NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Logic Gates Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Logic Gates

1. An inverter gates can be developed using
(a) Two diodes
(b) Resistance and capacitance
(c) Transistor
(d) Inductance and capacitance

Answer

Answer: (c) Transistor

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2. The output of the two-input OR gate is high
(a) Only if both inputs are high
(b) Only if both inputs are low
(c) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(d) If at least one of the inputs is low

Answer

Answer: (d) If at least one of the inputs is low

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3. The output of a two-input AND gate is high
(a) Only if both the inputs are high
(b) Only if both the inputs are low
(c) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(d) If at least one input is low

Answer

Answer: (a) Only if both the inputs are high

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4. NAND gate means
(a) Inversion followed by AND gates
(b) AND gates followed by an inverter
(c) AND gate followed by OR gate
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) AND gates followed by an inverter

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5. The output of the two-input NAND gate is high
(a) Only if both the inputs are high
(b) Only if both the inputs are low
(c) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(d) If at least one input is low

Answer

Answer: (d) If at least one input is low

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6. A NOT gate means
(a) Inversion followed by an OR gate
(b) OR gate followed by an inverter
(c) NOT gate followed by an OR gate
(d) NAND gate followed by an OR gate

Answer

Answer: (b) OR gate followed by an inverter

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7. The output of two-input NOR gate is high
(a) Only if both the inputs are high
(b) Only if both the inputs are low
(c) Only if one input is high and the other is low
(d) If at least one input is high

Answer

Answer: (b) Only if both the inputs are low

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8. An exclusive NOR gate is logically equal to
(a) Inverter followed by an XOR gate
(b) NOT gate followed by an exclusive XOR gate
(c) Exclusive OR gate followed by an inverter
(d) The complement of a NOR gate

Answer

Answer: (c) Exclusive OR gate followed by an inverter

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9. The gate ideally suited for bit comparison is a
(a) Two input exclusive NOR gate
(b) Two input exclusive OR gate
(c) Two input NAND gate
(d) Two input NOR gate

Answer

Answer: (a) Two input exclusive NOR gate

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10. Two input exclusive NOR gate gives high output
(a) When one input is high and the other is low
(b) Only when both the inputs are low
(c) When both the inputs are the same
(d) Only when both the inputs are high

Answer

Answer: (c) When both the inputs are the same

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NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Photometry Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Photometry

1. What is the power of the lamp if its luminous efficiency is 2 lumen/watt and its luminous intensity is 42 candela?
(a) 62 W
(b) 138 W
(c) 76 W
(d) 264 W

Answer

Answer: (d) 264 W

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2. In a movie hall, if the distance between the screen and the projector is increased by 1% what happens to the illumination on the screen?
(a) Increases by 1%
(b) Decreases by 1%
(c) Increases by 2%
(d) Decreases by 2%

Answer

Answer: (d) Decreases by 2%

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3. At a height of one meter above the centre of a circular table of diameter 4m, a bulb of 100 W hangs. If the intensity at a point on its rim is I0, then what is the intensity at the centre of the table?
(a) 2I₀
(b) I₀
(c) 2√5I₀
(d) 5√5I₀

Answer

Answer: (d) 5√5I₀

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4. Lux is a unit of which of the following?
(a) Illuminance on a surface
(b) Luminous intensity of a source
(c) Luminous efficiency of the source of light
(d) Transmission coefficient of a surface

Answer

Answer: (a) Illuminance on a surface

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5. Lux is equivalent to which of the following?
(a) 1 candela/m²
(b) 1 lumen/cm²
(c) 1 lumen/m²
(d) 1 candela/cm²

Answer

Answer: (a) 1 candela/m²

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6. If a lamp has a luminous efficiency of Five lumen/watt and a luminous intensity of 35 candela. What is the power of the lamp?
(a) 176 W
(b) 88 W
(c) 36 W
(d) 80 W

Answer

Answer: (b) 88 W

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7. The distance between a point source of light and a screen is 60 cm and now this distance is increased to 180 cm. By how many fractions will the intensity on the screen change as compared to the original intensity?
(a) 9 times
(b) 3 times
(c) (1/9) times
(d) (1/3) times

