Gravitation MCQs for NEET

Gravitation MCQs for NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Gravitation Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Gravitation

1. What happens to the gravitational potential at the centre of the uniform spherical shell which shrinks gradually?
(a) Remains constant
(b) Decreases
(c) Increases
(d) Oscillates

Answer

Answer: (b) Decreases


2. What is the relation between the escape velocity and orbital velocity of a satellite, if the satellite is close to the earth’s surface?
Gravitation MCQs for NEET 1

Answer

Answer: (b) \(v_{e}=\sqrt{2} v_{0}\)


3. What happens to the weight of the body if the weight becomes \(\frac{1}{16}\) at a certain. Also, consider the radius of the earth to be R.
(a) 4R
(b) 15R
(c) 5R
(d) 3R

Answer

Answer: (d) 3R


4. What is the maximum height attained by the rocket above the surface of the earth if the mass of the rocket is M, and the initial speed to be V. Assume that R is the radius of the earth.
Gravitation MCQs for NEET 2

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{R}{\frac{2 g R}{v^{2}}-1}\)


5. What is the increase in the potential energy of the body with mass m if the body is taken at the height h which is equal to the radius of the earth?
(a) mgR
(b) 2mgR
(c) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mgR
(d) \(\frac{1}{4}\)mgR

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{1}{2}\)mgR


6. Consider a body of mass m which needs to be moved from an orbit of radius 2R to 3R. What is the energy required
Gravitation MCQs for NEET 3

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{G M m}{6 R}\)


7. The distance between the closest planet and the sun is r1 while the distance between the farthest planet and the sun is r2. The linear velocities of these planets is v1 and v2 respectively. What is the ratio of \(\frac{v_{1}}{v_{2}}\)
Gravitation MCQs for NEET 4

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\left(\frac{r_{2}}{r_{1}}\right)\)


8. Choose the factor on which the orbital velocity does not depend when the satellite is orbiting close to the earth’s surface
(a) The mass of the earth
(b) The mass of the satellite
(c) The orbital radius
(d) The radius of the earth

Answer

Answer: (b) The mass of the satellite


9. If a satellite takes time T for revolution, the kinetic energy is proportional to
Gravitation MCQs for NEET 5

Answer

Answer: (b) \(T^{\frac{-2}{3}}\)


10. The atmosphere around the earth is held by
(a) Gravity
(b) Winds
(c) Clouds
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Gravity


Kinematics MCQ for NEET

Kinematics MCQ for NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Kinematics Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Kinematics

1. Consider two cars M and N. These cars start from the same point and travel in a straight line such that their positions are xM(t) = at + bt2 and xN(t) = ft – t2. Determine the time at which both the cars are having the same velocity
Kinematics MCQ for NEET 1

Answer

Answer: (b) \(\frac{f-a}{2(1+b)}\)


2. Below is the distance-time curve traced by the particle. What is the maximum instantaneous velocity of the particle around the point
Kinematics MCQ for NEET 2
(a) D
(b) B
(c) A
(d) C

Answer

Answer: (d) C


3. Below is the graph of a body whose initial velocity is v0. The body travels through a straight line with acceleration as shown in the graph. Determine the maximum velocity of the body.
Kinematics MCQ for NEET 3
(a) v0−4at0
(b) v0+4at0
(c) v0+(at0)
(d) \(v_{0}+\frac{9}{2}\left(a t_{0}\right)\)

Answer

Answer: (d) \(v_{0}+\frac{9}{2}\left(a t_{0}\right)\)


4. What will be the shape of the x→y graph, if the relation between time and displacement of the moving body is t = 2αx2 where α is constant.
(a) Circle
(b) Straight line
(c) Parabola
(d) Hyperbola

Answer

Answer: (d) Hyperbola


5. Which of the following statement is true if a body moves in a semicircular track whose radius is R
(a) 2R is the displacement of the body
(b) πR is the distance travelled by the body
(c) Both (a) and (b) are correct
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b) are correct


6. What does the area under acceleration-time graph represent for any given time interval
(a) Final velocity
(b) Distance travelled
(c) Change in the velocity in that time interval
(d) Displacement of the particle

Answer

Answer: (c) Change in the velocity in that time interval


7. When can we say that the resultant of the two vectors is maximum
(a) When the vectors are acting in the opposite direction
(b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction
(c) When the vectors are at right angles
(d) When the vectors are parallel to each other

