MCQ Questions on Microbiology

MCQ Questions on Microbiology

MCQ Questions on Microbiology

1. Which of these bacterial components is least likely to contain useful antigens?
(a) Cell wall
(b) Flagella
(c) Ribosomes
(d) Capsule

Answer

Answer: (c) Ribosomes


2. Which of the following contains structures composed of N-acetylmuramic acid and N- acetylglucosamine?
(a) Mycoplasmas
(b) Amoeba
(c) E.coli
(d) Spheroplast

Answer

Answer: (c) E.coli


3. The association of endotoxin in gram-negative bacteria is due to the presence of
(a) Steroids
(b) Peptidoglycan
(c) Lipopolysaccharides
(d) Polypeptide

Answer

Answer: (c) Lipopolysaccharides


4. The prokaryotic cell membrane
(a) Contains metabolic enzymes
(b) Is selectively permeable
(c) Regulates the entry and exit of materials
(d) Contains proteins and phospholipids

Answer

Answer: (d) Contains proteins and phospholipids


5. Which of the statements regarding gram staining is wrong?
(a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because of the thick lipid layer
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes stains blue because of a thick peptidoglycan layer
(c) Escherichia coli stains pink because of a thin peptidoglycan layer
(d) Mycoplasma pneumoniae is not visible in the Gram’s stain because it has no cell wall

Answer

Answer: (a) Mycobacterium tuberculosis stains blue because of the thick lipid layer


6. Which of the following is not a recognised cause of diarrhoea?
(a) Vibrio cholerae
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Clostridium perfringens
(d) Enterococcus faecalis

Answer

Answer: (d) Enterococcus faecalis


7. Which of the following is a gram-positive eubacterium?
(a) Actinomyces
(b) Clostridium
(c) Rhizobium
(d) Clostridium, Actinomyces

Answer

Answer: (d) Clostridium, Actinomyces


8. Which of the following microorganisms is not responsible for urinary tract infection?
(a) Proteus mirabilis
(b) Escherichia coli
(c) Klebsiella pneumoniae
(d) Bacteroides fragilis

Answer

Answer: (d) Bacteroides fragilis


9. Which of the following is diagnosed by serologic means?
(a) Actinomycosis
(b) Q-fever
(c) Pulmonary tuberculosis
(d) Gonorrhea

Answer

Answer: (b) Q-fever


10. Diarrhoea is not caused by
(a) Shigella dysenteriae
(b) Streptococcus pyogenes
(c) Clostridium difficile
(d) Salmonella enteriditis

Answer

Answer: (b) Streptococcus pyogenes


11. The coagulase is done to differentiate
(a) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis
(b) Staphylococcus epidermidis from Neisseria meningitidis
(c) Streptococcus pyogenes from Enterococcus faecalis
(d) Streptococcus pyogenes from Staphylococcus aureus

Answer

Answer: (a) Staphylococcus aureus from Staphylococcus epidermidis


12. Prokaryotic cells are more resistant to osmotic shock than eukaryotic cells because
(a) Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan
(b) They are selectively permeable
(c) They contain osmoregulating porins
(d) They block water molecules from entering the cell

Answer

Answer: (a) Their cell wall is composed of peptidoglycan


13. The bacterial genus where sterols are present in the cell membrane is
(a) Vibrio
(b) Mycoplasma
(c) Escherichia
(d) Chlamydia

Answer

Answer: (b) Mycoplasma


14. The bacterium that infects other gram-negative bacteria is
(a) Proteus mirabilis
(b) Haemophilus influenza
(c) Bdellovibrio
(d) Pseudomonas putida

Answer

Answer: (c) Bdellovibrio


15. Which phage is used for phage display technique?
(a) T7
(b) M13
(c) ƛ-phage
(d) ɸ6

Answer

Answer: (b) M13


The Snake and the Mirror Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers PDF Download | 9th English Chapter 5

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 5 The Snake and the Mirror with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these The Snake and the Mirror Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 5 The Snake and the Mirror with Answers

Question 1.
After the doctor finished narrating his story, everyone had
(a) Become happy
(b) A sigh of relief
(c) Got bored
(d) Jumped in excitement

Answer

Answer: (b) A sigh of relief


Question 2.
The doctor had seen the snake
(a) One more time
(b) Two more times
(c) Three more times
(d) Never again

Answer

Answer: (d) Never again


Question 3.
What was the one thing that the thief left behind?
(a) The mirror
(b) The book
(c) The dirty vest
(d) The coat

Answer

Answer: (c) The dirty vest


Question 4.
At what time, the next morning, did the doctor take his friend and few others to move things from his room?
(a) 9 am
(b) 9:30 am
(c) 8:30 am
(d) 7:30 am

Answer

Answer: (c) 8:30 am


Question 5.
The doctor ran and ran until he reached his
(a) Clinic
(b) Friend’s house
(c) Wife’s house
(d) Cousin’s house

Answer

Answer: (b) Friend’s house


Question 6.
The doctor leaped into the verandah and
(a) Relaxed there
(b) Ran away
(c) Took some fresh air
(d) Witnessed the night sky

Answer

Answer: (b) Ran away


Question 7.
Why did the snake move towards the mirror?
(a) It wanted to escape
(b) It wanted to scare the doctor
(c) It wanted to enjoy its reflection from a closer distance
(d) It wanted to bite the rats

Answer

Answer: (c) It wanted to enjoy its reflection from a closer distance


Question 8.
The sex of the snake was
(a) Male
(b) Female
(c) Unknown
(d) Wild male

Answer

Answer: (c) Unknown


Question 9.
What kind of pain did the doctor feel in his left arm?
(a) A rod of molten fire was slowly but powerfully crushing his arm
(b) A thick rod was inserted across his arm
(c) His arm was lit up with fire
(d) Boiling hot water was poured on his arm

Answer

Answer: (a) A rod of molten fire was slowly but powerfully crushing his arm


Question 10.
With the snake in his arm, the doctor described himself as a
(a) The dead image in the flesh
(b) A stone image in the flesh
(c) The handsome image in the flesh
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) A stone image in the flesh


Question 11.
How far was the head of the snake from the doctor’s face?
(a) 2 or 3 inches
(b) 3 or 4 inches
(c) 4 or 5 inches
(d) 1 or 2 inches

Answer

Answer: (b) 3 or 4 inches


Question 12.
After hearing the sound, the doctor turned around and saw a
(a) A ghost
(b) A lizard
(c) A snake
(d) A rat

Answer

Answer: (c) A snake


Question 13.
The doctor wanted his wife to be
(a) Fat
(b) Thin
(c) Tall
(d) Beautiful

Answer

Answer: (a) Fat


Question 14.
What was the lovely thought that came across the doctor’s mind while he was pacing up and down the room?
(a) He would be the best homeopath
(b) He would marry
(c) He would go for a hair cut
(d) He would dance in the rain

Answer

Answer: (b) He would marry


Question 15.
The doctor combed his hair and adjusted the parting so that it looks
(a) Clean
(b) Straight
(c) Neat
(d) Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Both (b) and (c)


Question 16.
Why did the doctor call himself foolish and poor?
(a) because of his inability to think of any solution for the trouble he was caught in
(b) he had no money
(c) no good house to live
(d) no customers

Answer

Answer: (a) because of his inability to think of any solution for the trouble he was caught in


Question 17.
What did the doctor realize?
(a) he was a handsome doctor
(b) he was a handsome bachelor
(c) he was smart
(d) he was a poor man and had nothing to boast.

