) Aluminium can
(b) Polythene bag
(c) Cowdung
(d) DDT

Answer

Answer: c

22. Which of the following is an abiotic component of an ecosystem?
(a) Humus
(b) Bacteria
(c) Plants
(d) Fungi

Answer

Answer: a

23. Which one of the following pairs belong to the category of primary consumers?
(a) Eagle and snake
(b) Grasshoppers & cattle
(c) Snake and frog
(d) Water beetles & fish

Answer

Answer: b

24. Which of the following chemicals causes depletion of the ozone layer?
(a) Carbon tetrachloride
(b) Methane
(c) Chloro fluoro carbon
(d) Carbon monoxide

Answer

Answer: c

25. In a food chain, the third trophic level is always occupied by
(a) herbivore
(b) carnivore
(c) decomposer
(d) producer

Answer

Answer: b

26. The depletion of the ozone layer causes
(a) global wanning
(b) earthquakes
(c) increased UV radiations
(d) acid rain

Answer

Answer: c

27. In the given foodchain if the amount of energy at the fourth trophic level is 4 kJ, what will be the energy available at the producer level?
Grass → Grasshopper → Frog → Snake
(a) 4 kJ
(b) 40 kJ
(c) 400 kJ
(d) 4000 kJ

Answer

Answer: d

28. What will happen if all the deer are killed in the given food chain?
Grass → Deer → Lion
(a) The population of grass decreases.
(b) The population of lions increases.
(c) The population of lions remains unchanged.
(d) The population of lions decreases and grass increases.

Answer

Answer: d

29. Which of the two in the following sets belong to the same trophic level?
(a) Grass; Grasshopper
(b) Goat; Spider
(c) Hawk ; Rat
(d) Frog ; Lizard

Answer

Answer: d

Direction (Q30 to Q34): In the following Questions, the Assertion and Reason have been put forward. Read the statements carefully and choose the correct alternative from the following:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) The statement of the Assertion is false but the Reason is true.
30. Assertion: Vegetarian food habit is more beneficial to organisms.
Reason: Only 10% energy is available as food from one trophic level to next.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

31. Assertion: Accumulation of harmful chemicals is maximum in case of organisms at higher trophic level.
Reason: Food chain normally do not go beyond 3 or 4 trophic level.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

32. Assertion: Ozone layer is getting depleted at upper atmosphere which is a cause of concern.
Reason: CFC reacts with ozone and breaks it.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: a
Explanation:
(a) Both the Assertion and the Reason are correct and the Reason is the correct explanation of the Assertion.

33. Assertion: Autotrophs can produce food on its own.
Reason: Green plants can absorb 1% energy of sunlight that fall on the leaves.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: b
Explanation:
(b) The Assertion and the Reason are correct but the Reason is not the correct explanation of the Assertion.

34. Assertion: Biodegradable waste and non biodegradable waste should be discarded separately,
Reason: Biodegradable waste are not harmful.

Answer/Explanation

Answer: c
Explanation:
(c) Assertion is true but the Reason is false.

35. A food chain comprises of frog, snake, grass and grasshopper. The organisms at third trophic level is ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: frog

36. In an ecosystem, various organisms are linked forming interconnections such a condition is termed as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Food web

37. Ultraviolet radiation from sunlight causes a reaction which produces ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: O3

38. Burning of waste substances usually at high temperature of over 1000° C to convert them into ashes is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Incineration

39. Animal dung is ___________ waste.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Biodegradable

40. Accumulation of non-biodegradable pesticides in the food chain in increasing amount at each higher trophic level is known as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: biomagnification

41. Depletion of ozone is mainly due to ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: chlorofluorocarbon compounds

42. Organisms which synthesise carbohydrates from inorganic compounds using radiant energy are called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: producers

43. Flow of energy in an ecosystem is always ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: unidirectional

44. Decomposers get their energy directly from autotrophs. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

45. Ozone layer presents harmful infrared radiation. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

46. Factors such as light, temperature, pressure and humidity are considered as biotic components. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

47. Food chains generally consist of three or four organisms. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

48. Disposal of waste means recycling of wastes. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False

49. The disposal of wastes by putting it in low-lying areas of ground and covering it with earth is called landfill. [True/False]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True

Direction: Match Column I with Column II.
50.

Column I Column II
1. Producers (i) Suspended
2. Primary consumers (ii) Group of colours
3. Secondary consumers (iii) Scattering
4. Decomposers (iv) Changing
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 (iii)
2 (i)
3 (iv)
4 (ii).

51. We often use the word environment. What does it mean? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is the sum total of all external conditions and influences that affect the life and development of an organism, i.e. the environment includes all the physical or abiotic and biological or biotic factors.

52. Why is it necessary to conserve our environment? [AI2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is necessary to conserve our environment to prevent depletion of natural resources and environmental damage, thereby sustaining life.

53. Select two non-biodegradable substances from the following wastes generated in a kitchen: spoilt food, paper bags, milk bags, vegetable peels, tin cans, used tea leaves. [Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Milk bags and tin cans.

54. Why should biodegradable and non- biodegradable wastes be discarded in two separate dustbins? [AI 2017(C); Delhi 2013, 15]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The biodegradable and non-biodegradable wastes must be discarded in two different dustbins because biodegradable Wastes gets decomposed by the microorganisms whereas non-biodegradable wastes can be recycled and reused.

55. How should we dispose waste?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By segregating biodegradable and non-biodegradable material.

