MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science The Making of Global World with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 4 The Making of Global World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science The Making of Global World Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 4 The Making of Global World

1. People livelihood and local economy of which one of the following was badly affected by the disease named Rinderpest. [CBSE 2011]
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) Africa
(d) South America

Answer

Answer: c


2. Which of the following places was an important destination for indentured migrants?
(a) Florida
(b) Melbourne
(c) Carribbean island
(d) Mexico

Answer

Answer: c


3. The group of powers collectively known as the Axis power during the Second World War were:
(a) Germany, Italy, Japan
(b) Austria, Germany, Italy
(c) France, Japan, Italy
(d) Japan, Germany, Turkey

Answer

Answer: a


4. Who among the following is a Nobel Prize winner?
(a) V.S. Naipaul
(b) J.M. Keynes
(c) Shivnarine Chanderpaul
(d) Ramnaresh Sarwan

Answer

Answer: a


5. Which of the following statements correctly identifies the com laws?
(a) Restricted the import of corn to ; England
(b) Allowed the import of com to England
(c) Imposed tax on com
(d) Abolished the sale of com

Answer

Answer: a


6. Which of the following is the direct effect of Great Depression on Indian Trade?
(a) Peasants and farmers suffered.
(b) Indian exports and imports nearly halved between 1928-1934.
(c) Peasants’ indebtedness increased.
(d) Led to widespread unrest in rural India.

Answer

Answer: b


7. Which of the following enabled the Europeans to conquer and control the Africans?
(a) Victory in war
(b) Control over the scarce resource of cattle
(c) Death of Africans due to rinderpest
(d) Lack of weapons in Africa to fight against the Europeans

Answer

Answer: b


8. Who discovered the vast continent, later known as America?
(a) Vasco da Gama
(b) Christopher Columbus
(c) V.S. Naipaul
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: b


9. Until 18th century which two countries were considered the richest in the world?
(a) India and China
(b) China and Japan
(c) England and France
(d) England and Italy

Answer

Answer: a


10. Why were the Europeans attracted to Africa?
(a) By its natural beauty
(b) By the opportunities for investment
(c) For its vast land resources and mineral wealth
(d) For recruitment of labour

Answer

Answer: c


11. Transport of perishable goods over long distance was possible because of
(a) improved railways
(b) airline services
(c) refrigerated ships
(d) steam ships

Answer

Answer: c


12. The World Bank was set-up to
(a) finance rehabilitation of refugees.
(b) finance post war construction.
(c) finance industrial development.
(d) help third world countries.

Answer

Answer: b


13. Most Indian indentured workers came from: [CBSE 2011]
(a) Eastern Uttar Pradesh
(b) North-eastern states
(c) Jammu and Kashmir
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


14. Who adopted the concept of an assembly line to produce automobiles?
(a) Henry Ford
(b) Karl Benz
(c) V.S. Naipaul
(d) Samuel Morse

Answer

Answer: a


15. The First World War was fought mainly in
(a) Asia
(b) Europe
(c) America
(d) Africa.

Answer

Answer: b


16. The geographical exploration in Africa was directly linked to
(a) Search for scientific information
(b) Imperial projects
(c) Vast land with rich resources
(d) Labour to work for plantations in America

Answer

Answer: b


17. From ancient times travellers travel long
distances in search of
(a) Food
(b) Knowledge
(c) Peace
(d) Spiritual leaders

Answer

Answer: b


18. Common foods like potatoes, groundnuts, maize, tomatoes, chillies, sweet potatoes were introduced in
(a) Europe
(b) China
(c) Africa
(d) Australia

Answer

Answer: a


19. 10,000,000 people died in Ireland between 1845-1849 due to
(a) potato famine
(b) epidemic
(c) foreign invasion
(d) drought

Answer

Answer: a


20. Thousands of people fled Europe for America in the 19th century due to
(a) poverty and widespread deadly diseases
(b) natural calamity
(c) outbreak of a war among nations
(d) outbreak of plague

Answer

Answer: a


21. Who worked in American plantations during the 18th century:
(a) Emigrants from Europe
(b) Slaves captured from Africa
(c) Unemployed population of America

Answer

Answer: b


22. Reason for decline of cotton textile export from India to Britain in the early 19th century:
(a) imposition of tariff on cotton import into Britain.
(b) quality of cotton textile was poor.
(c) shortage of raw cotton in India.
(d) cotton producers had found other buyers.

Answer

Answer: a


23. When the export of cotton textile to Britain declined, India did not lose much. Why?
(a) because demand for Indian cotton textile in America increased.
(b) because South-East Asian countries welcomed Indian cotton textiles.
(c) because India’s home market had adequate number of buyers for Indian textile.
(d) because China opened a market for Indian textile.

Answer

Answer: a


24. Give the correct reason for decline of household income in Europe after the First World War:
(a) People’ stopped going to work, as they were scared of the war situation.
(b) Death and injuries had reduced the number of able bodied work force.
(c) Home governments had imposed heavier taxes.
(d) People could not go to work because they got busy with reorganization of their households.

Answer

Answer: b


25. During the First World War women in Europe stepped into jobs which earlier men were expected to do. What was the reason?
(a) because men went to battle.
(b) because men went to other countries in search of jobs.
(c) because of liberalisation of women in society.
(d) because menfolk decided to take charge of the household work.

Answer

Answer: a


26. Which of the following did not take part in the First World War?
(a) Portugal
(b) Germany
(c) France
(d) England

Answer

Answer: a


27. In which country did the Great Depression start?
(a) Britain, 1929
(b) France, 1930
(c) USA, 1929
(d) Germany, 1929

Answer

Answer: c


28. Identify one aim of the post-war international economic system:
(a) To ensure economic stability of underdeveloped countries.
(b) To promote good health for the people of the world.
(c) Promotion of education worldwide.
(d) To preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world.

Answer

Answer: d


29. Who adopted the concept of assembly line to manufacture automobiles?
(a) T. Cuppola
(b) Henry Ford
(c) Samuel Morse
(d) Christopher Columbus

Answer

Answer: b


30. Name the place and the year of United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference:
(a) China, 1911
(b) Tokyo, 1944
(c) Vietnam, 1939
(d) Bretton Woods in New Hampshire, USA, 1944

Answer

Answer: d


31. What was the outcome of Bretton Woods Conference? It led to the establishment of:
(a) ILO (International Labour Organisation)
(b) International Monetary Fund
(c) UNESCO, 1945
(d) FAO, 1945

Answer

Answer: b


32. Why did China become an attractive destination for Multi-National Companies?
(a) It had abundance of raw material.
(b) China was highly industrialised.
(c) Because wages were low in China.
(d) It had vast and thinly populated land suitable for setting up production units, etc.

Answer

Answer: c


33. From the mid-19th century, faster industrial growth in Britain led to:
(a) higher income.
(b) unemployment in rural Britain.
(c) migration of people to Britain.
(d) the arrival of women industrial workers.

Answer

Answer: a


34. Which of the following countries has an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions?
(a) France
(b) Australia
(c) Russia
(d) USA

Answer

Answer: d


35. The Chutney music was popular in ___________ and ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Trinidad and Guyana


36. Before the war, ___________ was a major supplier of wheat in the world market.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: eastern Europe


37. The method used by Henry Ford for faster and cheaper automobile production was known as ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: assembly line


38. ___________ travelled west from China to be called “Spaghetti’.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Noodles


39. Tax imposed on a country’s imports from the rest of the world is called ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: tariff


40. Peru was called the city of gold. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


41. The silk route helped in cultural and commercial exchange. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


42. Second World War did not result in economic devastation and social disruption. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


43. Britain was the world’s leading economy during the pre-First World War period. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


44. The IMF and the World Bank were designed to meet the financial needs of the industrial countries. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


45. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Grcat depression (i) IMF and World Bank
(b) Hosay (ii) Group of developing countries
(c) Bretton Wood Institution (iii) Punjab
(d) Canal colonies (iv) Riotous carnival
(e) G-77 (v) Agricultural overproduction
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (iv)
(c) (i)
(d) (iii)
(e) (ii)


46. Define globalisation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Globalisation is defined as the free movement of people and goods across the nations.


47. Through which route the Early Christian missionaries travelled to Asia? [CBSE 2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Early Christian missionaries travelled through the Silk Route.


48. Which food travelled west from China to be called spaghetti?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Noodles


49. Name the crop that our ancestors did not know until about five centuries ago?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Potato was not known to our ancestors until about five centuries ago.


50. The introduction of which crop led the European poor to eat better and live longer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Potato


51. What is ‘El Dorado’ in South America famous for? [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
‘El Dorado’ was an imaginary land of great wealth, the fabled city of gold.


52. Which European country first conquered America?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Spanish first conquered America.


53. Which powerful weapon was used by Spanish to conquer America?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Germs of smallpox were used by the Spanish to conquer America.


54. Which two factors were responsible for the price rise of food grains in Britain in the late eighteenth century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Growth in population and restrictions on the import of food grains


55. What were Canal Colonies?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The settlements of peasants from other parts of Punjab on the areas irrigated by canals.


56. Why were big European powers meet in Berlin in 1885? [CBSE 2018]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To complete the division of Africa among themselves


57. Name two countries that made vast addition to their overseas territories in the late 19th century.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Britain and France


58. Name any two new colonial powers of the late 19th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Belgium, Germany and US


59. What was an unexpected problem before the Europeans who came to Africa in the late 19th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A shortage of labour willing to work for wages.