Answer

Answer: (d) he was a poor man and had nothing to boast.


Question 18.
Where did the doctor think of writing OGOD?
(a) on the mirror
(b) on snake’s hood
(c) outside his heart
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) outside his heart


Question 19.
Why did the doctor want to marry a fat woman?
(a) to save himself if she tried to chase him
(b) to make her sit at home all the time
(c) to give a snobbish look
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) to save himself if she tried to chase him


Question 20.
What were the doctor’s possessions?
(a) Rs.60/
(b) few shirts
(c) some dhotis and a black coat
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (d) all


Question 21.
What are the two most important things in the story?
(a) snakes and the mirror
(b) doctor and rats
(c) doctor and his wife
(d) snake and the doctor

Answer

Answer: (d) snake and the doctor


Question 22.
What was the doctor’s room filled with?
(a) medicines
(b) smell of medicines
(c) rats
(d) people

Answer

Answer: (c) rats


Question 23.
Which were the earth shaking decisions taken by the doctor?
(a) to grow moustache and always smile
(b) to leave the room
(c) to marry
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) to grow moustache and always smile


Question 24.
What kind of thoughts did the doctor have when he looked into the mirror?
(a) reflective
(b) thoughtful
(c) notorious
(d) full of joy and contentment

Answer

Answer: (d) full of joy and contentment


Question 25.
What kind of a woman does he get married to?
(a) a thin reedy woman with a gift of sprinter
(b) a fat woman
(c) A beautiful woman
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) a thin reedy woman with a gift of sprinter


Question 26.
Why does the doctor want to keep a moustache?
(a) to look smart and get married
(b) to scare people
(c) to look handsome
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (a) to look smart and get married


Question 27.
What kind of a person was the doctor ?
(a) a poor man
(b) a rich man
(c) a clever man
(d) a foolish man

Answer

Answer: (a) a poor man


Question 28.
Why did the sound of the rats suddenly stop?
(a) the rats ran out
(b) rats slept
(c) because the rats had seen a snake
(d) all

Answer

Answer: (c) because the rats had seen a snake


Question 29.
What was the source of the doctor’s income?
(a) his medical practice
(b) his research
(c) His talks
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (a) his medical practice


Question 30.
What kind of a house did the doctor live in ?
(a) a beautiful house
(b) a kachcha house
(c) an unelectrified rented room which was full of rats
(d) a flat

Answer

Answer: (c) an unelectrified rented room which was full of rats


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 5 The Snake and the Mirror with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 9 English The Snake and the Mirror MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

A Truly Beautiful Mind Class 9 MCQ Questions with Answers PDF Download | 9th English Chapter 4

We have compiled NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 4 A Truly Beautiful Mind with Answers Pdf free download. MCQ Questions for Class 9 English with Answers were prepared according to the latest question paper pattern. Practicing these A Truly Beautiful Mind Class 9 English MCQs Questions with Answers really effective to improve your basics and learn all the key concepts.

MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 4 A Truly Beautiful Mind with Answers

Question 1.
How many son(s) did Albert have with Mileva?
(a) 3
(b) 2
(c) 4
(d) 1

Answer

Answer: (b) 2


Question 2.
When did the Nazis come to power in Germany?
(a) 1943
(b) 1930
(c) 1931
(d) 1933

Answer

Answer: (d) 1933


Question 3.
The atomic explosion at Hiroshima and Nagasaki occurred in the year of
(a) 1930
(b) 1935
(c) 1940
(d) 1945

Answer

Answer: (d) 1945


Question 4.
What was the name of the American President to whom Einstein wrote a letter to?
(a) George W Bush
(b) Nelson Mandela
(c) Barack Obama
(d) Franklin D Roosevelt

Answer

Answer: (d) Franklin D Roosevelt


Question 5.
When did Einstein publish his General Theory of Relativity?
(a) 1919
(b) 1918
(c) 1915
(d) 1920

Answer

Answer: (c) 1915


Question 6.
When did Einstein get divorced?
(a) 1911
(b) 1919
(c) 1905
(d) 1903

Answer

Answer: (b) 1919


Question 7.
Mileva was _____ years older than Albert
(a) 3 years
(b) 4 years
(c) 2 years
(d) 5 years

Answer

Answer: (a) 3 years


Question 8.
What was the famous formula that Einstein developed?
(a) F= ma
(b) E=mc2
(c) M1v1=m2v2
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)E=mc2


Question 9.
Jokingly Albert’s desk drawer at the office was termed as
(a) Bureau of relativity
(b) Bureau of motion physics
(c) Bureau of theoretical physics
(d) Bureau of quantum physics

Answer

Answer: (c) Bureau of theoretical physics


Question 10.
In which year did Albert get a job as a technical expert?
(a) 1902
(b) 1900
(c) 1901
(d) 1905

Answer

Answer: (a) 1902


Question 11.
Approximately at what age did Einstein turn out to be a graduate?
(a) 20
(b) 18
(c) 22
(d) 21

Answer

Answer: (d) 21


Question 12.
Einstein’s letter to his beloved had a mixture of
(a) Science and tenderness
(b) Science and vision
(c) Love and tenderness
(d) Science and technology

Answer

Answer: (a) Science and tenderness


Question 13.
This woman fellow student was from
(a) Algeria
(b) Serbia
(c) France
(d) Italy

Answer

Answer: (b) Serbia


Question 14.
What was the name of the fellow student on whom Albert developed special interest?
(a) Sussane Maric
(b) Mileva Maric
(c) Gloria Maric
(d) Serena Maric

Answer

Answer: (b) Mileva Maric


Question 15.
Einstein decided to study at a university in
(a) Milan
(b) Munich
(c) Zurich
(d) Ulm

Answer

Answer: (c) Zurich


Question 16.
Which destruction is referred in the lesson?
(a) destruction of inventions
(b) destruction by authoritarians
(c) destruction caused by the atom bombs at Hiroshima and Nagasaki
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) destruction caused by the atom bombs at Hiroshima and Nagasaki


Question 17.
When was Einstein awarded with the Nobel prize?
(a) 1938
(b) 1956
(c) 1945
(d) in 1921 for his contributions to Physics

Answer

Answer: (d) in 1921 for his contributions to Physics


Question 18.
Before securing a job what did Einstein do and which theory did he give to the world?
(a) sat at home
(b) worked
(c) as a teaching assistant and gave private lessons. He gave the theory of mass and energy.
played violin
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) worked