Answer

Answer: (b) Both the vectors are acting in the same direction


8. From the below, select the unit vector along \(\hat{i}+\hat{j}\)
Kinematics MCQ for NEET 4

Answer

Answer: (a) \(\frac{\hat{i}+\hat{j}}{\sqrt{2}}\)


9. A particle with radius R is moving in a circular path with constant speed. The time period of the particle is T. Calculate the time for the following after \(t=\frac{T}{6}\). What is the average velocity of the particle
Kinematics MCQ for NEET 5

Answer

Answer: (c) \(\frac{6 R}{T}\)


Physics Thermodynamics MCQ for NEET

Physics Thermodynamics MCQ for NEET PHY

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Physics Thermodynamics Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Physics Thermodynamics

1. Following is the diagram of the thermodynamic process. Refer the diagram and match the following
Physics Thermodynamics MCQ for NEET 1
P Process – I (a) Adiabatic
Q Process – II (b) Isobaric
R Process – III (c) Isochoric
S Process – IV (d) Isothermal
(a) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(b) (P,c), (Q,d), (R,b), (S,a)
(c) (P,a), (Q,c), (R,d), (S,b)
(d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)

Answer

Answer: (d) (P,c), (Q,a), (R,d), (S,b)


2. Which of the following process is used to do maximum work done on the ideal gas if the gas is compressed to half of its initial volume?
(a) Isothermal
(b) Isochoric
(c) Isobaric
(d) Adiabatic

Answer

Answer: (d) Adiabatic


3. ABCDA is a cyclic process explaining the thermodynamic process. What is the work done by the system in the cycle
Physics Thermodynamics MCQ for NEET 2
(a) Zero
(b) \(\frac{\rho_{0} V_{0}}{2}\)
(c) ρ0V0
(d) 2ρ0V0

Answer

Answer: (a) Zero


4. What is the ratio of \(\frac{C_{p}}{C_{v}}\) for gas if the pressure of the gas is proportional to the cube of its temperature and the process is an adiabatic process.
(a) 2
(b) 3/2
(c) 4/3
(d) 5/3

Answer

Answer: (b) 3/2


5. The coefficient performance of a refrigerator is 5. If the temperature inside the freezer is -20℃, calculate the heat rejected to the surrounding
(a) 11℃
(b) 41℃
(c) 21℃
(d) 31℃

Answer

Answer: (d) 31℃


6. A thermodynamic system is explained with the help of the graph ABCD. What is the heat rejected by the system during the cycle?
Physics Thermodynamics MCQ for NEET 3
(a) pV
(b) 2pV
(c) 4pV
(d) 1/2pV

Answer

Answer: (b) 2PV


7. Select the incorrect statement
(a) For the triple point of water, 1°K is equal to 1/273.16.
(b) The first law of thermodynamics is also known as the law of thermal equilibrium
(c) The triple point of water is one of the reference points on the thermodynamic scale of temperature
(d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found

Answer

Answer: (d) At room temperature, the heat of combustion is not found


8. What is a necessary condition for a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperatures?
(a) ΔH < ΔG
(b) ΔG and ΔH should be positive
(c) ΔH = ΔG = 0
(d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative

Answer

Answer: (d) ΔG and ΔH should be negative


9. A gas is compressed to half of its initial volume isothermally. The same gas is compressed again until the volume reduces to half through an adiabatic process. Then
(a) Work done during isothermal compression is more
(b) Work done is independent of the processes used for compression
(c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process
(d) Work done is dependent on the atomicity of the gas

Answer

Answer: (c) Work done is more during the adiabatic process


10. Select the factor that affects the heat of reaction which is based on Kirchoff’s equation
(a) Molecularity
(b) Temperature
(c) Pressure
(d) Volume

Answer

Answer: (b) Temperature


11. For all the reactions what is the nature of the chemical dissociation?
(a) Exothermic
(b) Reversible
(c) Endothermic
(d) Reversible and endothermic

Answer

Answer: (d) Reversible and endothermic


12. Which of the following is the largest unit of energy
(a) Electron volt
(b) Joule
(c) Calorie
(d) Erg

Answer

Answer: (c) Calorie


MCQ Questions for Class 6 Chemistry with Answers PDF Download

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Chemistry with Answers PDF Download

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Chemistry with Answers: Central Board of Secondary Education (CBSE) has declared a major change in the Class 6 exam pattern from 2020. Practicing & preparing each and every chapter covered in the CBSE Class 6 Science Syllabus is a necessary task to attempt the MCQs Section easily with full confidence in the board exam paper. Solving Class 6 Chemistry objective questions correctly requires a lot of critical & logical thinking. This can occur through our provided CBSE Board Class 6 Chemistry Objective Type Questions with Solutions for all chapters.