60. What changes were made by the European employees in the inheritance laws in Africa?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Only one member of the family was allowed to inherit land.


61. What was rinderpest?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rinderpest was a kind of cattle plague.


62. How rinderpest arrived in Africa in the late 1880’s? [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It was carried by infected cattle imported from British Asia to feed the Italian soldiers invading Enitrea in East Africa.


63. What is indentured labour?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a bonded labour who had agreed under contract to work for an employer for a specific period and to pay his passage to a new country or home.


64. From which regions of India did the indentured workers come?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Eastern Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Central India and the dry districts of Tamil Nadu.


65. What was the role of the recruiting agents in exploiting the indentured workers?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They exploited the indentured workers by giving false information about their final destinations, modes of travel, the nature of the work and living and working conditions.


66. What was ‘Hosay’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Muharram procession in Trinidad turned into an annual riotous carnival called Hosay (for Imam Hussain).


67. Who popularised Rastafarianism?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Jamaican reggae star Bob Marley


68. What was Chutney music?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is an expression of post-indenture experience.


69. Which West-Indies cricketers trace their roots to indentured labour migrants from India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Ramnaresh Sarwan and Shivnarine Chanderpaul


70. Who were ‘Coolies’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Descendants of Indian indentured labourers were often referred to as ‘Coolies’ in Trinidad.


71. Name two groups of bankers and traders who financed export agriculture in Central and Southeast Asia.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Shikaripuri Shroffs and Nattukottai Chettiars


72. In 1820s, India was the single largest exporter of which commodity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Opium


73. How did Britain finance its tea and other imports from China?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
By exporting opium grown in India to China.


74. What is meant by trade surplus?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Trade surplus means higher value of exports than the value of imports.


75. What were the ‘home charges’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Home charges were the interest payments on India’s external debt, pensions of British officials in India and other payments.


76. Who were the ‘Allies’ during the First World War?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
During the First World War the Allies were Britain, France and Russia. They were, later joined by the United States.


77. Name the member nations of Central Powers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Germany, Austria – Hungary and Turkey


78. How did the first world war lead to an economic boom?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It increased demand and production of goods and also generated employment.


79. What was mass production? Who was the pioneer of mass production?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Production of goods on a large scale was known as mass production which began in the late nineteenth century. Henry Ford was the pioneer of mass production.


80. Who was Henry Ford?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Henry Ford was a well-known car manufacturer. He adopted the ‘assembly line’ system in the field of car manufacture for the first time.


81. What was the ‘hire purchase’ system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Hire purchase system means purchase on credit, repaid in weekly or monthly instalments.


82. During the Great Depression, why was the agricultural sector worst affected?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because the fall in the agricultural prices was greater and more prolonged than in the prices of industrial goods.


83. Which movement was launched by Gandhiji during the Great Depression of 1929?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Civil Disobedience movement


84. Who were the Allies during the Second World War?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Allies consisted of Britain, France, the Soviet Union and the US during the Second World War.


85. What was the main aim of post-war international economic system?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To preserve economic stability and full employment in the industrial world.


86. Why was the International Monetary fund established?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To deal with external surpluses and deficits of its member nations.


87. What w as the Bretton Woods System?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It was post-war international economic system.


88. Name any two world institutions which were established under the Bretton Woods. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The IMF and the World Bank.


89. Which country enjoys an effective right of veto over key IMF and World Bank decisions?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: US


90. Why did most developing countries organise themselves into the Group of 77 during 1960s? [CBSE 2018(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because the developing countries did not benefit from the fast economic growth experienced in 1950s and 1960s.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Nationalism in India with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Nationalism in India Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 3 Nationalism in India

1. Why did Gandhiji organise Satyagraha in 1917 in Kheda district of Gujarat?
(a) To support the plantation workers
(b) To protest against high revenue demand
(c) To support the mill workers to fulfil their demand
(d) To demand loans for the farmers

Answer

Answer: b


2. Why was Satyagraha organised in Champaran in 1916?
(a) To oppose the British laws
(b) To oppose the plantation system
(c) To oppose high land revenue
(d) To protest against the oppression of the mill workers

Answer

Answer: b


3. Why was the Simon Commission sent to India?
(a) To look into the Indian constitutional matter and suggest reform
(b) To choose members of Indian Council
(c) To settle disputes between the government and the Congress leaders
(d) To set up a government organisation

Answer

Answer: a


4. Why was Alluri Sitarama Raju well known?
(a) He led the militant movement of tribal peasants in Andhra Pradesh.
(b) He led a peasant movement in Avadh.
(c) He led a satyagraha movement in Bardoli.
(d) He set up an organisation for the uplifment of the dalits.

Answer

Answer: a


5. Why did General Dyer open fire on peaceful crowd in Jallianwalla Bagh? Mark the most important factor.
(a) To punish the Indians
(b) To take revenge for breaking martial laws
(c) To create a feeling of terror and awe in the mind of Indians
(d) To disperse the crowd

Answer

Answer: c


6. What kind of movement was launched by the tribal peasants of Gudem Hills in Andhra Pradesh?
(a) Satyagraha Movement
(b) Militant Guerrilla Movement
(c) Non-Violent Movement
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


7. Who among the following two leaders led the Khilafat Movement?
(a) Shaukat Ali and Muhammad Ali
(b) Gandhiji and Sardar Patel
(c) Muhammad Ali Jinnah and Abul Kalam Azad
(d) Abul Kalam Azad and Jawaharlal Nehru

Answer

Answer: a


8. Why did Gandhiji withdraw the Non-Cooperation Movement? [Delhi 2011]
(a) Gandhiji realised that people were losing interest in the movement.
(b) Gandhiji felt that the movement was turning violent in many places.
(c) Some Congress leaders wanted to participate in elections to Provincial Councils.
(d) Some Congress leaders wanted more radical mass agitations.

Answer

Answer: b


9. Who were the ‘Sanatanis’?
(a) Saints
(b) Dalits
(c) Labours
(d) High-caste Hindus

Answer

Answer: d


10. The main problem with the Simon Commission was that:
(a) It was an all British commission.
(b) It was formed in Britain.
(c) It was set up in response to the nationalist movement.
(d) It supported the Muslim League.

Answer

Answer: a


11. ‘Hind Swaraj ’ was written by:
(a) Abul Kalam Azad
(ib) Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Sardar Patel
(d) Subhas Chandra Bose

Answer

Answer: b


12. Why did the Indians oppose the Rowlatt Act?
(a) It introduced the Salt Law.
(b) It increased taxes on land.
(c) It gave the British the power to arrest and detain a person without a trial.
(d) It put a ban on the Congress party.

Answer

Answer: c


13. Due to the effect of the Non-Cooperation movement on the plantation workers in Assam, they:
(a) left the plantations and headed home.
(b) went on strike.
(c) destroyed the plantations.
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


14. The resolution of Puma Swaraj was adopted at which session?
(a) Karachi Congress
(b) Haripur Congress
(c) Lahore Congress
(d) Lucknow Congress

Answer

Answer: c


15. Which one of the following Viceroys announced a vague offer of dominion status for India in October 1929? [All India 2012]
(a) Lord Mount batten
(b) Lord Dalhousie
(c) Lord Irwin
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: c


16. Which of the following was Mahatma Gandhi’s novel method of fighting against the British?
(a) He used violent method of stone pelting.
(b) He used arson to bum down government offices.
(c) He fought with the principle of ‘an eye for i an eye’.
(d) He practised open defiance of law, ; peaceful demonstration, satyagraha and non-violence.

Answer

Answer: d


17. What does satyagraha mean? Choose one from j the following options.
(a) ‘Satyagraha’ means use of physical force to inflict pain while fighting.
(b) ‘Satyagraha’ does not inflict pain, it is a : non-violent method of fighting against oppression.
(c) ‘Satyagraha’ means passive resistance and is a weapon of the weak.
(d) ‘Satyagraha’ was a racist method of mass agitation.

Answer

Answer: b


18. What was the purpose of imposing the j Rowlatt Act?
(a) The Rowlatt Act forbade the Indians to : qualify for administrative services.
(b) The Rowlatt Act had denied Indians the right to political participation.
(c) The Rowlatt Act imposed additional taxes on Indians who were already groaning under the burden of taxes.
(d) The Rowlatt Act authorised the government to imprison any person i without trial and conviction in a court of j law

Answer

Answer: d


19. Where did the brutal ‘Jallianwala Massacre’ j take place?
(a) Amritsar
(b) Meerut
(c) Lahore
(d) Lucknow

Answer

Answer: a


20. Why did General Dyer order to open fire on a i peaceful demonstration at Jallianwala Bagh? Choose from the given options.
(a) He wanted to show his power.
(b) Firing was ordered because it was an unruly crowd.
(c) Because his object, as he declared later, was to ‘produce a moral effect’ to create fear in the minds of ‘satyagrahis’.
(d) He ordered to fire because he noticed a j sudden unrest in the crowd.