Question 19.
At what age did Einstein do his graduation?
(a) at 21 years of age
(b) at 22 years of age
(c) at 23 years of age
(d) at 24 years of age

Answer

Answer: (a) at 21 years of age


Question 20.
With whom did Einstein fall in love?
(a) a girl from Munich
(b) Mileva Maric
(c) a girl from German
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) Mileva Maric


Question 21.
What did Einstein call Mileva Maric?
(a) Clever Creature
(b) a gentleman
(c) a dumbo
(d) a good man

Answer

Answer: (a) Clever Creature


Question 22.
In which subjects was Einstein gifted and intereted?
(a) English and History
(b) Mathematics and Physics
(c) Mathematics and Biology
(d) Physics and English

Answer

Answer: (b) Mathematics and Physics


Question 23.
Where did Einstein wish to continue his study?
(a) German
(b) Munich
(c) in German-speaking Switzerland
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (c) in German-speaking Switzerland


Question 24.
Why did Einstein leave the school?
(a) for good
(b) he had clash with the teachers
(c) he didn’t like discipline and order in the school
(d) All

Answer

Answer: (d) All


Question 25.
When did Einstein begin to learn playing the violin?
(a) at the age of seven
(b) at the age of eight
(c) at the age of nine
(d) at the age of six

Answer

Answer: (d) at the age of six


Question 26.
What did Einstein love to play with?
(a) toys
(b) alone with mechanical toys
(c) friends
(d) none

Answer

Answer: (b) alone with mechanical toys


Question 27.
By what age did Einstein not learn to speak?
(a) three and half years
(b) four and half years
(c) five and half years
(d) two and half years

Answer

Answer: (d) two and half years


Question 28.
What did Albert’s mother think of him?
(a) he was a born genius
(b) he is intelligent
(c) he will rule the world
(d) Albert was a freak

Answer

Answer: (d) Albert was a freak


Question 29.
When was Einstein born?
(a) on 14 March, 1879
(b) on 10 March 1878
(c) on 14 March 1877
(d) on 14 March, 1875

Answer

Answer: (a) on 14 March, 1879


Question 30.
Whose genius still reigns after 50 years of his death?
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Nehru
(c) Stephen
(d) Einstein

Answer

Answer: (d) Einstein


We hope the given NCERT MCQ Questions for Class 9 English Beehive Chapter 4 A Truly Beautiful Mind with Answers Pdf free download will definitely yield fruitful results. If you have any queries related to CBSE Class 9 English A Truly Beautiful Mind MCQs Multiple Choice Questions with Answers, drop your questions below and will get back to you in no time.

MCQ Questions on Polymerase Chain Reaction

MCQ Questions on Polymerase Chain Reaction

Biology is the study of life. Below, You will find a list of Biology MCQ Questions as per the latest prescribed syllabus. Ace up your preparation with the Objective Questions available on Polymerase Chain Reaction and enhance your subject knowledge. Understand the concept clearly by consistently practicing the Multiple Choice Questions and score well in your exams.

MCQ Questions on Polymerase Chain Reaction

1. The PCR technique was developed by_________.
(a) Kohler
(b) Altman
(c) Milstein
(d) Kary Mullis

Answer

Answer: (d) Kary Mullis.


2. The polymerase chain reaction is_________.
(a) It is a DNA sequencing technique.
(b) It is a DNA degradation technique
(c) It is a DNA amplification technique
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


3. Which of the following statements is accurate for the PCR – polymerase chain reaction?
(a) Automated PCR machines are called thermal cyclers
(b) A thermostable DNA polymerase is required
(c) Millions to billions of desired DNA copies can be produced from microgram quantities of DNA
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


4. Thermus aquatics is the source of _________.
(a) Vent polymerase
(b) Primase enzyme
(c) Taq polymerase
(d) Both a and c

Answer

Answer: (c) Taq polymerase.


5. Which of the following is not a thermostable polymerase?
(a) pfu polymerase
(b) Taq polymerase
(c) Vent polymerase
(d) DNA polymerase III

Answer

Answer: (d) DNA polymerase III.


6. Which of the following is the basic requirement of PCR reaction?
(a) Two oligonucleotide primers
(b) DNA segment to be amplified
(c) A heat-stable DNA polymerase
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


7. Why are vent polymerase and Pfu more efficient than the Taq polymerase?
(a) Because of proofreading activity
(b) Because of more efficient polymerase activity
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Because of proofreading activity.


8. Which of the following is the first and the most important step in the polymerase chain reaction?
(a) Annealing
(b) Primer extension
(c) Denaturation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Primer extension.


9. What is the process of binding of primer to the denatured strand called?
(a) Annealing
(b) Renaturation
(c) Denaturation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Annealing.


10. Denaturation is the process of _________.
(a) Heating between 72°C
(b) Heating between 40 to 60°C
(c) Heating between 90 to 98°C
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Heating between 90 to 98°C.


11. Which of the following statements are true regarding PCR?
(a) Primer extension occurs at 72°C
(b) Denaturation involves heating at 90 to 98°C
(c) Annealing involves the binding of primer between 40 to 60C°C
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


12. Polymerase used for PCR is extracted from _____________ .
(a) Homo sapiens
(b) Thermus aquaticus
(c) Escherichia coli
(d) Saccharomyces cerevisiae

Answer

Answer: (b) Thermus aquaticus.


13. At what temperature does denaturation of DNA double helix take place?
(a) 54°C
(b) 74°C
(c) 94°C
(d) 60°C

Answer

Answer: (c) 94°C.


14. How many DNA duplexes are obtained from one DNA duplex after 4 cycles of PCR?
(a) 8
(b) 4
(c) 32
(d) 16

Answer

Answer: (d) 16.


15. Primers used for the process of polymerase chain reaction are _________.
(a) Single-stranded RNA oligonucleotide
(b) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide
(c) Double-stranded RNA oligonucleotide
(d) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide

Answer

Answer: (b) Single-stranded DNA oligonucleotide.


16. At what temperature does annealing of DNA and primer take place?
(a) 54°C
(b) 96°C
(c) 42°C
(d) 74°C

Answer

Answer: (b) 96°C.


17. Reverse transcription PCR uses _________.
(a) RNA as a template to form DNA
(b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA
(c) DNA as a template to form ssDNA
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) mRNA as a template to form cDNA.


18. Which of the following is an application of polymer chain reaction?
(a) Site-directed mutagenesis
(b) Site-specific recombination
(c) Site-specific translocation
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Site-directed mutagenesis.


19. Which of the following is true for asymmetric PCR?
(a) Used for generating double-stranded copies for DNA sequence
(b) Used for generating single-stranded copies for DNA sequence
(c) Both a and b
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Used for generating single-stranded copies for a DNA sequence.


20. The polymer chain reaction is used for_________.
(a) Amplifying gene of interest
(b) Constructing RAPD maps
(c) Detecting the presence of the transgene in an organism
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Geography MCQ Quiz Questions and Answers for Competitive Exams

Geography MCQ Questions with Answers PDF Download

“Indian Geography” acts a major role in various exams like IAS, State PSC, SSC, and other similar competitive exams. Having a great grip on Geography is very helpful at any stage not only in quiz tests or entrance exams. So, give some work to your hands by answering the Geography MCQ Quiz Questions.