Cracking the Objective type questions needs a lot of hard work and practice. Here, we have given the quick links to avail the Chapterwise CBSE Chemistry MCQ Questions for Class 6 with Answers to ace up your preparation.

CBSE Class 6 Chemistry Objective Questions (MCQ) Chapterwise

We at NCERTBooks.guru guide students to prepare adequately for the tough Class 6 Chemistry MCQ Questions sections & let them help to score great marks in the Exams. Look at the below list of chapter wise CBSE MCQ Questions with Answers for Class 6 Chemistry & practice well.

Fibre to Fabric MCQ Questions

1. Consider the following statements about mixture:
(i) It is made up of pure substances.
(ii) It can be solid, liquid or gas.
(iii) Components do not retain their original properties.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) (i), (ii), (iii)
(b) (i) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (ii)
(d) (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A mixture is made up two or more substances. The pure substances which sire present in a mixture are called components of the mixture (or constituents of the mixture). The components of a mixture retain their original properties. So, a mixture shows the properties of all substances present in it. A mixture can be solid, liquid or gas. For example, soil is a solid mixture, milk is a liquid mixture whereas air is a gaseous mixture. In some cases we can easily see the different substances (or components) present in mixture.


2. Which of the following are correctly matched?
(i) Threshing _______ stalks are beaten to separate grains
(ii) Winnowing _______ method of separating husk from grains
(iii) Hand-picking _______ used to separate undesirable substances
(iv) Sieving _______ used to separate solid mixtures of same size
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i), (ii) and (iv)
(d) (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Threshing is the process in which stalks (of wheat, paddy, etc.) are beaten to separate grains from stalks, and the chaff that covers the grains. The method of separation is based on the fact that the ‘stalks’ of the crop plants and the ‘chaff are soft materials whereas the grains themselves are very hard. Winnowing is the method of separating husk from grains with the help of wind. This method is based on the fact that husk is very light whereas wheat grains are comparatively heavy. Hand-picking means to take out by hand. The method of hand-picking is used to separate those substances where one of the components is in small quantify. The method of hand-picking is used to separate undesirable substances such as small pieces of stones from wheat, rice and pulses. Sieving is used to separate those solid mixtures which have components of different sizes.


3. Consider the statements about saturated solutions :
(i) No more substance can be dissolved at given temperature.
(ii) Solubility of a substance refers to saturated solution.
(iii) It contains maximum amount of substance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iii)
(d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A given quantity of water can dtssolve only a certain maximum amount of a substance (at particular temperature). A solution in which no more substance can be dissolved at that temperature, is called a saturated substance. A saturated solution contains the maximum amount of substance which can be dissolved in it at a given temperature. The solubility of a substance refers to its saturated solution.


4. The process of distillation can be used to separate a certain type of a mixture into their constituents. This process consists of:
(a) Evaporation followed by filtration.
(b) Filtration followed by evaporation.
(c) Evaporation followed by condensation.
(d) Condensation followed by evaporation.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Distillation is the process of heating water to form water vapour, and then cooling water vapour (steam) to get back liquid water. The changing of water into water vapour on heating, is called evaporation (or boiling). And the changing back of hot water vapour (or steam) into liquid water on cooling, is called condensation. Thus distillation involves two processes: evaporation (or boiling) followed by condensation.


Changes Around Us MCQ Questions

1. Consider the following statements about reversible changes:
(i) It is a change which can be reversed to form original substance.
(ii) Change of state is a reversible change.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only (i)
(b) Only (ii)
(c) Both (i) and (ii)
(d) Neither (i) nor (ii)

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A change which can be reversed to form the original substance is called a reversible change. When ice changes into water, then there is a change from solid state to liquid state. And when water changes into steam, then there is a change from liquid state to gaseous state. So, in general we can say that: change of state is a reversible change.