Answer

Answer: c


21. Who was the writer of the book ‘Hind Swaraj’?
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) B.R. Ambedkar
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Jawahar Lai Nehru

Answer

Answer: c


22. Khilafat Committee was formed in 1919 in the city of
(a) Bombay
(b) Calcutta
(c) Lucknow
(d) Amritsar

Answer

Answer: a


23. The Non-cooperation Khilafat Movement began in
(a) January 1921
(b) February 1922
(c) December 1929
(d) April 1919

Answer

Answer: a


24. Which of the following was the reason for calling off the Non-cooperation Movement by Gandhiji?
(a) Pressure from the British Government
(b) Second Round Table Conference
(c) Gandhiji’s arrest
(d) Chauri-Chaura incident

Answer

Answer: d


25. Baba Ramchandra, a sanyasi, was the leader of which of the following movements?
(a) Khilafat Movement
(b) Militant Guerrilla Movement of Andhra Pradesh
(c) Peasants’ Movement of Awadh
(d) Plantation Workers’ Movement in Assam

Answer

Answer: c


26. Who set up the ‘Oudh Kisan Sabha’?
(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(b) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Baba Ramchandra
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru and Shaukat Ali
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

Answer

Answer: b


27. Under the presidency of Jawahahar Lai Nehru, the Lahore Congress Session of 1929 formalised the demand of
(a) abolition of Salt Tax
(b) ‘Puma Swaraj’ or complete independence
(c) boycott of Simon Commission
(d) separate electorate for the ‘dalits’

Answer

Answer: b


28. The ‘Simon Commission’ was boycotted because
(a) there was no British Member in the Commission.
(b) it demanded separate electorates for Hindus and Muslims.
(c) there was no Indian Member in the Commission.
(d) it favoured the Muslims over the Hindus.

Answer

Answer: c


29. A form of demonstration used in the Non-cooperation Movement in which people block the entrance to a shop, factory or office is
(a) Boycott
(b) Begar
(c) Picketing
(d) Bandh

Answer

Answer: c


30. Who formed the ‘Swaraj Party’ within the Congress?
(a) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Motilal Nehru
(b) Abdul Ghaffar Khan and Mahatma Gandhi
(c) Jawahar Lai Nehru and Subhas Chandra Bose
(d) C.R. Das and Motilal Nehru

Answer

Answer: d


31. Who founded the ‘Depressed Classes Association’ in 1930?
(a) Alluri Sitaram Raju
(b) C.R. Das
(c) M.R. Jayakar
(d) Dr B.R. Ambedkar

Answer

Answer: d


32. Which party did not boycott the Council elections held in the year 1921?
(a) Swaraj Party
(b) Justice Party
(c) Muslim League
(d) Congress Party

Answer

Answer: b


33. What do you mean by the term ‘Begar’l
(a) An Act to prevent plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission.
(b) The forced recruitment of soldiers in rural areas during World War I.
(c) Labour that villagers were forced to contribute without any payment.
(d) Refusal to deal and associate with people, or participate in activities as a form of protest.

Answer

Answer: c


34. Where did Mahatma Gandhi start his famous ‘Salt March’ on 12th March 1930?
(a) Dandi
(b) Chauri-Chaura
(c) Sabarmati
(d) Surat

Answer

Answer: c


35. Which industrialist attacked colonial control over Indian economy and supported the Civil Disobedience Movement?
(a) Dinshaw Petit
(b) Purshottamdas Thakurdas
(c) Dwarkanath Tagore
(d) Seth Hukumchand

Answer

Answer: b


36. Who visualised and depicted the image of ‘Bharat Mata’ through a painting?
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Natesa Sastri
(d) Abanindranath Tagore

Answer

Answer: d


37. Gandhiji’s march from Sabarmati to Dandi is called the ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Salt March


38. The Depressed Classes Association was formed by ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Dr. B.R. Ambedkar


39. The Muslim League was started by ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Muhammad Ali Jinnah


40. The Statutory Commission that arrived in India in 1928 was led by ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: John Simon


41. The Swaraj Party was set up by ___________ and ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Motilal Nehru and C.R. Das


42. The Indian tricolor was first designed at the time of ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Swadeshi Movement


43. ___________ presided over the Lahore session of Congress in 1929.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jawaharlal Nehru


44. During the First World War, the Indian Industrialists suffered huge loss. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


45. Gandhiji’s idea which emphasized truth and non-violence is referred as Swaraj. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


46. Khilafat Movement was led by the Ali Brothers. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


47. Baba Ramchandra and JawaharLal Nehru headed Oudh Kisan Sabha. (TVue/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


48. The term ‘begar’ means homeless labour. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


49. Alluri Sitarama Raju could perform miracles. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


50. The four volume collection of Tamil folktales – “The folklore of Southern India” was published by Natesa Sastri. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


51. Violation of Salt Tax by Gandhi led to the Civil Disobedience Movement. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


52. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Bankim Chandra Chattopadhyay (i) Depressed Classes Association
(b) B.R Ambedkar (ii) Famous image of Bharat Mata
(c) Sir Mohammad Iqbal (iii) The Folklore of Southern India
(d) Abanindranath Tagore (iv) President of the Muslim League
(e) Natesa Sastri (v) Vande Matrami
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (v)
(b) (i)
(c) (iv)
(d) (ii)
(e) (iii)


53. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Hartal (i) Refused to deal with or associate with someone or with something
(b) Boycott (ii) To strike off work, a form of  demonstration
(c) Begar (iii) Form of salutation
(d) Salam (iv) Deprive some one of the service of washer man
(e) Dhobi- bandh (v) Forced or bonded labour without payment
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (i)
(c) (v)
(d) (iii)
(e) (iv)


54. What was the reaction of Mahatma Gandhi against the Rowlatt Act?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi decided to launch a non-violent satyagraha movement against this act.


55. Why did Mahatma Gandhi call off Rowlatt Satyagraha?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mahatma Gandhi had to call off Rowlatt Satyagraha due to widespread violence.


56. What does the term Khalifa refer to?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The term Khalifa refers to the spiritual leader of the Muslim community.


57. In which Indian National Congress session, the idea of Khilafat-Non-Cooperation Movement was accepted?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Indian National Congress Session in Calcutta (Kolkata) in September 1920.


58. What was the result of the boycott of foreign goods and textiles during the Non-Cooperation movement?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Production of Indian textile mills increased.


59. What was the outcome of Congress Session at Nagpur in 1920?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The adoption of Non-Cooperation programme was the outcome of Congress session at Nagpur in 1920.


60. Who was Baba Ramchandra?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
e was Sanyasi and had been an indentured labour in Fiji. He led the peasants in Awadh.


61. What is meant by begar?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Forced labour without payment is called begar.


62. State the major demands of the peasants who participated in the Non-Cooperation movement.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They demanded reduction of revenue, abolition of beggar and social boycott of oppressive landlords.


63. What did ‘Swaraj’ mean to the plantation workers in Assam?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
For the plantation workers in Assam, Swaraj meant retaining a link with their villages.


64. Which act did not permit plantation workers to leave the tea gardens without permission?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Inland Emigration Act of 1859


65. Who headed Simon Commission?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sir John Simon


66. At which session of Congress was the resolution of ‘Puma Swaraj’ adopted?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The resolution of ‘Purna Swaraj ’ was adopted at the Lahore Congress Session in December 1929.


67. What was the main motive of the Salt March? [All India 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The British government acquired monopoly rights over salt production and imposed salt tax. Indians were prohibited from collecting or selling salt. Thus, the main motive of the Salt March was to break the salt law.


68. Who led the Civil Disobedience Movement in Peshawar?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Abdul Gaffar Khan, also known as Frontier Gandhi.


69. Name the peasant communities of Gujarat and Uttar Pradesh who were active in Civil Disobedience Movement.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Patidars of Gujarat and Jats of Uttar Pradesh.


70. Name two industrial organisations which were established by Indian merchants and industrialists to protect their business interests.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two industrial organisations which were established by the Indian merchants and industrialists to protect their business interests were:
(a) The Indian Industrial and Commercial Congress in 1920.
(b) The Federation of Indian Chamber of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) in 1927.


71. Why was the congress reluctant to include workers’ demands as part of its straggle?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The congress feared that this would alienate industrialists and divide anti-imperial forces.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Nationalism in India with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 3 Nationalism in India Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science The Rise of Nationalism in Europe with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science History Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science The Rise of Nationalism in Europe Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 1 The Rise of Nationalism in Europe

1. Elle, the measuring unit in Germany was used to measure:
(a) cloth
(b) thread
(c) land
(d) height

Answer

Answer: a


1. The headquarter of the United Nations is at
A. Geneva
B. Paris
C. New York
D. Washington, D.C.

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation: The headquarter of the United Nations is at New York. The United Nations is headquartered in New York City, in a complex designed by a board of architects led by Wallace Harrison, and built by the architectural firm Harrison & Abramovitz. The complex has served as the official headquarters of the United Nations since its completion in 1952.