Here, we have collected MCQ Quiz Questions & Answers on Indian Geography in the kind of Practice Sets for different competitive exams. Therefore, plan some time for answering the Geography MCQ Quiz questions prevailing here & enhance your GK skills on Indian Geography.

Geography MCQ Questions with Answers PDF Download

Access the given links with one click and start grabbing the knowledge about Indian Geography by solving the MCQ Quiz Questions and Answers on Geography.

Geography MCQ Quiz Questions with Answers Set 1

1. The river Godavari is often referred to as Vridha Ganga because
A.it is the older river of India
B.of its large size and extent among the peninsular rivers
C.there are a fairly large number of pilgrimage centres situated on its banks
D.its length is nearly the same as that of the river Ganges

Answer

Answer: B.of its large size and extent among the peninsular rivers


2. The scarcity or crop failure of which of the following can cause a serious edible oil crisis in India?
A.coconut
B.Groundnut
C.Linseed
D.Mustard

Answer

Answer: B.Groundnut


3. The pennines (Europe), Appalachians (America) and the Aravallis (India) are examples of
A.old mountains
B.young mountains
C.fold mountains
D.block mountains

Answer

Answer: A.old mountains


4. Which of the following factors are responsible for present crisis in the jute industry in India?
I. The decline in overseas market
II. Inadequately supply of raw jute
III.Stiff competition from synthetic packing materials
IV. Select the correct answer from the codes given below
A.I and II
B.I, II and III
C.I and III
D.II and III

Answer

Answer: A.I and II


5. Which of the following factors are responsible for India’s failure to fully exploit the inland fisheries during the last five decades?
I. Silting and pollution of the inland water bodies
II. Deforestation in the catchment areas of the rivers
III. Lack of marketing facilities
IV. Select the correct answer from the codes given below
A.I, II and III
B.I and II
C.I and III
D.II and III

Answer

Answer: C.I and III


6. The number of major ports in India is
A.5
B.8
C.13
D.15

Answer

Answer: C.13


7. Which of the following is a peninsular river of India?
A.Gandak
B.Kosi
C.Krishna
D.Sutlej

Answer

Answer: C.Krishna


8. Which of the following is the most important raw material for generation of power in India?
A.Coal
B.Mineral Oil
C.Natural Gas
D.Uranium

Answer

Answer: A.Coal


9. When it is noon IST at Allahabad in India, the time at Greenwich, London, will be
A.midnight ,GMT
B.1730 hours
C.0630 hours
D.None of the above

Answer

Answer: C.0630 hours


10. Which country has the largest coast line?
A.USA
B.Australia
C.Canada
D.India

Answer

Answer: C.Canada


11. Which of the following types of soil are mostly confined to river basins and coastal plains of India?
A.Alluvial soils
B.Black soils
C.Laterite soils
D.Red soils

Answer

Answer: A.Alluvial soils


12. The two states of India, most richly endowed with iron ore, are
A.Bihar and Orissa
B.Madhya Pradesh and Orissa
C.Bihar and West Bengal
D.Madhya Pradesh and West Bengal

Answer

Answer: A.Bihar and Orissa


13. The most fertile region of India is
A.the Himalayas
B.the central Highlands
C.the Indo-Gangetic plain
D.peninsular plateau

Answer

Answer: C.the Indo-Gangetic plain


14. Which of the following groups accounts for over 90 per cent of India’s annual coal production?
A.Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal
B.Bihar, Orissa and Madhya Pradesh
C.Orissa, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
D.West Bengal, Madhya Pradesh and Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: A.Bihar, Orissa and West Bengal


15. The significant shifts in Indian agriculture during green revolution include
A.non-food grains reported some spectacular progress and shift in the cropping pattern
B.major food grains, in the eastern regions productions decreased and in the northern states increased
C.both (a) and (b)
D.None of the above

Answer

Answer: C.both (a) and (b)


16. Which of the following crops is regarded as a plantation crop?
A.Coconut
B.Cotton
C.Sugarcane
D.Rice

Answer

Answer: A.Coconut


17. Which of the following countries leads in the production of aluminium and its products in the world?
A.Australia
B.France
C.India
D.USA

Answer

Answer: D.USA


18. The natural region which holds the Indian subcontinent is
A.equatorial climate change region
B.hot deset
C.monsoon
D.mediterranean

Answer

Answer: C.monsoon


19. The most ideal region for the cultivation of cotton in India is
A.the Brahmaputra valley
B.the Indo-Gangetic valley
C.the Deccan plateau
D.the Rann of Kutch

Answer

Answer: C.the Deccan plateau


20. Which of the following are true with respect to the Indian Peninsular Plateau?
I.The southern plateau block is formed mainly of granite and gneiss
II. The Deccan lava plateau is an elevated tableland consisting of horizontally arranged lava sheets
III. The Malwa plateau dominates the Vindhyam scraps, forming the northern flank of the plateau
IV. The trough of the Narmada and Tapti are interposed between the Vindhyan and the Satpura ranges
A.I, II and III
B.I and II
C.I, II, III and IV
D.I, III and IV

Answer

Answer: C.I, II, III and IV


21. The percentage of India’s total population employed in agriculture is nearly
A.40%
B.50%
C.60%
D.70%

Answer

Answer: D.70%


22. Which of the following important rivers of India does not originate from the Western Ghats?
A.Cauvery
B.Godavari
C.Krishna
D.Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: D.Mahanadi


23. Which of the following areas or regions is most prone to earthquakes?
A.Ganga-Brahmaputra valley
B.Deccan plateau
C.Plains of northern India
D.Western ghats

Answer

Answer: A. Ganga-Brahmaputra valley


24. The proportion of forest to the total national geographical area of India as envisaged by National Forest Policy is
A.30.3%
B.33.3%
C.38.3%
D.42.3%

Answer

Answer: B. 33.3%


25. Which of the following dams has generations of power more than irrigation as its main purpose?
A.Gandhi Sagar
B.Hirakud
C.Periyar
D.Tungabhadra

Answer

Answer: A.Gandhi Sagar


Geography MCQ Questions with Answers Set 2

Which of the following groups of rivers have their source of origin in Tibet?
A.Brahmaputra, Ganges and Sutlej
B.Ganges, Sutlej and Yamuna
C.Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej
D.Chenab, Ravi and Sutlej

Answer

Answer: C.Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej


Which of the following measures are effective for soil conservation in India?
I. Avoiding crop rotation
II. Afforestation
III. Encouraging the use of chemical fertilizers
IV.Limiting shifting cultivation
A.I and II
B.II and IV
C.III and IV
D.I, II and III

Answer

Answer: B.II and IV


Which of the following crops needs maximum water per hectare?
A.Barley
B.Maize
C.Sugarcane
D.Wheat