2. Which of the following are irreversible changes?
1. Expansion on heating
2. Formation of curd
3. Grinding of wheat to form flour
4. Cooking of food
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 2, 1 and 4
(b) 2, 3, 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A change which cannot be reversed to form the original substance (or substances) is called an irreversible change. A very small quantity of curd is added to warm milk. It is kept aside for few hours. During this time, milk changes into curd. This curd cannot be changed back into milk by any means. So, it is a irreversible change. The flour cannot be converted back into wheat grains. So, the grinding of wheat to form flour is an irreversible change. The cooked food cannot be converted back into raw food materials. So, cooking is an irreversible change. The increase of size on heating is called expansion. It is called reversible change because when the hot object is cooled, it decreases in size and comes back to the original size.


Sorting Materials into Groups MCQ Questions

1. The advantage/s of classification is/are:
1. It easier to locate them.
2. It helps in understanding them.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
We classify the objects because it gives us the following advantages:
(i) The classification of objects into groups makes it easier to locate them and work with them.
(ii) The classification of objects into groups helps in understanding them. This is because if we know properties of one member of group, we can get an idea of the properties of the other members of the group.


2. Which of the following properties will be considered for the classification of the materials?
1. Hardness or softness
2. Solubility or insolubility
3. Transparency, translucency or opaqueness
4. Shape
5. Appearance
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1,2,3,4,5
(b) 1,3,4,5
(c) 1,2,4,5
(d) 1,2,3,4

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The classification of the various objects can be done on the basis of their similarities or dissimilarities. The materials are classified on the basis of property such as appearance, hardness, solubility, heaviness or lightness with respect to water transparency, translucency or opaqueness, use, colour, shape, size, texture, etc.


Acids, Bases and Salts MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Mineral acid _________ obtained from minerals
2. Natural acid _________ obtained from fruits and vegetables
3. Alkali _________ non-soluble bases,
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The word ‘acid’ is derived from the Latin word ‘acidus’ which means ‘sour’. The acids which occur in fruits and vegetables, etc. are called naturally-occurring acids. The naturally-occurring acids are weak acids. These acids are also called organic acids. The acids obtained from minerals are called mineral acids. Mineral acids are called inorganic acids. The bases which are soluble in water are called alkalis.


2. Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
1. Sour milk _________ lactic acid
2. Grapes _________ tartaric acid
3. Bee sting _________ maleic acid
4. Vinegar _________ acetic acid
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4
Answer : b
Explanation:

Name of acid Found in
Acetic acid Vinegar
Formic acid Ant’s sting
Citric acid Citrus fruits such as oranges, lemons, etc
Lactic acid Curd, sour milk
Oxalic acid Spinach
Ascorbic acid Amla, Citrus fruits (Vitamin C)
Tartaric acid Tamarind, grapes, unripe mangoes, etc.
Apples(green) Maleic acid
Answer

Answer: (b)


3. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Hydrochloric acid _________ extracting glue from bones
2. Nitric acid _________ Refining gold and silver
3. Sulphuric acid _________ textile indus try
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Some important uses of acid are:

  • Hydrochloric acid for cleaning tiles, toilets; for the preparation of chlorides and chlorine gas; for cleaning iron sheets before galvanization: for extracting glue from bones; In textile industry for dyeing.
  • Nitric acid for preparing fertilizers, explosives and drugs; in for refining of gold and silver.
  • Sulphuric acid for preparing fertilizers, detergents, plastics, synthetic fibres; in petroleum industry for refining; in cleaning metal surfaces before electroplating.

4. Which of the following is/are correct for indicators?
1. Litmus is extracted from lichen.
2. Turmeric is yellow in acidic solution.
3. China rose indicator is magenta in water. Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Special type of substances are used to test whether a substance is acidic or basic. These substances are known as indicators. The indicators change their colour when added to a solution containing an acidic or a basic substance. The most commonly used natural indicator is litmus. It is extracted from lichens. When added to . an acidic solution, it turns red and when added to a basic solution, it turns blue. Turmeric is yellow in neutral solutions, yellow in acidic solutions and red in basic solutions. China rose indicator in water is pink, magenta in acidic solution and green in basic solution.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for neutralisation reaction?
1. It is an endothermic reaction.
2. Its products are salt and water.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
When an acidic solution is mixed with a basic solution, both the solutions neutralise the effect of each other. When an acid solution and a base solution are mixed in suitable amounts, both the acidic nature of the acid and the basic nature of the base are destroyed. The resulting solution is neither acidic nor basic. The reaction between an acid and a base is known as neutralisation. Salt and water are produced in this process with the evolution of heat. Acid+Base-> Salt+Water (Heat is evolved). Heat is evolved; therefore, it is an exothermic reaction.