2. Zollevrein started in 1834 in Prussia refers to a:
(a) Trade Union
(b) Customs Union
(c) Labour Union
(d) Farmer’s Union

Answer

Answer: b


3. What do the saints, angels and Christ symbolise in the Utopian vision?
(a) Equality among people
(b) Fraternity among nations
(c) Freedom of nations
(d) Resentment against nations

Answer

Answer: b


4. Who were the ‘Junkers’?
(a) Soldiers
(b) Large landowners
(c) Aristocracy
(d) Weavers

Answer

Answer: b


5. Which treaty recognised Greece as an independent nation?
(a) Treaty of Constantinople, 1832
(b) Treaty of Vienna, 1815
(c) Treaty of Versailles, 1871
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


6. By which of the following treaties was the United Kingdom of Great Britain formed?
(a) Treaty of Versailles
(b) Act of Union
(c) Treaty of Paris
(d) Treaty of Vienna

Answer

Answer: b


7. Which of the following group of powers collectively defeated Napoleon?
(a) England, France, Italy, Russia
(b) England, Austria, Spain, Russia
(c) Austria, Prussia, Russia, Britain
(d) Britain, Prussia, Russia, Italy

Answer

Answer: c


8. Romanticism refers to a:
(a) cultural movement
(b) religious movement
(c) political movement
(d) literary movement

Answer

Answer: a


9. Which one of the following types of government was functioning in France before the revolution of 1789?
(a) Dictatorship
(b) Military
(c) Body of French Citizen
(d) Monarchy

Answer

Answer: d


10. Which of the following countries is considered as the ‘cradle of European civilization’?
(a) England
(b) France
(c) Greece
(d) Russia

Answer

Answer: c


11. Choose the correct nationality of the artist Frederic Sorrieu who visualised in his painting a society made up of Democratic and Social Republic.
(a) German
(b) Swiss
(c) French
(d) American

Answer

Answer: b


12. ‘Nationalism’, which emerged as a force in the late 19th century, means
(a) strong devotion for one’s own country and its history and culture.
(b) strong devotion for one’s own country without appreciation for other nations.
(c) strong love for one’s own country and hatred for others.
(d) equally strong devotion for all the countries of the world.

Answer

Answer: a


13. Match the term with the statements given below:
A ‘Utopian Society’ is
(i) a society under a benevolent monarchy
(ii) a society that is unlikely to ever exist
(iii) a society under the control of a chosen few wise men
(iv) a society under Parliamentary Democracy
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (ii) only
(d) (iii) only

Answer

Answer: b


14. Pick out the correct definition to define the term ‘Plebiscite’.
(a) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which only the female members of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.
(b) Plebiscite is a direct vote by the female members of a matriarchal system to accept or reject a proposal.
(c) Plebiscite is a direct vote by only a chosen few from the total population of a parti-cular region to accept or reject a proposal.
(d) Plebiscite is a direct vote by which all the citizens of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal.

Answer

Answer: d


15. Ernst Renan believed that the existence of nations is a necessity because
(a) it ensures protection to all inhabitants.
(b) it ensures liberty to all inhabitant citizens.
(c) it ensures Parliamentary form of govern-ment to its inhabitants.
(d) it ensures jobs and good health to all its inhabitants.

Answer

Answer: b


16. Which of the following countries did not attend the Congress of Vienna?
(a) Britain
(b) Russia
(c) Prussia
(d) Switzerland

Answer

Answer: d


17. The first great revolution which gave the clear idea of nationalism with its core words: ‘Liberty, Equality and Fraternity’ was:
(a) The Russian Revolution
(b) The French Revolution
(c) The American Revolution
(d) India’s First War of Independence

Answer

Answer: b


18. Which of the following statements about the ‘French Revolution’ are correct?
(i) After the end of the French Revolution it was proclaimed that it was the people who would henceforth constitute the nation and shape its destiny.
(ii) France will have a constitutional monarchy and the new republic will be headed by a member of the royal family.
(iii) A centralised administrative system will be put in place to formulate uniform laws for all citizens.
(iv) Imposition of internal custom duties and dues will continue to exist in France.
(a) (ii) and (iii)
(b) (ii) and (iv)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: c


19. The French revolutionaries declared that the mission and destiny of the French nation was
(a) to conquer the people of Europe.
(b) to liberate the people of Europe from despotism.
(c) to strengthen absolute monarchies in all the countries of Europe.
(d) to propagate the ideals of liberty, equality, and fraternity in every part of the world.

Answer

Answer: b


20. The Civil Code of 1804 in France is usually known as:
(a) The French Revolutionary Code
(b) Napoleonic Code
(c) European Imperial Code
(d) The French Civil Code

Answer

Answer: b


21. The Napoleonic Code was exported to which of the following regions?
(a) England
(b) Spain
(c) Regions under French control
(d) Poland

Answer

Answer: c


22. The liberal nationalism stands for:
(a) freedom for the individual and equality before law.
(b) preservation of autocracy and clerical privileges.
(c) freedom for only male members of society and equality before law.
(d) freedom only for senior citizens.

Answer

Answer: a


23. Who among the following formed the secret society called ‘Young Italy’? [Delhi 2012]
(a) Otto von Bismarck
(b) Giuseppe Mazzini
(c) Mettemich
(d) Johann Gottfried Herder

Answer

Answer: b


24. The term ‘Universal Suffrage’ means:
(a) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to men.
(b) the right to vote for all adults.
(c) the right to vote and get elected, granted exclusively to property owning men.
(d) the right to vote and get elected, granted only to educated men and women.

Answer

Answer: b


25. Which of the following is not a feature or belief of ‘Conservatism’?
(a) Conservatives believe in established, traditional institutions of state and policy.
(b) Conservatives stressed the importance of tradition and preferred gradual develop¬ment to quick change.
(c) Conservatives proposed to return to the society of pre-revolutionary days and were against the ideas of modernisation to strengthen monarchy.
(d) Conservatives believed in the monarchy, church, and other social hierarchies.

Answer

Answer: c


26. The Treaty of recognized Greece
as an independent nation:
(a) Vienna 1815
(b) Constantinople 1832
(c) Warsaw 1814
(d) Leipzig 1813

Answer

Answer: b


27. Who said ‘When France sneezes, the rest of Europe catches cold’?
(a) Garibaldi
(b) Bismarck
(c) Mazzini
(d) Duke Metternich

Answer

Answer: d


28. What happened to Poland at the end of 18th century. Which of the following answers is correct?
(a) Poland achieved independence at the end of the 18th century.
(b) Poland came totally under the control of Russia and became part of Russia.
(c) Poland became the part of East Germany.
(d) Poland was partitioned at the end of the 18th century by three Great Powers: Russia, Prussia and Austria.

Answer

Answer: d


29. Who played the leading role in the unification of Germany?
(a) German Emperor (formerly King of Prussia) — Kaiser William I.
(b) Otto Von Bismarck (Prussian Chief Minister).
(c) Johann Gottfried Herder — German philosopher.
(d) Austrian Chancellor — Duke Metternich.

Answer

Answer: b


30. Three wars over seven years with Austria, Denmark, Germany and France, ended in
(a) Danish victory
(b) Prussian victory
(c) French victory
(d) German victory

Answer

Answer: b


31. Who was proclaimed the emperor of Germany in 1871?
(a) Otto Von Bismarck
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Kaiser William I of Prussia

Answer

Answer: d


32. Who became the King of United Italy in 1861?
(a) Giuseppe Garibaldi
(b) Victor Emmanuel II
(c) Count Cavour
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini

Answer

Answer: b


33. What helped in the formation of a nation-state in Britain?
(a) The formation of a nation-state in Britain was the result of a sudden upheaval.
(b) In 1688, the monarchy in Britain had seized the power from English Parliament.
(c) The parliament through a bloodless revolution seized power from the monarchy which gradually led to the emergence of a nation-state.
(d) The British nation was formed as a result of a war with Scotland and Wales.

Answer

Answer: c


34. Who was responsible for the unification of Germany?
(a) Count Cavour
(b) Bismarck
(c) Garibaldi
(d) Giuseppe Mazzini

Answer

Answer: b


35. The allegory of the German nation who wears a crown of oak leaves was a:
(a) Marianne
(b) Union Jack
(c) Britannia
(d) Germania

Answer

Answer: d


36. A large part of Balkan region was under the control of:
(a) Russian empire
(b) Ottoman empire
(c) German empire
(d) Habsburg rulers

Answer

Answer: b


37. Austrian Chancellor ___________ hosted the Congress of Vienna.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Duke Mettemich


38. The first clear expression of nationalism came with the ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: French revolution


39. The Civil Code of 1804 was known as the ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Napoleonic Code


40. ___________ became the allegory of the German nation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Germania


41. Frederic Sorrieu was a ___________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: French artist


42. A large part of the Balkans was under the control of the ___________ Empire.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Ottoman


43. Conservative regimes set up in 1815 were democratic in nature. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


44. A direct vote by which all the people of a region are asked to accept or reject a proposal is known as lapatrie. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


45. In 1861, Friedrich Wilhelm IV was proclaimed the king of united Italy. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


46. The term ‘ absolutist’ referred to monarchical government. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


47. The Treaty of Constantinople of 1832 recognised Greece as an independent nation. (True/F alse)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


48. Giuseppe Mazzini formed a secret society called Young Italy for the dissemination of his goals. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


49. To which country did the artist Frederic Sorrieu belong? [Delhi 2017(C)]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Artist Frederic Sorrieu belonged to France.


50. What is referred to as Absolutism?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Unrestricted, despotic and authoritarian monarchial system of rule or government is referred to as absolutism.


51. Define Nation.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A body of people who are united by same past, culture, political system and common interests can be defined as a Nation.