Answer

Answer: C.Sugarcane


The watershed between India and Myanmar is formed by
A.the Naga hills
B.the Garo hills
C.Khasi hills
D.the Jaintia hills
Answer: A.the Naga hills
The originating in the Himalayan mountain complex consists of how many distinct drainage systems of the Indian Subcontinent?
A.Two
B.Three
C.Four
D.Five

Answer

Answer: B.Three


The outer Himalayas lie between
A.the lease Himalayas and the Indo Gangetic plain
B.the foot hills and the Indo Gangetic plain
C.the greater Himalayas and the lesser Himalayas
D.Indo-Gangetic plains and the peninsula

Answer

Answer: A. the lease Himalayas and the Indo Gangetic plain


Which of the following geographical features have played a great unifying role in strengthening the forces of homogeneity of the Indian people?
I. The expanses of water surrounding the peninsula
II. The Himalayan Mountains
III. The vastness of the country
IV. The presence of the Indian ocean
A.I
B.II
C.I and II
D.I, II, III and IV

Answer

Answer: D.I, II, III and IV


Which of the following drainage systems fall into Bay of Bengal?
A.Ganga, Brahmaputra and Godavari
B.Mahanadi, Krishna and Cauvery
C.Luni, Narnada and Tapti
D.Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: D.Both (a) and (b)


The oldest oil refinery in India is at
A.Digboi, Assam
B.Haldia, near Kolkata
C.Koyali, near Baroda
D.Noonmati, Assam

Answer

Answer: A.Digboi, Assam


The oldest mountains in India are
A.Aravalis
B.Vindhyas
C.Satpuras
D.Nilgiri hills

Answer

Answer: A.Aravalis


The Shimla Convention is an agreement that sets
A.Shimla as a tourist spot
B.Shimla as the capital of Himachal Pradesh
C.boundary between India and Tibet
D.None of the above

Answer

Answer: C.boundary between India and Tibet


Which of the following events took place in the Cenozoic era?
A.Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the Himalayas and the Alps
B.Formation of the Appalachians and central European mountains
C.Splitting of India from Antarctic
D.Breaking up of Pangaea

Answer

Answer: A.Formation of the rockies, India collides with Asia and the formation of the Himalayas and the Alps

The oldest oil field in India is the ____ field, in ____
A.Anleshwar, Gujarat
B.Bombay High, Maharashtra
C.Nawagam, Gujarat
D.Digboi, Assam

Answer

Answer: D.Digboi, Assam


Unlike other parts of the Indian Coast, fishing industry has not developed along the Saurashtra coast because
A.there are few indentions suitable for fishing
B.of overwhelming dependence on agriculture and animal husbandary
C.the sea water is relatively more saline
D.of industrial development leading to widespread pollution of coastal area

Answer

Answer: B.of overwhelming dependence on agriculture and animal husbandary


The mountain building in Himalayas began
A.about 45 million years ago
B.when the continental plates of India and Eurasia converged on each other
C.both (a) and (b)
D.None of the above

Answer

Answer: C.both (a) and (b)


Which of the following groups of rivers originate from the Himachal mountains?
A.Beas, Ravi and Chenab
B.Ravi, Chenab and Jhelum
C.Sutlej, Beas and Ravi
D.Sutlej, Ravi and Jhelum

Answer

Answer: A.Beas, Ravi and Chenab


Which of the following groups of states has the largest deposits of iron ore?
A.Andhra Pradesh and Karnataka
B.Bihar and Orissa
C.Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra
D.West Bengal and Assam

Answer

Answer: B.Bihar and Orissa


Which of the following union territories of India has the highest density of population per sq km?
A.Pondicherry
B.Lakshadweep
C.Delhi
D.Chandigarh

Answer

Answer: C.Delhi


which atomic power station in India is built completely indigenously?
A.Kalpakkam
B.Narora
C.Rawat Bhata
D.Tarapore

Answer

Answer: A.Kalpakkam


The south-west monsoon contributes ____ of the total rain in India.
A.86%
B.50%
C.22%
D.100%

Answer

Answer: A.86%


The most plausible explanation for the location of the Thar desert in western India is
A.the obstruction caused by the Aravalis to the rain-bearing wind that proceeds to the Ganga Valley
B.the evaporation of moisture by heat
C.the absence of mountains to the north of Rajasthan to cause orographic rainfall in it
D.that the moisture carried by the South-west monsoon is driven away by the dry upper air current

Answer

Answer: C.the absence of mountains to the north of Rajasthan to cause orographic rainfall in it


The northern boundary of the peninsular plateau of Indian runs parallel to the Ganga and the Yamuna from Rajmahal hills to a point near
A.Allahabad
B.Delhi
C.Gwalior
D.Jaipur

Answer

Answer: B.Delhi


Which of the following food grain crops occupies the largest part of the cropped area in India?
A.Barley and maize
B.Jowar and bajra
C.Rice.
D.Wheat

Answer

Answer: C.Rice.


The number of major languages, recognized in the Indian Union as official language, are
A.15
B.22
C.12.
D.9

Answer

Answer: B.22


The oldest rocks in India are reported from
A.Dharwar region, Karnataka
B.Aravalli range, Rajasthan
C.Vindhyan range, Madhya Pradesh
D.Siwalik range, Punjab

Answer

Answer: A.Dharwar region, Karnataka


Geography Quiz Questions with Answers Set 3

1. The year ____ is called a Great Divide in the demographic history of India.
A.1901
B.1921
C.1941
D.1951

Answer

Answer: B.1921


2. The only private sector refinery set up by Reliance Petroleum Ltd. is located at
A.Guwahati
B.Jamnagar
C.Mumbai
D.Chennai

Answer

Answer: B.Jamnagar


3. The only state in India that produces saffron is
A.Assam
B.Himachal Pradesh
C.Jammu and Kashmir
D.Meghalaya

Answer

Answer: C.Jammu and Kashmir


4. Three important rivers of the Indian subcontinent have their sources near the Mansarover Lake in the Great Himalayas. These rivers are
A.Indus, Jhelum and Sutlej
B.Brahmaputra, Sutlej and Yamuna
C.Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej
D.Jhelum, Sutlej and Yamuna

Answer

Answer: C.Brahmaputra, Indus and Sutlej


5. The zonal soil type of peninsular India belongs to
A.red soils
B.yellow soils
C.black soils
D.older alluvium

Answer

Answer: A.red soils


6. What is the predominant type of Indian agriculture?
A.Commercial agriculture
B.Extensive agriculture
C.plantation agriculture
D.subsistence agriculture

Answer

Answer: D.subsistence agriculture


7. The Radcliffe line is a boundary between
A.India and Pakistan
B.India and China
C.India and Myanmar
D.India and Afghanistan

Answer

Answer: A.India and Pakistan


8. Which of the following has a potential for harnessing of tidal energy in India?
A.Gulf of Cambay
B.Gulf of Mannar
C.Backwaters of Kerala
D.Chilka lake