Answer

Answer: (c) (1/9) times

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8. Venus looks brighter than other stars because
(a) it has no atmosphere
(b) atomic fission occurs on its surface
(c) it has a higher density than other stars
(d) it is closer to earth than most stars

Answer

Answer: (d) it is closer to earth than most stars

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9. Which of the following sources of light is the inverse square law valid for?
(a) Cylindrical source
(b) Searchlight
(c) Isotropic point source
(d) All types of light sources

Answer

Answer: (c) Isotropic point source

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10. Which of the following has more luminous efficiency?
(a) 40 W fluorescent tube
(b) 40 W bulb
(c) Both have the same luminous efficiency
(d) Cannot say

Answer

Answer: (a) 40 W fluorescent tube

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11. A lamp hangs at a height of 4 m above a table. The lamp is lowered by 1 m. By how much will the illuminance increase?
(a) 78%
(b) 64%
(c) 40%
(d) 92%

Answer

Answer: (a) 78%

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12. A point source of 100 candela is held 5 m above a sheet of blotting paper which reflects 75% of the incident light. What is the illuminance of blotting paper?
(a) 4 lux
(b) 4 phot
(c) 3 lux
(d) 3 phot

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 lux

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NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Photoelectric Effect Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Photoelectric Effect

1. Photoelectric effect was explained by
(a) Einstein
(b) Faraday
(c) Plank
(d) Hertz

Answer

Answer: (a) Einstein

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2. In a photoelectric experiment for 4000 Å incident radiation, the potential difference to stop the ejection is 2 V. If the incident light is changed to 3000 Å, then the potential required to stop the ejection of electrons will be
(a) 2 V
(b) Less than 2 V
(c) Zero
(d) Greater than 2 V

Answer

Answer: (d) Greater than 2 V

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3. Light of wavelength 4000 Å is incident on a sodium surface for which the threshold wavelength of photo-electrons is 5420 Å. The work function of sodium is
(a) 5 eV
(b) 3 eV
(c) 2.29 eV
(d) 0.57 eV

Answer

Answer: (c) 2.29 eV

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4. Photocell is a device to
(a) Store photons
(b) Measure light intensity
(c) Convert photon energy into mechanical energy
(d) Store electrical energy for replacing storage batteries

Answer

Answer: (b) Measure light intensity

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5. Photoelectrons stopping potential depends on
(a) Frequency of incident light and nature of the cathode material
(b) The intensity of the incident light
(c) The frequency of the incident light
(d) Nature of cathode material

Answer

Answer: (a) Frequency of incident light and nature of the cathode material

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6. What is the value of the maximum kinetic energy acquired by electron due to radiation of wavelength 100 nm?
(a) 12 eV
(b) 6.2 eV
(c) 100 eV
(d) 300 eV

Answer

Answer: (b) 6.2 eV

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7. The stopping potential value is 0.6 V when the light source is kept at a distance of 20 cm. When the source is kept at 40 cm away, the stopping potential will be
(a) 0.6 V
(b) 0.3 V
(c) 1.2 V
(d) 2.4 V

Answer

Answer: (a) 0.6 V

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8. If the work function for a certain metal is 3.2 x 10^-19 joule and it is illuminated with light of frequency 8 x 10¹⁴ Hz. The maximum kinetic energy of the photo-electrons would be (h= 6.63 x 10^-34 Js).
(a) 2.1 x 10^-19 J
(b) 8.5 x 10^-19 J
(c) 5.3 x 10^-19 J
(d) 3.2 x 10^-19 J

Answer

Answer: (a) 2.1 x 10^-19 J

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9. A photocell is receiving light from a source placed at a distance of 1m. If the same source is to be placed at a distance of 2 m, then the ejected electron
(a) Moves in one-fourth energy as that of the initial energy
(b) Moves with one-fourth momentum as that of the initial momentum
(c) Will be half in number
(d) Will be one-fourth in number

Answer

Answer: (d) Will be one-fourth in number

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10. The minimum energy required to remove an electron is called
(a) Stopping potential
(b) Kinetic energy
(c) Work function
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Work function