52. What was the concept of a nation-state?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The concept of a nation-state was one in which people and rulers of land came together to develop a sense of common identity and shared history.


53. Define Plebiscite.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plebiscite is a system of direct vote by which the people of a region, themselves decide to accept or reject a proposal.


54. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) French Revolution (i) brought the conservative regimes back to power
(b) Liberalism (ii) ensured right to property for the privileged class
(c) Napoleonic Code (iii) recognised Greece as an independent nation
(d) The Treaty of Vienna (iv) transfer of sovereignty from monarch to the French citizens
(e) Treaty of Constantinople (v) individual freedom and equality before law
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iv)
(b) (v)
(c) (ii)
(d) (i)
(e) (iii)


55. Which form of government was operating in France before the revolution of 1789?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Monarchy


56. What was the mission of the French revolutionaries?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The mission of the French revolutionaries was to liberate the people of Europe from despotism and help people to form nations.


57. What was Napoleonic Code?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Napoleonic code refers to reforms incorporated in administration to make the syStem more rational and efficient.


58. Name the provinces under the Habsburg Empire.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Habsburg Empire ruled over Austria- Hungary. It included the Alpine region of Tyrol, Austria, Sudetenland as well as Bohemia along with Italian speaking provinces of Lombardy and Venetia.


59. Name the two Italian-speaking provinces of the Habsburg Empire.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Lombardy and Venetia.


60. What was the tie that bind the diverse groups of Habsburg Empire?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Common allegiance to the emperor.


61. What did the new social group comprise of that came into being in the 19th century comprised of?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The new social group that came into being in the 19th century comprised of working class and middle class made up of industrialists, businessmen and professionals.


62. What ideas gained popularity among the educated liberal middle class?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The ideas of national unity following the abolition of aristocratic privileges gained popularity among the educated liberal middle class.


63. What did liberalism stand for the new middle classes?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
For new middle classes, liberalism Stood for freedom for individual and equality of all before the law.


64. What did 19th century liberals stress upon?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: 19th century liberals stressed upon inviolability of private property.


65. What does suffrage mean?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Suffrage means the right to vote.


66. What was the status of women under the Napoleonic Code?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Napoleonic code reduced women to the status of a minor, subjected to the authority of fathers and husbands.


67. What did liberalism stand for the economic sphere?
Or
Interpret the concept of ‘liberalism’ in the field of economic sphere during the nineteenth century in Europe. [Delhi 2019]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
In the economic sphere, liberalism stood for freedom of markets and abolition of restriction on the movement of goods and capital.


68. What was the strong demand of the emerging middle class in Europe during the 19th century? [Foreign 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Freedom of markets and abolition of restriction on the movement of goods and capital were strong demands of the emerging middle class in Europe during the 19th century.


69. What was the basic philosophy of the conservatives?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The basic philosophy of the conservatives was to preserve the traditional institutions such as church, monarchy, social hierarchies, property and family etc.


70. Which dynasty was deposed during the French Revolution and later restored to power by conservatives.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The Bourbon dynasty


71. What was the nature of Conservative regimes set up in 1815?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The conservative regimes set up in 1815 were autocratic in nature.


72. What was the major issue taken up by the liberal nationalists? [Foreign 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The liberal nationalists took up the issue of freedom autocratic of press.


73. What was the main aim of the revolutionaries of Europe? [Delhi 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The European revolutionaries aimed at opposing the monarchial order established after the Vienna Congress and struggle for liberty and freedom.


74. What views did Giuseppe Mazzini have about Italy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It was Mazzini’s belief that God wanted nations to be the natural units of mankind. So Italy could no longer be a patchwork of small states. It had to take shape of a single unified republic within a wider alliance of nations.


75. How was Mazzini described by Mettemich?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Mettemich described Mazzini as the most dangerous enemy of the social order.


76. Who headed the constitutional monarchy installed by liberal revolutionaries in 1830?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Louis Philippe headed the constitutional monarchy installed by liberal revolutionaries in 1830.


77. Who remarked “When France sneezes the rest of Europe catches cold”? [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Duke Mettemich


78. How did Lord Byron contribute to the Greek war of Independence?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Lord Byron, an English poet, organised funds for the Greek struggle against the Ottoman Empire and also participated in the war.


79. What did the Romantic artists and poets criticise?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They criticised glorification of reason and science.


80. Who claimed that true German culture was to be discovered among the common people.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
German philosopher, a Romanticist, Johann Gottfried Hardor.


81. What is meant by das volk?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Das volk is a German word meaning common people.


82. What was the term given to true spirit of a nation in Germany?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Volksgeist.


83. What was the result of the rise in population in Europe in the first half of the 19th century?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It created unemployment and many people from the mral areas started migrating to the cities in search of jobs.


84. Where was the Frankfurt Parliament convened?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Frankfurt Parliament was convened at the Church of St Paul.


85. Why did the middle class lose its support after the failure of the Frankfurt Parliament?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because they resisted the demands of the workers and the artisans.


86. Which state led the unification of Germany?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Prussia led the unification of Germany.


87. Who holds the credit of unifying Germany?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Otto von Bismarck


88. Who was proclaimed the German Emperor in a ceremony held at Versailles in January 1871? [All India 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Kaiser William I


89. Who headed Sardinia-Piedmont?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: King Victor Emmanuel II


90. Who led the movement to unify the regions of Italy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Chief Minister of Sardinia – Piedmont Cavour


91. In 1861, who was proclaimed the king of united Italy?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Victor Emmanuel II


92. Name the ethnic groups who inhabited the British Isles.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: The English, Welsh, Scot or Irish


93. What was the result of the Act of Union (1707)?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Act of Union 1707 resulted in the formation of United Kingdom of Great Britain with the incorporation of Scotland.


94. What is an allegory?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
An idea expressed in the form of a person or a thing.


95. Who represented France as nation?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Marianne


96. What was Germania?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: It was an allegory of Germany.


97. Who were the Slavs?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The inhabitants of the regions under the Ottoman Empire like modem-day Romania, Bulgaria, Albania, Greece, Macedonia, Croatia, Bosnia-Herzegovina, Slovenia, Serbia and Montenegro were called the Slavs.


98. What made the Balkan area explosive?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Spread of romantic nationalism and disintegration of Ottoman Empire.


99. Name the powers that were keen in countering the hold of other powers over the Balkans and extending their control over the area.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Russia, Germany, England and Austro- Hungary.


100. What led Europe into disaster in 1914?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Nationalism aligned with imperialism.


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MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Agriculture with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Agriculture Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 4 Agriculture

1. Which of the following crops are grown with the onset of monsoons and are harvested in the months of September-October? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Rabi
(b) Kharif
(c) Zadi
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


2. ‘Slash and bum’ agriculture is a [CBSE 2011]
(a) Shifting agriculture
(b) Intensive agriculture
(c) Commercial agriculture
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: a


3. Grapes are mainly produced in the state of ____________ .
(a) Meghalaya
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Mizoram
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: d


4. Bhoodan – Gramdan movement was initiated by
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru
(c) Vinoba Bhave
(d) Bal Gangadhar Tilak

Answer

Answer: c


5. Grouping of small land holdings into a bigger one is called
(a) ceiling on land holdings.
(b) collectivisation.
(c) cooperative farming.
(d) consolidation of land holdings.

Answer

Answer: d


6. Oranges are mainly produced in the state of ____________ .
(a) Madhya Pradesh
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: b


7. Intensive subsistence farming is practised in area of ____________ . [CBSE 2012]
(a) high population
(b) low population
(c) deserts
(d) thick forests

Answer

Answer: a


8. Which one of the following statements is incorrect as regards to commercial farming?
(a) Use of heavy doses of modem inputs.
(b) Crops are grown for sale.
(c) Family members are involved in growing crops.
(d) Practised on large land holdings.

Answer

Answer: c


9. Which one of the following is a rabi crop? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Bajra
(d) Jowar

Answer

Answer: b


10. The largest tea producing state of India is
(a) Karnataka
(b) Assam
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b


11. A type of millet rich in iron, calcium, other micro nutrients and roughage is
(a) Bajra
(b) Rajma
(c) Jowar
(d) Ragi

Answer

Answer: d


12. Specialised cultivation of fruits and vegetables iscalled
(a) Agriculture
(b) Horticulture
(c) Sericulture
(d) Pisciculture

Answer

Answer: b


13. Punjab and Haryana grow rice mainly due to
(a) availability of cheap labour.
(b) development of canals irrigation and tubewells.
(c) fertile soil.
(d) development of transport network.

Answer

Answer: b


14. Rabi crops are sown in
(a) Winter
(b) Summer
(c) Autumn
(d) Spring

Answer

Answer: a


15. Which one of the following describes a system of agriculture where a single crop is grown on a large area? (Textbook)
(a) Shifting agriculture
(b) Plantation agriculture
(c) Horticulture
(d) Intensive agriculture

Answer

Answer: b


16. Which one of the following is a rabi crop? (Textbook)
(a) Rice
(b) Millets
(c) Gram
(d) Cotton

Answer

Answer: b


17. Which one of the following is a leguminous j crop? (Textbook)
(a) Pulses
(b) Jawar
(c) Millets
(d) Sesamum

Answer

Answer: a


18. Which one of the following is announced by the government in support of a crop? (Textbook)
(a) Maximum support price
(b) Minimum support price
(c) Moderate support price
(d) Influential support price

Answer

Answer: b


19. Primitive subsistence farming is also known as:
(a) Mixed farming
(b) Cooperative farming
(c) Slash and bum agriculture
(d) Commercial farming

Answer

Answer: c


20. Plantation agriculture is a type of:
(a) Subsistence farming
(b) Commercial farming
(c) Mixed farming
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


21. Which of the following is not correct about plantation farming?
(a) In this type of farming, a single crop is grown on a large area.
(b) The plantation has an interface of agriculture and industry.
(c) Plantations cover large tracts of land called estates.
(d) Farmers clear a patch of land by felling trees and burning them, to produce cereals and other food crops.