Answer

Answer: A.Gulf of Cambay


9. The typical area of sal forest in the Indian peninsular upland occurs
A.on the western ghats
B.between the Tapti and the Narmada
C.to the north-east of the Godavari
D.on the Malwa plateau

Answer

Answer: D.on the Malwa plateau


10. The state having a largest area of forest cover in India is
A.Arunachal Pradesh
B.Haryana
C.Madhya Pradesh
D.Assam

Answer

Answer: C.Madhya Pradesh


11. The percentage of earth surface covered by India is
A.2.4
B.3.4
C.4.4
D.5.4

Answer

Answer: A.2.4


12. Which among the following is/are the major factor/factors responsible for the monsoon type of climate in India?
I. Location
II. Thermal contrast
III. Upper air circulation
IV. Inter-tropical convergence zone
A.I
B.II, III
C.II, III and IV
D.I, II, III and IV

Answer

Answer: D.I, II, III and IV


13. The present forest area of India, according to satellite data, is
A.increasing
B.decreasing
C.static
D.decreasing in open forest area but increasing in closed forest area

Answer

Answer: B.decreasing


14. The India’s highest annual rainfall is reported at
A.Namchi, Sikkim
B.Churu, Rajasthan
C.Mawsynram, Meghalaya
D.Chamba, Himachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: C.Mawsynram, Meghalaya


15. The refineries are Mathura, Digboi and Panipat are set up by
A.Indian Oil Corporation Ltd
.B.Hindustan Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
C.Bharat Petroleum Corporation Ltd.
D.Crude Distillation unit of Madras Refineries Ltd.

Answer

Answer: A.Indian Oil Corporation Ltd


16. The principal copper deposits of India lie in which of the following places?
A.Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar
B.Khetri and Daribo areas of Rajasthan
C.Anantapur in Andhra Pradesh
D.Siwaliks in Uttar Pradesh and in Karnataka

Answer

Answer: A.Hazaribag and Singbhum of Bihar


17. Which of the following are true regarding Jhum cultivation in India?
I. It is largely practiced in Assam
II. It is referred to as ‘slash and burn’ technique
III. In it, the fertility is exhausted in a few years
A.I, II and III
B.II and III
C.I and II
D.I and III

Answer

Answer: A.I, II and III


18. The Yarlung Zangbo river, in India, is known as
A.Ganga
B.Indus
C.Brahmaputra
D.Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: C.Brahmaputra


19. The Salal Project is on the river
A.Chenab
B.Jhelum
C.Ravi
D.Sutlej

Answer

Answer: A.Chenab


20. The only zone in the country that produces gold is also rich in iron is
A.North-eastern zone
B.North-western zone
C.Southern zone
D.None of the above

Answer

Answer: C.Southern zone


21. The Paithan (Jayakwadi) Hydro-electric project, completed with the help of Japan, is on the river
A.Ganga
B.Cauvery
C.Narmada
D.Godavari

Answer

Answer: D.Godavari


22. The percentage of irrigated land in India is about
A.45
B.65
C.35
D.25

Answer

Answer: C.35


23. The southernmost point of peninsular India, that is, Kanyakumari, is
A.north of Tropic of Cancer
B.south of the Equator
C.south of the Capricorn
D.north of the Equator

Answer

Answer: D.north of the Equator


24. The pass located at the southern end of the Nilgiri Hills in south India is called
A.the Palghat gap
B.the Bhorghat pass
C.the Thalgat pass
D.the Bolan pass

Answer

Answer: A.the Palghat gap


25. Which of the following factors are responsible for the rapid growth of sugar production in south India as compared to north India?
I. Higher per acre field of sugarcane
II. Higher sucrose content of sugarcane
III. Lower labour cost
IV. Longer crushing period
A.I and II
B.I, II and III
C.I, III and IV
D.I, II and IV

Answer

Answer: D.I, II and IV


Geography MCQ Quiz Practice Questions with Answers Set 4

The city of Nasik is situated on the banks of which river in India?
A. Krishna
B. Godavari
C. Koshi

Answer

Answer: B. Godavari


The Gulf of Mannar is situated along the coast which state in India?
A. Karnatka
B. Kerala
C.Tamil Nadu
D. Telangana

Answer

Answer: C.Tamil Nadu


In which one of the following states is the Nanga Parbat peak located?
A. Sikkim
B. Himachal Pradesh
C.Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: C.Jammu and Kashmir


Which of the following rivers have almost the same point of emerging?
A. Brahmaputra and Ganga
B. Tapi and Beas
C. Brahmaputra and Indus

Answer

Answer: C. Brahmaputra and Indus


In the Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh states, the joint “Rajghat River Valley Project” is launched on—
A. Ken River
B. Chambal River
C. Betwa River

Answer

Answer: C. Betwa River


How many National waterways are there in India?
A. 3
B. 5
C. 9

Answer

Answer: C. 9


The length of the Indian coast line is—
A. 5000 km
B. 5500 km
C. 7516·6 km

Answer

Answer: C. 7516·6 km


The main streams of river Ganga which flows beyond Farakka is known as?
A. Bhagirathi
B. Padma
C. Hooghly

Answer

Answer: B. Padma


Guwahati is situated on the banks of the river?
A. Brahmaputra
B. Ganga
C. Yammuna

Answer

Answer: A. Brahmaputra


In which one of the following states of India is the Pamayangtse Monastery situated?
A. Nagaland
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Sikkim

Answer

Answer: C. Sikkim


Where is Thattekad Bird Sanctuary located?
A. Kerala
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka

Answer

Answer: A. Kerala


Which one of the following Indian rivers forms an estuary?
A. Godavari
B. Kaveri
C. Tapi

Answer

Answer: C. Tapi


Indravati is a tributary of which river?
A. Ganga
B. Godavari
C. Krishna

Answer

Answer: B. Godavari


Between which ranges does the Kashmir valley in the Himalayas lie?
A. Siwalik and Pir Panjal
B. Pirpanjal and Dhauladhar
C. Zanskar and Pir Panjal

Answer

Answer: C. Zanskar and Pir Panjal


Which one of the following areas of India does not come under the zone of high seismic intensity?
A. Uttarakhand
B. Karnataka Plateau
C. Kachchh

Answer

Answer: B. Karnataka Plateau


How many islands are there in the group of Lakshadweep?
A. 36
B. 30
C. 35

Answer

Answer: A. 36


In which state do the Mansoon arrives first?
A. Assam
B. Maharashtra
C. Kerala

Answer

Answer: C. Kerala


Which of the following Indian island lies between India and Sri Lanka?
A. Elephanta
B. Nicobar
C. Rameshwaram

Answer

Answer: C. Rameshwaram


Where are the coal reserves of India largely concentrated?
A. Mahanadi valley
B. Damodar valley
C. Godavari valley

Answer

Answer: B. Damodar valley


In India, which of the following are the Southernmost hills?
A. Anaimalai hills
B. Cardamom hills
C. Nilgiri hills