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NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Oscillation Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Oscillation

1. The time period of a simple pendulum is T remaining at rest inside a lift. Find the time period of the pendulum when the lift starts to move up with an acceleration of g/3
(a) T
(b) T/2
(c) 2T/5
(d) T√3/2

Answer

Answer: (d) T√3/2

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2. The length of the second’s pendulum on the surface of the earth is 1m. The length of the same pendulum on the surface of the moon, where the acceleration due to gravity is (⅙)^th of the g on the surface of the earth is
(a) 36 m
(b) 1m
(c) 1/36 m
(d) ⅙ m

Answer

Answer: (d) ⅙ m

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3. The displacement of a particle performing simple harmonic motion is given by,x= 8 sin ωt + 6 cos ωt, where distance is in cm and time is in second. The amplitude of motion is
(a) 10 cm
(b) 14 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 3.5 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 10 cm

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4. A particle executes S.H.M of amplitude A. At what distance from the mean position is its kinetic energy equal to its potential energy?
(a) 0.51 A
(b) 0.61 A
(c) 0.71 A
(d) 0.81 A

Answer

Answer: (c) 0.71 A

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5. A simple pendulum on length l and mass m is suspended vertically. The string makes an angle θ with the vertical. The restoring force acting on the pendulum is
(a) mg tanθ
(b) mg sinθ
(c) – mg sinθ
(d) – mg cosθ

Answer

Answer: (c) – mg sinθ

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6. The mass and diameter of a planet are twice those of earth. The period of oscillation of pendulum on this planet will be (if it is a second’s pendulum on earth)
(a) 1/√2 second
(b) 2 x √2 second
(c) 2 second
(d) ½ second

Answer

Answer: (b) 2 x √2 second

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7. A particle of mass m is hanging vertically by an ideal spring of force constant k. If the mass is made to oscillate vertically, its total energy is
(a) Maximum at extreme position
(b) Maximum at mean position
(c) Minimum at mean position
(d) Same at all positions

Answer

Answer: (d) Same at all positions

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8. A a place where g = 980 cm/sec² the length of seconds pendulum is about
(a) 50 cm
(b) 100 cm
(c) 2 cm
(d) 2 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 100 cm

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9. The maximum velocity for a particle in S.H.M is 0.16 m/s and maximum acceleration is 0.64 m/s^{2 .}The amplitude is
(a) 4 x 10^-2 m
(b) 4 x 10^-1 m
(c) 4 x 10 m
(d) 4 x 10⁰ m

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 x 10^-2 m

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10. For a magnet of a time period T magnetic moment is M. If the magnetic moment becomes one-fourth of the initial value, then the time period of oscillation becomes
(a) Half of the initial value
(b) One-fourth of the initial value
(c) Double of the initial value
(d) Four times the initial value

Answer

Answer: (c) Double of the initial value

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NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Waves Optics Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Waves Optics

1. Polarisation phenomenon explains which nature of light?
(a) Transverse
(b) longitudinal
(c) Both transverse and longitudinal
(d) geometrical

Answer

Answer: (a) Transverse

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2. A narrow slit is taken and a parallel beam of moving electrons is incident normally on it. At a larger distance from the slit, a fluorescent screen is placed. Which of the following statement is true if the size of the slit is further narrowed?
(a) The diffraction pattern cannot be observed on the screen
(b) The angular width of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern will increase
(c) The angular width of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern will decrease
(d) The angular width of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern remains the same

Answer

Answer: (b) The angular width of the central maxima of the diffraction pattern will increase

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3. How does the diffraction band of blue light look in comparison with the red light?
(a) No changes
(b) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower
(c) Diffraction pattern becomes broader
(d) Diffraction pattern disappears

Answer

Answer: (b) Diffraction pattern becomes narrower

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4. Two coherent sources of light can be obtained from
(a) Two different lamps
(b) Two different lamps but of the same colour
(c) Two different lamps of the same colour and having the same colour
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (d) None of these

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5. Which of the following phenomenon is not explained by Huygen’s wave theory?
(a) Diffraction
(b) Interference
(c) Polarisation
(d) Photoelectric effect