Answer

Answer: d


22. Which of the following are plantation crops?
(a) Rice and maize
(b) Wheat and pulses
(c) Tea, coffee, banana and sugarcane
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


23. The three major cropping seasons of India are:
(a) Aus, Aman and Boro
(b) Rabi, Kharif and Zaid
(c) Baisakh, Paus and Chait
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


24. Rabi crops are:
(a) sown in winter and harvested in summer
(b) sown during rainy season and harvested in winter
(c) sown in summer and harvested in winter
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


25. Kharif crops are grown:
(a) with the onset of monsoon and harvested in September-October
(b) with the onset of winter and harvested in summer
(c) with onset of Autumn and harvested in summer
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


26. The main food crop of Kharif season is:
(a) Mustard
(b) Pulses
(c) Rice
(d) Wheat

Answer

Answer: c


27. The main food crop of Rabi season is:
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Maize
(d) Jowar

Answer

Answer: a


28. A short season between the rabi and kharif season is known as:
(a) Aus
(b) Boro
(c) Zaid
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


29. Important non-food crops of our country are:
(a) Tea and coffee
(b) Millets and pulses
(c) Cotton and jute
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


30. Which is the main food crop of the eastern and southern part of the country?
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Maize
(d) Sugarcane

Answer

Answer: a


31. The two main wheat growing regions are:
(a) The Ganga-Sutlej plains and the Deccan Trap
(b) North-eastern part and eastern-coastal plains
(c) Deccan plateau and Konkan coast
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


32. Wheat requires annual rainfall between:
(a) 50 and 75 cm
(b) about 200 cm
(c) 200 and 300 cm
(d) less than 20 cm

Answer

Answer: a


33. The third most important food crop of our country is:
(a) Rice
(b) Wheat
(c) Jowar
(d) Ragi

Answer

Answer: c


34. Which State is the largest producer of bajra?
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Maharashtra
(c) Gujarat
(d) Haryana

Answer

Answer: a


35. Which is the right condition for the growth of maize?
(a) Temperature between 21 °C to 27°C and old alluvial soil
(b) Temperature below 17°C and shallow black soil
(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


36. Which of the following crops is a major source of protein in a vegetarian diet?
(a) Wheat
(b) Rice
(c) Pulses
(d) Oilseeds

Answer

Answer: c


37. Which one of the following is not true for pulses?
(a) Pulses are grown in both rabi and kharif season
(b) Pulses are leguminous crops
(c) They are grown in rotation with other crops
(d) Pulses require intensive irrigation facilities

Answer

Answer: d


38. Which is the ideal condition for the growth of sugarcane?
(a) Temperature of 21°C to 27°C and an annual rainfall between 75 cm and 100 cm
(b) Temperature below 17°C and 50 to 75 cm rainfall
(c) Temperature of 25°C and 200 cm of rainfall
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: a


39. What percentage of our cropped area is covered by oilseeds?
(a) 21
(b) 12
(c) 2
(d) 4

Answer

Answer: b


40. Which of the following conditions can spoil tea crop?
(a) Frequent showers evenly distributed over the year
(b) Frost free climate
(c) Deep fertile well drained soil
(d) Clayey soil which has high water holding capacity

Answer

Answer: d


41. Coffee cultivation was first introduced in:
(a) Himalayas
(b) Aravalli Hills
(c) Garo Hills
(d) Baba Budan Hills

Answer

Answer: d


42. Which of the following crops is an important raw material for automobile industry?
(a) Pulses
(b) Ragi
(c) Rubber
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


43. Rearing of silk worms for the production of silk fibre is known as:
(a) Sericulture
(b) Aquaculture
(c) Apeculture
(d) Pisciculture

Answer

Answer: a


44. Which of the following is known as golden fibre?
(a) Cotton
(b) Jute
(c) Hemp
(d) Silk

Answer

Answer: b


45. India is the second largest producer of sugarcane only after ____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Brazil


46. ____________ is the Golden fibre of India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jute


47. ____________ is a programme introduced by the Government that has resulted in increased production of food grains.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Green Revolution


48. Kerala is the largest producer of ____________ in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: rubber


49. The slash and bum agriculture is known as ____________ in the north-eastern states of India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jhumming


50. India is the largest producer and consumer of ____________ in the world.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: pulses


51. The crop grown in black soil is Rice. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


52. Castor seed is grown both as Rabi and Kharif crop. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


53. The main characteristic feature of commercial farming is the use of high doses of modem inputs. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


54. Watermelon is grown during Zaid season. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


55. Terrace cultivation leads to increase in the level of soil erosion. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


56. Match the columns

Column A Column B
(a) Leading producer of Maize (i) Kerala
(b) Leading rice producing state (ii) Karnataka
(c) Leading sugarcane producing state (iii) West Bengal
(d) Leading producer of rubber (iv) Uttar Pradesh
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (ii)
(b) (iii)
(c) (iv)
(d) (i)


57. Name the type of farming in which crops are grown using primitive tools.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Primitive Subsistence farming.


58. Name any two states of India where jhumming is practised.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
North-eastern states of Assam, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Manipur and Chhattisgarh and Andaman and Nicobar Islands. (any two)


59. Which crop is commercial crop in one state while subsistence crop in another state? [CBSE 2016]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rice


60. What type of inputs are required in plantations?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Plantations use capital intensive inputs like large tracts of land.


61. In which season are rabi crops sown in India?
Or
Mention the sowing period of rabi crops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rabi crops are sown in winter from October to December.


62. Name any two rabi crops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Wheat, barley, peas, gram and mustard. (any two)


63. In states like Assam, three crops of paddy are grown in a year. Name any two such crops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Aus, Aman and Boro. (any two)


64. What is ‘Zaid’?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is a season for short duration between the rabi and kharif season.


65. Name any two Zaid crops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. (any two)


66. Name the second most important cereal crop grown in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Wheat


67. Name the two important wheat growing zones in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The two wheat growing zones in India are
(a) Ganga-Satluj plains in the north-west.
(b) Black soil region of the Deccan.


68. Name the crop which is used both as food and fodder.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Maize


69. In which type of soil does maize grow well?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Maize grows well in old alluvial soil.


70. Write the names of any two millets grown in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Jowar and bajra are the important millets grown in India.


71. Name the state which is the largest producer ofragi. [CBSE2013]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Karnataka is the largest producer of ragi.


72. Name one rain-fed crop.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Jowar


73. Name any two Jowar producing states.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. (any two)


74. What type of soil is required for the growth of Bajra?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Bajra grows well on sand and shallow black soil.


75. Name two major bajra producing states in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujarat and Haryana. (any two)


76. Name the crop in which India is the largest producer and consumer. [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Pulses


77. Name any two major pulses grown in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Major pulses grown in India are tur (arhar), urad, moong, masur, peas and gram. (any two)


78. Name any one pulse crop grown in kharif and rabi season.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kharif season: Moong, tur (arhar)
Rabi season: Masur, peas, gram (any one for each )


79. Sugar is the main source of which products?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Gur, khandsari and molasses


80. What was the rank of India in rapeseed production in 2014?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
India was the third largest producer in the world after Canada and China in 2014.


81. Name any two oilseeds produced in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Groundnut, castor seeds, cotton seeds, mustard, coconut, sesamum, linseed and sunflower. (any two)


82. Name the first and the second largest producers of groundnut in the world in 2014.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
China is the largest producer of groundnut followed by India in 2014.


83. Name any two oilseed crops which are grown as a kharif crop in the north and rabi crop in the south.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sesamum and castor seed


84. Mention two beverage crops grown in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Tea and coffee are two important beverage crops grown in India.


85. Name the beverage crop introduced by the British in India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Tea


86. Which variety of coffee is grown in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Arabica variety from Yemen is grown in India.


87. To which part of India is coffee cultivation confined?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Coffee cultivation is confined to the Nilgiri in Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu.


88. Name one Equatorial crop.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rubber


89. List any two items in which natural rubber is used.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Auto tyres and tubes, belts and hoses, footwears, Latex foam, cycle tyres and tubes. (any two)


90. What is the rearing of silkworms called?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sericulture


91. Name any one competitors of jute.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Nylon


92. Which term is used for grouping of small landholdings with bigger ones? [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Consolidation of landholdings


93. What is White Revolution related to? [CBSE 2015]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
White Revolution is related to the production of milk. It is also called Operation Flood.


94. Name any two schemes introduced by the government to benefit farmers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Kissan Credit Cards (KCC) and Personal Accident Insurance Scheme (PAIS).


95. What was the main aim of Bhoodan?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Its main aim was to give land to the landless villagers.