Answer

Answer: B. Cardamom hills


With reference to the climate of India, the western disturbances originate over which one of the following?
A. Arabian Sea
B. Baltic Sea
C. Caspian Sea

Answer

Answer: A. Arabian Sea


Which one of the following rivers originates near Mahabaleshwar ?
A. Godavari
B. Krishna
C. Kaveri

Answer

Answer: B. Krishna


What country borders the most other countries – 14 in all?
A. China
B. Brazil
C. Austria

Answer

Answer: A. China


Which of these countries does NOT border France?
A. Italy
B. Switzerland
C. The Netherlands

Answer

Answer: C. The Netherlands


All of these European countries are landlocked EXCEPT…
A. Austria
B. Hungary
C. Romania

Answer

Answer: C. Romania


Which of these countries does NOT border India?
A. Iran
B. Pakistan
C. Nepal

Answer

Answer: A. Iran


Egypt shares a border with…
A. Libya
B. Saudi Arabia
C.Jordan

Answer

Answer: A. Libya


Which of these countries does NOT border Israel ?
A. Egypt
B. Iran
C. Syria

Answer

Answer: B. Iran


Which country is at the southern end of Central America, at the border of South America?
A. Costa Rica
B. Panama
C. Nicaragua

Answer

Answer: B. Panama


The countries bordering Iraq include Saudi Arabia, Turkey, Iran and Syria.
A.True
B.False

Answer

Answer: A.True


Which of these countries does NOT border Brazil?
A. Bolivia
B. Uruguay
C. Chile

Answer

Answer: C. Chile


Norway, Sweden and Finland are on the Baltic Sea.
A. True
B. False

Answer

Answer: B. False


What’s the only country named after its current rulers?
A. Saudi Arabia
B. Cambodia
C. Dominican Republic

Answer

Answer: A. Saudi Arabia


Nepal is the only country in the world whose flag…
A. does not contain a primary color
B. is not four-sided
C. has only one solid color

Answer

Answer: B. is not four-sided


Minnesota, known as “The Land of 10,000 Lakes,” actually has fewer than 1,000 lakes.
A. True
B. False

Answer

Answer: B. False


Which city is NOT one of South Africa’s three capital cities?
A. Pretoria
B. Cape Town
C. Johannesburg

Answer

Answer: C. Johannesburg


What’s the only continent in all four hemispheres -– north, east, south and west?
A. South America
B. North America
C. Africa

Answer

Answer: C. Africa


What’s the lowest point in North America?
A. The Grand Canyon (Arizona)
B. Death Valley (California)
C. Niagara Gorge (US-Canada Border)

Answer

Answer: B. Death Valley (California)


What do the tiny countries of Lesotho, San Marino and Vatican City have in common?
A. They don’t allow cars
B. They each have fewer than 5,000 citizens
C. They’re completely contained inside another country

Answer

Answer: C. They’re completely contained inside another country


Uzbekistan and Liechtenstein are the only two countries on earth that…
A. are “doubly-landlocked” – you have to cross two other countries to reach ocean
B. have “negative altitude” – the average elevation is below sea level
C. practice “full libertarianism” – there is no police force

Answer

Answer: A. are “doubly-landlocked” – you have to cross two other countries to reach ocean


One U.S. state alone contains more than half the nation’s coastline. Which is it?
A. Florida
B. Alaska
C. California

Answer

Answer: B. Alaska


Geography MCQ Practice Questions with Answers Set 5

Approximately what fraction of the world’s population lives in India?
A. 1/3
B. 1/6
C. 1/10
D. 1/50

Answer

Answer: B. 1/6


What is the meaning of the name Himalaya in Sanskrit?
A. Abode of snow
B. The high one
C. Rocky mountains
D. Peak of heaven

Answer

Answer: A. Abode of snow


Which Indian city is home to the Taj Mahal?
A. Mumbai
B. Chennai
C. Agra
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: C. Agra


What is the name of the tallest mountain in India?
A. Kanchenjunga
B. Everest
C. Elbrus
D. Damāvand

Answer

Answer: A. Kanchenjunga


Which of the following cities has the largest population?
A. Chennai
B. Kolkata
C. Hyderabad
D. Mumbai

Answer

Answer: D. Mumbai


Roughly what percent of Indians work in agriculture?
A. 50%
B. 33%
C. 80%
D. 10%

Answer

Answer: A. 50%


Which mountains form the eastern and western edges of the Deccan plateau?
A. Eastern and Western Ghats
B. Himalayas
C. Urals
D. Hindu Kush

Answer

Answer: A. Eastern and Western Ghats


What is the name of the boundary that separated India from Pakistan, set in 1947?
A. Radcliffe Line
B. Plimsoll Line
C. Green Line
D Durand Line

Answer

Answer: A. Radcliffe Line


Which of the following is NOT found in India?
A. glacier
B. iceberg
C. desert
D. lagoon

Answer

Answer: B. iceberg


How many oceans touch the Indian mainland?
A. none
B. 1
C. 2
D. 3

Answer

Answer: B. 1


What is the population of India?
A. 500 thousand
B. 500 million
C. 930 thousand
D. 930 million

Answer

Answer: D. 930 million


This is the capital of India.
A. New Delhi
B. Bombay
C. Belfast
D. none of the above

Answer

Answer: A. New Delhi


India has the _________ largest population on Earth.
A. second
B. third
C. fourth
D. fifth

Answer

Answer: A. second


Which mountains separate India from Asia and China?
A. Andes Mountains
B. Mt.McKinley
C. Himalayan Mountains

Answer

Answer: C. Himalayan Mountains


India and Sri lanka are separated by the ___ strait.
A.Laccadive Sea
B.Amchitka Pass
C.Palk Strait
D.Colvos Passage

Answer

Answer: C.Palk Strait


In which year was the McMahon Line put in effect?
B.1919
B.1914
C.1922
D.1934

Answer

Answer: B.1914


Which city of India is known as the ‘Manchester of the East’?
A.Mumbai
B.Delhi
C.Ahmedabad
D.Kolkata

Answer

Answer: C.Ahmedabad


Which city is known as the ‘Queen of the Arabian Sea’?
A.Vishakhapatnam
B.Kochi
C.Kollam
D.Panaji

Answer

Answer: B.Kochi


In which state is Coorg city located?
A.Kerala
B.Tamil Nadu
C.Karnataka
D.Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: C.Karnataka


Mumbai city was built combining how many islands?
A.7
B.8
C.10
D.6

Answer

Answer: A.7


Which city is known as ‘Blue City’?
A.Dehradun
B.Jodhpur
C.Jaipur
D.Kanpur

Answer

Answer: B.Jodhpur


Pemba’ and ‘Zanzibar’ Islands of Africa are famous for the cultivation and export of:
A. Cloves
B. Sugarcane
C. Tobacco
D. Coffee

Answer

Answer: A. Cloves


The “Registan Desert” is a part of which among the following countries?
A. Pakistan
B. Afghanistan
C. Tajikistan
D. Turkmenistan