Physical and Chemical Changes MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Dissolution _________ solute gets dissolved in a solvent.
2. Exothermic _________ heat in absorbed.
3. Reversible change _________ reactants can be obtained.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Dissolution is a process by which any solute gets dissolved in a solvent. Exothermic reactions are those reactions during which heat is evolved. Endothermic reaction is that reaction during which heat is absorbed. The change which can be reversed by reversing the conditions is called reversible change. Example—glowing of a bulb.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for a physical change?
1. Only physical properties change.
2. Large amount of heat is absorbed or evolved.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Properties such as shape, size, colour and state of a substance are called its physical properties. A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its physical properties is called a physical change. A physical change is generally reversible. In such a change no new substance is formed. Physical changes are temporary and reversible. No or very small amount of energy is either absorbed or evolved during a physical change.


3. Which of the following is not a chemical change?
(a) Burning of a candle.
(b) Cooking a food.
(c) Sublimation.
(d) Germination of seeds.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A change in which one or more new substances are formed is called a chemical change. A chemical change is also called a chemical reaction. Chemical changes are very important in our lives. All new substances are formed as a result of chemical changes. For example, digestion of food in our body, ripening of fruits, fermentation of grapes, etc., happen due to series of chemical changes. A change in which a substance undergoes a change in its physical properties is called a physical change.. During sublimation, a solid substance when heated changes into vapour form, and the vapour on cooling gives back the substance in solid form.


4. Rusting of iron can be prevented by:
1. Painting
2. Galvanisation
3. Electrolytic refining
4. Alloying
Which of the above are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The process of rusting can be represented by the following equation: Iron (Fe) + Oxygen (02, from the air) + water (H2O) => rust (iron oxide Fe2O3 ) For rusting, the presence of both oxygen and water (or water vapour) is essential. In fact, if the content of moisture in air is high, which means if it is more humid, rusting becomes faster. This process of depositing a layer of zinc on iron is called galvanisation. The iron pipes we use in our homes to carry water are galvanised to prevent rusting, painting, greasing, oiling, tinning and cathodic protection can be used to prevent rusting of iron.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for crystallisation?
1. It is a physical change.
2. It is used to obtain pure substance.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The salt obtained in this manner is not pure and the shape of its crystals cannot be seen clearly. However, large crystals of pure substances can be formed from their solutions. Such a process is called crystallisation. It is an example of a physical change.


Weather Climate and Adaptations of Animals to Climate MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is/are correct for weather?
1. Its changes over a long period.
2. Temperature, humidity, rainfall are elements of weather.
3. Study of weather is called meteorology.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The short-time atmospheric conditions at a particular place and time with respect to temperature, relative humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc. is called the weather at that place. The temperature, humidity, rainfall, wind speed, etc. are called elements of weather. The science of the study of weather is called meteorology


2. Which of the following is/are benefits of weather forecasting?
1. It allows people to prepare for bad weather.
2. It helps in the planning of daily activities.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Weather forecast is based on the data collected by weather balloons,satellite, photographs of the cloud formation etc. Weather forecasting is helpful to people in the following ways:
1. It allows people to prepare for bad weather.
2. It helps in the planning of daily activities.


3. Which of the following is/are correct for climate?
1. Variations that occur on day-to-day basis.
2. It is the average weather condition.
3. Climate chart is annual record of average temperature and rainfall.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The records of the weather have been preserved for the past several decades. These help us to determine the weather pattern at a place. The average weather pattern taken over a long time, say 25 years, is called the climate of the place. The annual record of long term average temperature and rainfall at a particular place is called climate chart.


4. Which of the geographical factors affect climate?
1. Distance from sea.
2. Direction of prevailing wind
3. Mountains
4. Distance from equator.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 2, 3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The sea affects the climate. Coastal areas are cooler and wetter than the inland areas. Warm ocean currents make the climate warm and wet. The direction of the prevailing winds from the sea/ocean side bring rain to coastal areas and dry weather to inland areas. Mountains receive more rainfall than low lying areas because the temperature on top of mountains is lower than sea level. The distance from the equator affects the climate of a place. The equator receives the more sunlight than anywhere else on the earth.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for adaptation?
1. It is a tendency of an organism to develop certain features.
2. Permanent adaptation is inherited.
Which of the above statements is/Eire correct?
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Animals are adapted to survive m the conditions in which they live. Animals living in very cold and hot climate must possess special features to protect themselves against the extreme cold or heat. Adaption is of two types- permanent- has a genetic basis and it causes permanent changes in the individuals: temporary- is a short term adaptation and is not inherited.