96. Why is agriculture considered backbone of Indian economy? Give one reason.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Because it provides employment and livelihood to 63% of the population according to 2001 census.


97. To which type of crops is wheat related?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Rabi crops.


98. Name two crops grown during the zaid seasons.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The crops grown during the zaid season are watermelon, muskmelon, cucumber, vegetables and fodder crops. (any two)


99. Name two fibre crops.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Cotton and Jute.


100. On the leaves of which plant are the silkworm fed?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The silkworms are fed on the leaves of the mulberry tree.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Agriculture with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 4 Agriculture Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Water Resources with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Water Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 3 Water Resources

1. Which one of the following is not the cause of water scarcity? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Rapid growth of population
(b) Uneven distribution of water resources
(c) Construction of dams and reserves
(d) Increase in demand

Answer

Answer: c


2. Which state has made roof top rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses across the state? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Kerala
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: c


3. Which one of the following is not the example of Hydraulic structures in Ancient India?
(a) Bhopal Lake
(b) Lake Hauz Kauz
(c) Construction of dams, Lakes
(d) Damodar Valley Project

Answer

Answer: d


4. Oceans contain _____________ volume of water.
(a) 90 per cent
(b) 75 per cent
(c) 96.5 per cent
(d) 98 per cent

Answer

Answer: c


5. Water is a renewable resource because
(a) it is being recycled by human beings.
(b) it is renewed and recharged through hydrological cycle.
(c) it is being renewed through reduction.
(d) it can be reused again.

Answer

Answer: b


6. Water scarcity occurs due to
(i) low rainfall in a region
(ii) large population
(iii) over-exploitation
(iv) unequal access
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv)
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: d


7. In semi-arid regions of Rajasthan the traditional system of storing drinking water in underground tanks are called
(a) Dugwells
(b) Johads
(c) Tankas
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


8. Nagaijuna Sagar Dam is located in the state of
(a) Orissa
(b) Karnataka
(c) Kerala
(d) Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: d


9. On which river is the Bhakra Nangal Dam located?
– (a) Jhelum
(b) Chambal
(c) Satluj
(d) Chenab

Answer

Answer: c


10. The diversion channels of the Western Himalayas are called
(a) Canals
(b) Inundation channels
(c) Kuls
(d) Khadins

Answer

Answer: c


11. Which one of the following statements is not an argument in favour of multi-purpose river projects? (Textbook)
(a) Multi-purpose projects bring water to those areas which suffer from water scarcity.
(b) Multi-purpose projects by regulating water flow help to control floods.
(c) Multi-purpose projects lead to large-scale displacements and loss of livelihood.
(d) Multi-purpose projects generate electricity for our industries and our homes.

Answer

Answer: c


12. Which is not a source of fresh water?
(a) Glaciers and ice sheets
(b) Groundwater
(c) Surface run off
(d) Oceans

Answer

Answer: d


13. According to Falkan Mark, water stress occurs when:
(a) water availability is less than 1000 cubic metre per person per day.
(b) there is no water scarcity.
(c) there is flood.
(d) water availability is more than 1000 cubic metre per person per day.

Answer

Answer: a


14. Which of the following are not causes of water scarcity?
(a) Growing population
(b) Growing of water intensive crop
(c) Expansion of irrigation facilities
(d) Individual wells and tubewells in farms
(e) Water harvesting technique
(f) Industries
(g) Roof top harvesting system

Answer

Answer: (e) and (g)


15. Bhakra Nangal River Valley Project is made on the river:
(a) Sutlej-Beas
(b) Ravi-Chenab
(c) Ganga
(d) Son

Answer

Answer: a


16. Hirakud Dam is constructed on the river:
(a) Ganga
(b) Manjira
(c) Manas
(d) Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: d


17. Water of Bhakra Nangal Project is being used mainly for:
(a) hydel power and irrigation
(b) fish breeding and navigation
(c) industrial use
(d) flood control

Answer

Answer: a


18. The diversion channels seen in the Western Himalayas are called:
(a) Guls or Kuls
(b) Khadins
(c) Johads
(d) Recharge pits

Answer

Answer: a


19. Agricultural fields which are used as rainfed storage structures are called:
(a) Kuls
(b) Khadins/Johads
(c) Recharge pits
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


20. Underground tanks seen in Rajasthan to store rainwater for drinking is called:
(a) Tankas
(b) Khadin
(c) Ponds
(d) Kuls

Answer

Answer: a


21. In Western Rajasthan today plenty of water is available due to:
(a) rooftop water harvesting
(b) perennial Rajasthan Canal
(c) construction of Tankas
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: b


22. Bamboo drip irrigation system is prevalent in:
(a) Manipur
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Mizoram
(d) Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: b


23. The only State which has made rooftop rainwater harvesting structure compulsory to all the houses is:
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Karnataka
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) West Bengal

Answer

Answer: c


24. The remote village that has earned the rare distinction of being rich in rainwater?
(a) Gari
(b) Kaza
(c) Gendathur
(d) none of the above

Answer

Answer: c


25. Which one of the following is not an adverse effect of irrigation?
(a) Irrigation changes cropping pattern
(b) Water intensive crops are grown in dry areas
(c) Salinisation of soil
(d) Increases crop yield

Answer

Answer: d


26. Which of the following social movements is/ are not a resistance to multi-purpose projects?
(a) Narmada Bachao Andolan
(b) Tehri Dam Andolan
(c) Navdanya
(d) Chipko Movement

Answer

Answer: (c) and (d)


27. A 200 year old system of tapping stream and spring water prevalent in Meghalaya is known as _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bamboo drip irrigation


28. In flood plains of West Bengal people developed _____________ to irrigate their fields.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: inundation channels


29. Narmada Bachao Andolan is a movement created against _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sardar Sarovar Dam


30. _____________ is the first state to make rooftop rain water harvesting compulsory.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Tamil Nadu


31. India’s rivers even the smaller rivers have all turned into _____________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: toxic streams


32. By 2025, nearly 2 billion people will live in absolute water scarcity. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


33. 22 per cent of India’s total electricity is produced from coal. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


34. Tubewells are called the ‘temples of modem India. (True/F alse)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


35. Only 2.5 per cent of water on the Earth is fresh water. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


36. Tankas were beneficial to beat the summer heat. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


37. Match the columns.

Column A Column B
(a) Sardar Sarovar (i) Satluj
(b) Hirakud (ii) Bhopal Lake
(c) River of sorrow (iii) Mahanadi
(d) Largest artificial lake in the 11th century (iv) Narmada
(e) Bhakra Nangal (v) Damodar
Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) (iv)
(b) (iii)
(c) (v)
(d) (ii)
(e) (i)


38. What is hydrological cycle?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Continuous circulation of water between hydrosphere, atmosphere and lithosphere, in which water changes its physical state, is called hydrological cycle.


39. How much of world’s water exists as oceans and freshwater?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) As oceans – 96.5%
(ii) As freshwater – 2.5%


40. Name two places where 70 per cent of the freshwater is found as ice sheets and glaciers.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Antarctica and Greenland


41. From where is freshwater obtained?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Freshwater can be obtained directly from precipitation, surface run off and groundwater.


42. Which are the resources of fresh water?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Precipitation
(ii) Surface run off
(iii) Groundwater


43. What are the main causes of water scarcity?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Growing population and less rainfall


44. Apart from growing population and low rainfall, write any two causes of water scarcity.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Over exploitation, excessive use and unequal access. (any two)


45. State one reason for conservation of water resources.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
To ensure food security because water is needed for crop production.


46. Name the largest artificial lake built in the 11th century.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Bhopal lake


47. Name the tank built in Delhi by Iltutmish for supplying water to Siri Fort area.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Hauz Khas Tank


48. What is a dam?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
A dam is a barrier across flowing water that obstructs, directs or retards the flow often creating a reservoir.


49. How dams are classified on the basis of structure and material used?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Based on structure and the material used, dams are classified as timber dams, embankment dams or masonry dams with several sub-types.


50. Who proclaimed the dams as the ‘temples of modem India’? Why?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru


51. Name any two movements which had their origin in multi-purpose projects.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Narmada Bachao Andolan and Tehri Dam Andolan


52. Who benefits from multi-purpose projects? Name any two sections of society.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(i) Land owners
(ii) Large farmers
(iii) Industrialists (any two)


53. Name the four states which are covered under the Sardar Sarovar Project.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Maharashtra, Madhya Pradesh, Gujarat and Rajasthan.


54. Name two states which are involved in Krishna-Godavari dispute.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Karnataka and Andhra Pradesh.


55. What is ironical about dams?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The dams constructed to control floods have increased the possibility of floods because of sedimentation in the reservoirs.


56. What can be the viable alternative to dams?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Water harvesting systems


57. What are the diversion channels of Western Himalayas called?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: They are called kuls or guls.


58. Name two rainwater harvesting structures built in Rajasthan.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Khadians and Johads


59. What is palar pani?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: It is rainwater.


60. What do the people in Rajasthan do to beat the summer heat?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
They have built underground rooms adjoining the tanks. The tanks keep the room cool.


61. Name the village in Karnataka which has earned a rare distinction of being rich in rainwater. [CBSE 2014]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Gendathur


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Water Resources with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 3 Water Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.

MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers

Free PDF Download of CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers. MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science with Answers was Prepared Based on Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve NCERT Class 10 Social Science Forest and Wildlife Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers to know their preparation level.