Answer

Answer: B. Afghanistan


Which among the following is the driest desert in Earth?
A. Kalahari
B. Atacama
C. Mojave Desert
D. Tabernas Desert

Answer

Answer: B. Atacama


Which among the following is the single largest irrigated area in the world?
A. Indus Valley
B. Brahamputra Valley
C. Ganga Basin
D. Mahanadi Basin

Answer

Answer: A. Indus Valley


Mount Kilimanjaro is located in which country?
A. Ghana
B. Kenya
C. Tanzania
D. Namibia

Answer

Answer: C. Tanzania


Which among the following countries has the largest reserves of Natural Gas in the world?
A. Australia
B. United States
C. Russia
D. China

Answer

Answer: C. Russia


Which among the following country is the world’s largest tea exporter?
A. Sri Lanka
B. Kenya
C. India
D. China

Answer

Answer: B. Kenya


Which among the following is the highest milk producing goat in India?
A. Barbari
B. Jamnapari
C. Block Bengal
D. Beetal

Answer

Answer: B. Jamnapari


What is the capital of Ecuador?
A. Bogotá
B. Asunción
C. Lima
D. Quinto

Answer

Answer: D. Quinto


Death Valley is located in which desert?
A. Mojave Desert
B. Colorado Desert
C Amargosa Desert
D. Taklamakan Desert

Answer

Answer: A. Mojave Desert


Which of the following country is known as Pearl of the Caribbean Sea?
A. Cuba
B. Anguilla
C. Bahamas
D. Jamaica

Answer

Answer: A. Cuba


While going towards the centre of the earth, the weight of a body shall?
A. Increase
B. Decrease
C. Remain Constant
D. Become infinite

Answer

Answer: B. Decrease


Which of the following is also known as Van Diemen’s Land?
A. Tasmania
B. Greenland
C. Arizona
D. Peru

Answer

Answer: A. Tasmania


Which among the following is the largest tropical lake in the world?
A. Lake Victoria
B. Lake Malawi
C. Lake Kivu
D. Lake Turkana

Answer

Answer: A. Lake Victoria


World’s longest seawall is located in:
A. China
B. South Korea
C. North Korea
D. Japan

Answer

Answer: B. South Korea


Which among the following tunnel connects France and Italy?
A. Mont Blanc Tunnel
B. St. Gothard Tunnel
C. Queens way Tunnel
D. Orange Fish Rivers Tunnel

Answer

Answer: A. Mont Blanc Tunnel


KKS Harbour is located in:
A. Jafna
B. Seoul
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai

Answer

Answer: A. Jafna


Which of the following country is the largest producer of Uranium?
A. Australia
B. Canada
C. Russia
D. France

Answer

Answer: B. Canada


Which among the following is the correct distance from the coast is known as Territorial waters?
A. 20 Nautical Miles
B. 30 Nautical Miles
C. 12 Nautical Miles
D. 15 Nautical Miles

Answer

Answer: C. 12 Nautical Miles


“Qomolangm” refers to which among the following peaks?
A. Mount Kailash
B. Mount Everest
C. K2
D. Kangchenjunga

Answer

Answer: B. Mount Everest


“Carnauba wax” is produced in which country?
A. Brazil
B. Egypt
C. Japan
D. South Korea

Answer

Answer: A. Brazil


The ONLY active volcano of South Asia is located in which of the following countries?
A. India
B. Sri Lanka
C. Maldives
D. Mauritius

Answer

Answer: A. India


Asthenosphere is located at?
A. Above stratosphere
B. Below Ionsphere
C. Below Lithosphere
D. Above Lithosphere

Answer

Answer: C. Below Lithosphere


Which among the following is the correct location of the Chukchi Sea?
A. Western Pacific Ocean
B. North Atlantic Ocean
C. Southern Pacific Ocean
D. Arctic Ocean

Answer

Answer: D. Arctic Ocean


Makran is located in which among the following?
A. Arabian Sea
B. Indian Ocean near the southern coast of Sri Lanka
C. Bay of Bengal
D. Mediterranean Sea

Answer

Answer: A. Arabian Sea


Which among the following is the correct set of three largest river basins (by area), from largest to smallest?
A. Amazon, Congo, Ganga
B. Amazon, Congo, Mississippi
C. Amazon, Mississippi, Congo
D. Amazon, Mississippi, Ganga

Answer

Answer: B. Amazon, Congo, Mississippi


The pointer or arrow of the magnetized needle of a compass indicates which among the following?
A. Geographic North Pole
B. Magnetic North Pole
C. Geomagnetic North Pole
D. Magnetic South Pole

Answer

Answer: D. Magnetic South Pole


Which of the following is the narrowest strait of the world?
A. Strait of Tartar
B. Bab-el-Mandeb
C. Strait of Dardenelles
D. Foveaux Strait

Answer

Answer: A. Strait of Tartar

Hope the shared Geography MCQ Quiz Questions with Answers PDF Download help you to the fullest in your preparation. So, access the links and avail practice MCQ questions and answers on India Geography to increase your knowledge of Geography. Find more Quiz practice sets on various topics from our site ncertbooks.guru & develop your skills.

MCQ Questions on Reproduction in Organisms

MCQ Questions on Reproduction in Organisms

MCQ Questions on Reproduction in Organisms

1. Planaria’s most remarkable characteristics are its ability to
(a) Hibernation
(b) Survive without air
(c) Generate bioluminescence
(d) Regenerate

Answer

Answer: (d) Regenerate


2. Fusion of unrelated gametes is called ________
(a) Dichogamy
(b) Fertilization
(c) Autogamy
(d) Allogamy

Answer

Answer: (d) Allogamy


3. Bryophyllum daigremontianum reproduces by 
(a) Vegetative propagation
(b) Budding
(c) Fission
(d) Fragmentation

Answer

Answer: (a) Vegetative propagation


4. When living tissue from a plant is extracted and placed in a medium, it is called ______
(a) Horticulture
(b) Transplantation
(c) Explant
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Explant


5. Budding, in hydra, is a form ________
(a) Apoptosis
(b) Sexual reproduction
(c) Asexual reproduction
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Asexual reproduction


6. ____________is not a method of vegetative propagation
(a) Grafting
(b) Cutting
(c) Lytic cycle
(d) Layering

Answer

Answer: (c) Lytic cycle


7. ___________ refers to an asexual reproduction process wherein genetically identical copies of individual plants are produced
(a) Layering
(b) Binary fission
(c) Clonal Propagation
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Clonal Propagation


8. __________ shows totipotency.
(a) Xylem
(b) Meristem
(c) Cork
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Meristem


9. The property of an undifferentiated cell that has the potential to develop into an entire plant is called 
(a) Budding
(b) Cloning
(c) Subpotency
(d) Totipotency

Answer

Answer: (d) Totipotency


10. The development of root and shoot in tissue culture is determined by ______
(a) Temperature
(b) Nutrients
(c) Auxin and cytokinin ratio
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Auxin and cytokinin ratio