Answer

Answer: (d) Photoelectric effect

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6. What is the value of coherent time if L is the coherent length and c is the velocity of light?
(a) cL
(b) L/c
(c) c/L
(d) 1/Lc

Answer

Answer: (b) L/c

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7. The ratio of the amplitude of the two sources producing interference 3 : 5, the ratio of intensities at maxima and minima is
(a) 25:6
(b) 5:3
(c) 16:1
(d) 25:9

Answer

Answer: (c) 16:1

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8. The colours on the soap bubble is due to
(a) Interference
(b) Polarisation
(c) Diffraction
(d) Reflection

Answer

Answer: (a) Interference

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9. Which of the following statements indicates that light waves are transverse?
(a) Light waves can be polarised
(b) Light waves can show interference
(c) Light waves undergo diffraction
(d) They travel in the vacuum

Answer

Answer: (a) Light waves can be polarised

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10. In Young’s double-slit experiment, the phase difference between the light waves reaching the third bright fringe from the central fringe will be (λ=6000 Å)
(a) Zero
(b) 2π
(c) 4π
(d) 6π

Answer

Answer: (d) 6π

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NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Lami’s Theorem Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Lami’s Theorem

1. Three coplanar forces A, B and C acting at a point in the plane are in equilibrium. If the given value of A is 1.9318 kg wt and sinθ₁ is 0.9659, what is the value of C?
(a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 0.9659
(d) ½

Answer

Answer: (a) 1

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2. A body under the action of coplanar forces X, Y and Z, is in equilibrium as shown in the figure. Which of the following is the correct statement?

Answer

Answer: (a)

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3. If the body is under equilibrium under the influence of a set of non-colinear force, then the minimum number of forces has to be
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (b) Three

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4. What is the minimum number of non-zero vectors in different planes that can be added to give a resultant of zero?
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

Answer

Answer: (c) Four

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5. In the given figure, the tension in the horizontal cord is 30 N. What is the weight W and tension in the string OA in Netwon?

(a) 30√3, 30
(b) 60√3, 30
(c) 30√3, 60
(d) 60√3, 60

Answer

Answer: (c) 30√3, 60

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6. According to Lami’s theorem which of the following statements is true?
(a) Three forces acting at a point will be in equilibrium.
(b) Three forces acting upon a particle will be in equilibrium if they are represented in magnitude and direction by the sides of a triangle, taken in order.
(c) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two.
(d) Three forces acting at a point can be represented by a triangle, each side being proportional to the force.

Answer

Answer: (c) If three forces acting at a point are in equilibrium, each force is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two.

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7. Which of the following theories states that “if a body is in equilibrium under the action of three coplanar and concurrent forces, each of the forces is proportional to the sine of the angle between the other two.”
(a) Parallelogram Law of Forces
(b) Lami’s Theorem
(c) Triangle Law of Forces
(d) Polygon Law of Forces

Answer

Answer: (b) Lami’s Theorem

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8. Which of the following is true about Lami’s theorem?
(a) The theorem is derived based on the cosine rule of trigonometry
(b) The theorem is only applicable to regular shaped bodies in equilibrium
(c) The theorem is helpful in determining the unknown forces acting at a point for an object in equilibrium.
(d) The theorem determines the forces acting on a moving body.

Answer

Answer: (c) The theorem is helpful in determining the unknown forces acting at a point for an object in equilibrium.

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9. A 30 kg iron block is suspended using supports A and B as shown in the figure. What is the tension in both ropes?

(a) 263.566 N and 215.2 N
(b) 463.566 N and 415.2 N
(c) 663.566 N and 615.2 N
(d) 863.566 N and 815.2 N

Answer

Answer: (a) 263.566 N and 215.2 N

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10. In the figure given below, the advertisement board having a mass of 6 kg is suspended by two strings which makes an angle of 45⁰ with the signboard. How much is the tension in both the strings?
(a) 21.6 N
(b) 41.6 N
(c) 61.6 N
(d) 81.6 N

Answer

Answer: (b) 41.6 N

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