Class 10 Social Science MCQs Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources

1. Which one of the following is not considered a sacred tree in India [CBSE 2011]
(a) Peepal
(b) Neem
(c) Banyan
(d) Mango

Answer

Answer: b


2. Which one of the following is an example of endemic species? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Nicobar Pigeon
(b) Asiatic Buffalo
(c) Horn Bill
(d) Black buck

Answer

Answer: a


3. Periyar Tiger reserve is located in
(a) Rajasthan
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Kerala

Answer

Answer: d


4. The Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal has been threatened about the loss of habitat of many species due to
(a) Industrial development
(b) Agricultural expansion
(c) Port activities
(d) Mining

Answer

Answer: d


5. Which one of the following statements is not true with regard to depletion of flora and fauna?
(a) Land required for housing
(b) Agricultural expansion
(c) Mining activities
(d) Shifting agriculture

Answer

Answer: a


6. What was the aim of Chipko movement? [CBSE 2011]
(a) Human rights
(b) Political rights
(c) Agricultural expansion
(d) Forest conservation

Answer

Answer: d


7. Most of the forests in the North eastern states belong to the category of __________ .
(a) Wastelands
(b) Protected forests
(c) Unclassed forests
(d) Mangroves

Answer

Answer: c


8. The Mundas and Santhals of Chhota Nagpur region worship which one of the following trees?
(a) Mahua
(b) Mango
(c) Peepal
(d) Tamarind

Answer

Answer: a


9. Which of these statements is not a valid reason for the depletion of flora and fauna? (Textbook)
(a) Agricultural expansion
(b) Large-scale development projects
(c) Grazing and fuel wood collection
(d) Rapid industrialisation and urbanisation

Answer

Answer: d


10. Which of the following conservation strategies do not directly involve community participation? (Textbook)
(a) Joint forest management
(b) Beej Bachao Andolan
(c) Chipko Movement
(d) Demarcation of Wildlife Sanctuaries

Answer

Answer: d


11. The species which are in danger of extinction are called:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endangered species
(d) Normal species

Answer

Answer: c


12. The forest cover in our country has recently increased due to:
(a) Increase in natural forest growth
(b) Increase in net sown area
(c) Plantation by different agencies
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: c


13. The species whose population has declined to a level from where it is likely to move into the endangered category in the near future if the negative factors continue to operate are called:
(a) Endemic species
(b) Extinct species
(c) Vulnerable species
(d) Normal species

Answer

Answer: c


14. The Himalayan brown bear is an example of:
(a) Vulnerable species
(b) Rare species
(c) Endemic species
(d) Extinct species

Answer

Answer: b


15. Substantial parts of the tribal belts in north¬eastern India, have been deforested by:
(a) Shifting cultivation
(b) Mining
(c) Infrastructure development
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


16. Species which are only found in some particular areas isolated by geographical barriers are called:
(a) Extinct species
(b) Endemic species
(c) Rare species
(d) Critical species

Answer

Answer: b


17. The Asian cheetah was declared extinct in India in the year:
(a) 1951
(b) 1952
(c) 2010
(d) 1975

Answer

Answer: b


18. The Buxar Tiger Reserve is seriously threatened by:
(a) Iron ore mining
(b) Oil exploration
(c) Dolomite mining in that area
(d) Volcanic eruption in that area

Answer

Answer: c


19. The Himalayan yew is:
(a) an insect
(b) a medicinal plant
(c) a mammal
(d) a bird

Answer

Answer: b


20. The Himalayan yew is found in parts of:
(a) Himachal Pradesh and Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Punjab and Haryana
(c) West Bengal and Kerala
(d) Madhya Pradesh and Goa

Answer

Answer: a


21. Extensive planting of a single commercially valuable species is called:
(a) Jhumming
(b) Intensive subsistence farming
(c) Mixed farming
(d) Enrichment plantation

Answer

Answer: d


22. Teak monoculture has damaged the natural forests in:
(a) Ganga Plain
(b) South India
(c) Brahmaputra Plain
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: b


23. Chir Pine plantations in the Himalayas have replaced the:
(a) Himalayan Oak and Rhododendron
(b) Teak and Sal
(c) Babul and Mexican kikar
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: a


24. Which one of the following is not responsible for the decline in India’s biodiversity?
(a) Mining activities
(b) Hunting and poaching
(c) Forest fire
(d) Afforestation

Answer

Answer: d


25. Which one of the following is not a direct outcome of environmental destruction?
(a) Biological loss
(b) Loss of cultural diversity
(c) Severe droughts
(d) River Valley Projects

Answer

Answer: c


26. We need to conserve our forests and wildlife:
(a) to preserve the ecological diversity
(b) to preserve the genetic diversity
(e) for maintenance of aquatic biodiversity
(d) so that we are able to over-extract plant and animal species

Answer

Answer: d


27. The Indian Wildlife Protection Act was implemented in:
(a) 1972
(b) 1971
(c) 2010
(d) 1982

Answer

Answer: a


28. Which is not a threat to tiger population in India?
(a) Shrinking habitat
(b) The trade of tiger skins
(c) Use of their bones in traditional medicines
(d) “Project Tiger”

Answer

Answer: d


29. Reserved and protected forests are also referred to as:
(a) Unclassed forest
(b) Permanent forest estate
(c) Open forest
(d) Mangrove forest

Answer

Answer: b


30. Unclassed forests are mainly found in:
(a) All north-eastern states and parts of Gujarat
(b) Kerala and Tamil Nadu
(c) Punjab and Haryana
(d) West Bengal and Bihar

Answer

Answer: a


31. Sacred Groves are:
(a) parts of large forests that have been left untouched by the local people.
(b) places for grazing animals.
(c) forests earmarked for commercial felling of trees.
(d) forests used for planting trees with medicinal properties.

Answer

Answer: a


32. The Chipko Movement in the Himalayas to protect the forest cover was started by
(a) Sunder Lai Bahuguna
(b) Dr Anil Agarwal of CSE
(c) Dr Aruna Roy of Kisan Mazdur Vikas
(d) Medha Patkar

Answer

Answer: a


33. How many tiger reserves are there in India:
(a) 10
(b) 15
(c) 27
(d) 29

Answer

Answer: c


34. The state having highest percentage of protected forests is __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Punjab


35. __________ is the name given to the forests of God and Goddesses.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Sacred Groves


36. ‘Chipko movement’ is a programme started towards conservation of __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Forests


37. Species which are no longer found on the earth are called __________ .

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Extinct Species


38. __________ species refers to Species which are confined to specific areas only.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Endemic


39. Corbett National Park is located in Uttar Pradesh. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


40. Beej Bachao Andolan is a farmers’ movement initiated in Tehri. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


41. Madhya Pradesh has the maximum area under reserved forests. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: True


42. Hunting and trade of Indian elephants have been given full or partial legal protection in India. (True/False)

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: False


43. State one reason for the diverse flora and fauna of the planet under great threat.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Insensitivity to our environment.


44. Name two plants which belong to the critical category.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
(a) Madhuca insignis
(b) Hubbardia heptaneuron


45. Name the fastest land mammal that has become extinct.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Asiatic Cheetah


46. What are rare species?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Rare species are the species with small population, who may move into endangered or vulnerable category, if negative factors affecting them continue to operate, e.g. Himalyan Brown Bear.


47. What are extinct species?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The species that are not found after searches of known or likely areas where they may occur are known as extinct species.


48. Name one species of animal which is considered extinct. [CBSE 2012]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Pink-headed duck is considered an extinct species.


49. Why is the Buxa Tiger Reserve in West Bengal threatened?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
It is threatened by the dolomite mining.


50. What medicinal plant used to treat some types of cancer?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Himalayan Yew


51. Why was Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act implemented?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Indian Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972 was implemented mainly to protect habitats.


52. Name two animals which have been given full or partial protection against hunting and trade throughout India.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The animals are blackbuck (chinkara), great Indian bustard (godawan), Indian elephant and Indian lion. (Any two)


53. Which state has the largest area under permanent forests? [Delhi 2010]

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Madhya Pradesh


54. To which category do the forests in north-eastern states belong?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The forests in north-eastern states belong to the unclassed category. These are managed by local communities.


55. Which state of India passed the first resolution for Joint Forest Management?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Odisha


56. In which area is the Beej Bachao Andolan famous in India?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation: Tehri region


57. Mention the tree which is worshipped by the Mundas of Chhota Nagpur region.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The Mundas of Chhota Nagpur region worship the Mahua tree.


58. What was the aim of the Chipko Movement?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
The aim of the Chipko movement in the Himalayas was to resist deforestation.


59. “Substantial part of fuel-fodder demand is met by lopping.” What is meant by lopping?

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Lopping means cutting and felling of branches and trees.


60. Name the distinguishing feature of endemic species. Give one example.

Answer/Explanation

Answer:
Explanation:
Endemic species are the species which are only found in some particular areas, usually separated by geographical and natural barriers. One example of it is Nicobar pigeon.


We hope the given MCQ Questions for Class 10 Social Science Forest and Wildlife Resources with Answers will help you. If you have any query regarding CBSE Class 10 Social Science Geography Chapter 2 Forest and Wildlife Resources Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop a comment below and we will get back to you at the earliest.