56. Why is plastic called non-biodegradable?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastic cannot be broken-down into smaller particles by the action of bacteria and hence it is called non-biodegradable.

57. What is biodegradable plastic?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plastics that are decomposed by the action of living organisms such as bacteria are called biodegradable plastic.

58. Name few biodegradable substances you generate.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Waste food, paper, cloth, etc.

59. List two natural ecosystems. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two natural ecosystems are forest and river.

60. List two biotic components of a biosphere. [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Two biotic components of a biosphere are plants and animals.

61. Name any two man-made ecosystems. [Foreign 2017]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Agricultural/crop fields, aquaria, gardens. (any two)

62. Why are green plants called producers? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants can produce their own food by photosynthesis from inorganic compounds and hence are called producers.

63. What will be the amount of energy available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level of a food chain, if the energy available at the first trophic level is 10,000 joules? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
100 Joules of energy will be available to the organism of the 2nd trophic level.

64. The first trophic level in a food chain is always a green plant. Why? [AI 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Only green plants can make their own food from sunlight. Green plants therefore, always occupy the 1st trophic level in a food chain.

65. Which of the following are always at the second trophic level of the food chains? [AI 2015]
Carnivores, Autotrophs, Herbivores

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Herbivores are always at the 2nd trophic level.

66. The following organisms form a food chain. Which of these will have the highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals? Name the phenomenon associated with it. [Foreign 2015]
Insects, Hawk, Grass, Snake, Frog.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hawk will have highest concentration of non-biodegradable chemicals. The phenomenon is called biomagnification.

67. List two criteria of measuring the biodiversity of an area. [Foreign 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
One measure of the biodiversity of an area is the number of species found there. Secondly, the range of different life forms is also important.

68. Name two decomposers operating in our cosystem. [AI 2011, Delhi 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bacteria and fungi.

69. In a food chain, 10,000 joules of energy is available to the producer. How much energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer it to the tertiary consumer? [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
10J of energy will be available to the secondary consumer to transfer to the tertiary consumer.

70. Consider the following food chain which occurs in a forest:
Grass → Deer → Lion
If 10000 J of solar energy is available to the grass, how much energy would be available to the deer to transfer it to the lion? [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1 J energy will be available to deer to transfer it to lion.

71. In the following food chain, 100 J of energy is available to the lion. How much energy was available to the producer? [AI 2017]
Plants → Deer → Lion

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
1,000,000 J of energy was available to the producer.

72. Which of the following belong to the first trophic level of a food chain?
Grass, Grasshopper, Plants, Rat, Tiger [Foreign 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Grass and plants belong to the 1st trophic level of a food chain.

73. What are the various steps in a food chain called? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The various steps in a food chain are called trophic levels.

74. Give an example to illustrate that indiscriminate use of pesticides may result in the degradation of the environment. [AI 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The pesticides used in crop field are washed down into the water bodies. From water bodies, these are absorbed by the aquatic plants and animals of a food chain and thereby degrades the environment.

75. When plants are eaten by primary consumers, a great deal of energy is lost as heat to the environment and some amount goes in carrying out various life processes. State the average percentage of energy lost in this manner. [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The average percentage of energy lost when plants are eaten by primary consumers is 90%.

76. Write the full name of the group of compounds mainly responsible for the depletion of ozone layer. [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: CFC → Chlorofluorocarbon

77. What is a consumer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Organisms which depend upon producers for food.

78. What happens to Sun’s energy that fall on green plants?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Green plants absorb 1% of Sun’s energy that falls on their leaves.

79. How much energy one trophic level gets from another?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Each trophic level makes 10% energy available to next trophic level.

80. What happens when a harmful chemical enters a food chain?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Its concentration increases with increase in trophic level.

81. Why does energy available at each trophic level diminish progressively?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Energy available at each trophic level diminishes progressively due to loss of energy at each level.

82. Define Ozone hole. [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Decline in the thickness of ozone layer in Antartica is termed as ozone hole.

83. Write the name and formula of a molecule made up of three atoms of oxygen. [AI 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ozone and its chemical formula is O3.

84. Why did United Nations act to control the production of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) used in refrigerators? [Delhi 2011]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFCs depletes the ozone layer around the earth, hence its production is controlled by United Nations.

85. Which disease is caused in human beings due to depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Skin cancer is caused in human beings due to a depletion of ozone layer in the atmosphere.

86. What is the full form of CFC and UNEP? [DoE]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
CFC: Chlorofloro carbon.
UNEP: United Nation Environmental Programmes.

87. Some time back, Kulhadas, that is disposable cups made up of clay, were suggested as an alternative. Why Kulhads are not being used in trains now? [HOTS]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Manufacturing Kulhads on large scale would result in the depletion of fertile top soil making the land inadequate for the cultivation of crops.

Fill in the Blanks

1. Those waste materials which can be broken down to non-poisonous susbtances in nature in due course of time by the action of micro-organisms are called …….. wastes.
2. The waste materials which can not be broken down into harmless substances in nature are called …….. .
3. …….. is the ultimate source of energy.
4. In 1987 …….. succeeded in forging an agreement to freeze CFC production at 1986 levels.
5. Ozone at the higher levels of atmosphere is a product of UV radiation acting on …….. molecule.
6. …….. can be classified as herbivores, carnivores, omnivores and parasites.

Answers

1. biodegradable
2. non-biodegradable wastes
3. Sun
4. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
5. oxygen (O2)
6. Consumers

We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Science Our Environment with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Science Chapter 15 Our Environment Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.