6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Penguin _______ polar region.
2. Arboreal _______ animals live on tress.
3. Monkey _______ tropical forest
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The lion-tailed macaque (also called Beard ape) lives in the rainforests of Western Ghats. Its most outstanding feature is the silver-white mane, which surrounds the head from the cheeks down to its chin. Many animals are adapted to living on the trees (arboreal). Red-eyed frog has developed sticky pads on its feet to help it climb trees on which it lives. To help them live on the trees, monkeys have long tails for grasping branches.


Winds, Storms and Cyclones MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Troposphere _______ clouds, rain
2. Stratosphere _______ ozone layer.
3. Mesosphere _______ temperature increases with altitude.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The main layers of the atmosphere are: Troposphere—most of the atmospheric air is present in troposphere. Clouds, rain and snow are seen in troposphere.
Stratosphere- there is very little water vapour. Supersonic aircraft fly in this layer. Ozone layer lies in central zone of stratosphere. Thermosphere-temperature increases with altitude.


2. Which of the following is/are correct about atmospheric pressure?
1. Pressure exerted by air on the earth.
2. It creates winds.
3. It does not influence weather.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The pressure exerted by air at any point on the earth is called atmospheric pressure. Air pressure is important for the following reasons:

  1. It creates winds: when air moves, it becomes wind. The difference in atmospheric pressure gives rise to the wind system of the earth.
  2. It influences weather: changes in weather are related to changes in atmospheric pressure.
  3. Weather forecasting: changes in air pressure give important clues for forecasting weather.

3. Which of the following factors is/are not affected by speed and direction of wind?
(a) Location on the earth
(b) Revolution of earth
(c) Local conditions
(d) Height from ground

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Blowing or moving air is called wind. The speed of wind may vary from 5-10 km/h (gentle breeze) to 700-800 km/h (tornado). The speed and direction of wind is affected by the following factors : Location on the earth Rotation of the earth Local conditions Height from the ground


4. What is/are the conditions required for the formation of thunderstorm?
1. Moisture
2. Rapidly rising warm air
3. Sea breeze or mountains.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Thunderstorms develop in hot and humid tropical regions. Formation of a thunderstorm requires the following:

  • Moisture
  • Rapidly rising warm air
  • Sea breeze or mountains

The swift movement of the falling water along with rising warm air, producing sound, lightning, heavy rain, and strong wind is called thunderstorm.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for cyclones?
1. They are low-pressure systems with high speed winds.
2. The wind speed is anticlockwise in Southern Hemisphere.
3. Tropical cyclones are more powerful than temperate cyclones.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
A small low-pressure system with very high speed winds revolving around it is called cyclone. The high speed winds revolve in anti-clock-wise direction in Northern Hemisphere and in clockwise direction in the Southern Hemisphere. Factors like wind speed, wind direction, temperature and humidity contribute to the development of cyclones. The centre of a cyclone is a calm area. It is called the eye of the cyclone. Cyclones that develop in the tropical region are different from those in the temperate latitudes. In general, tropical cyclones are more powerful than temperate cyclones.


Synthetic Fibres and Plastics MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Polymer _______ long chain molecule
2. Synthetic fibre _______ man-made fibre
3. Nonbiodegradable _______ decompose to harm less substances.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Polymer-long chain-like molecule consisting of a large number of molecules joined to each other by chemical bonds.
Non biodegradable- substances which do not decompose to harmless substances by the action of air, water and bacteria.
Synthetic fibre- man-made fibres from simple, small molecules.


2. Which of the following is/are correct about polymers?
1. It is a long chain like unit consisting of a large number of smaller molecules.
2. Smaller molecules are monomers.
3. Polymers are natural.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A long chain-like unit consisting of a large number of smaller molecules joined to each other by chemical bonds is called a polymer. The smaller molecules which combine to form the chain of a polymer are called monomers. The polymers which occur in nature are called natural polymers. For example, cellulose, silk, wool, proteins, etc. are natural polymers. The polymers which are made in laboratories factories from small molecules are called man-made (or synthetic) polymers. For example, nylon, polythene, polyvinyl chloride, rayon and teflon are some synthetic polymers.


3. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Rayon used in textile industry.
2. Nylon used for making fishing nets.
3. Polyester used for manufacture of tyre cords.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Rayon is used—

  • in the textile industry for making fabrics;
  • in the manufacture of carpets;
  • for the manufacture of tyre cord;
  •  for making bandages and surgical dressings. Nylon is used—
  • for the manufacture of iyre cords, fabrics and ropes;
  • for making fishing nets and parachute ropes;
  • for fabricating sheets, bristles for brushes, for making sarees, socks, neckties;
  •  for making elastic hosiery;
  • for making machine parts.

Polyester is used-

  • for manufacturing sarees, dress materials, curtain cloth, etc.
  • for making blends with other fibres; eg. grylene with cotton gives terycot, with wool it gives teiywool. Clothes made from blends are more comfortable to wear.
  • for making sails for sail boats;
  •  for making water hoses for fire fighting;
  • for making conveyor belts.

4. Which of the following is/are correct of synthetic fibres?
1. They do not get wet.
2. They are not durable.
3. They are cheaper.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Some of the characteristic properties of synthetic fibres are :

  • Synthetic fibre does not get wet. So, the fabrics made from synthetic fibres dry up quickly.
  • Synthetic fibres cure durable i.e, fabrics made from synthetic fibres last long.
  • Synthetic fibres can be drawn to very fine thickness. So these are light-weight. As a result, the fabrics made from synthetic fibres are thin and hence light-weight.
  • Synthetic fibres are strong, have high tensile strength and are abrasion-resistant. As a result, the fabrics made from synthetic fibres are long lasting and easy to maintain.
  • Synthetic fibres are cheaper.

5. Which of the following statement is/are correct for thermoplastics?
1. They are long-chain polymer with cross-linking.
2. They can be processed repeatedly.
3. Polyethene, PVC are examples of thermoplastics.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation;
1. Thermoplastics are long chain polymers with
no cross-linking. Heating also does not produce any cross-linking between the chains
2. Thermoplastics can be processed repeatedly Example : Polythene, PVC, Polystyrene, Nylon, Polyesters, etc.


6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Polyethene _______ thermoplastic polymer.
2. Bakelite _______ thermosetting plastic
3. Melamine _______ thermosetting polymer.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Polythene (or polyethylene) is obtained from ethylene under high temperature, high pressure and in the presence of a catalyst. Polythene is a thermoplastic polymer. So, it can be moulded into any shape and any number of times. Bakelite is a thermosetting plastic. Once set into a shape, bakelite does not melt/soften and retains its shape. Bakelite is obtained by reacting phenol with formaldehyde in the presence of a catalyst Melamine is also a thermosetting polymer. It is hard and a high polish polymer. Melamine is used for making unbreakable dinner-ware, and decorative objects rative objects.


Metals and Non-metals MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Metals _______ lead, arsenic
2. Non-metals _______ carbon, sulphur
3. Metalloids _______ boron, silicon
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Metals: Iron, Copper, Gold, Silver, Aluminium, Zinc, Lead are some commonly used metals.
Non-metals: Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, Carbon, Sulphur, Phosphorus, Chlorine, Bromine, Iodine are commonly used non-metals
Metalloids: Boron, Silicon, Arsenic and Germanium are some metalloids.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for metals?
1. They are solids.
2. They have metallic lustre.
3. They are hard except sodium and gallium.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
1. Physical state: Under normal pressure, all metals except mercury are solid at room temperature. Mercury is liquid at room temperature.
2. Colour : Most metals except gold and copper are silvery grey in colour. Copper is reddish-brown and gold is golden yellow.
3. Appearance : All metals are shiny. The characteristic shine of metals is called metallic lustre. Thus, all metals have metallic lustre. Metals can be easily polished.
4. Hardness : Most metals are hard except sodium and potassium. Sodium and potassium metals can be easily cut with a knife. Osmium is hard enough to scratch glass.


3. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Graphite _______ good conductor
2. Caesium _______ high melting point
3. Diamond _______ hardest substance
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Graphite is the only non-metal which conducts heat and electricity. Caesium metal have low melting point that it melts even when kept on palm. Diamond is the hardest substance known on earth.


4. The reaction Zinc + copper sulphate solution’ zinc
sulphate solution + copper indicates that the metal which is placed lower in the reactivity series is :
(a) Zinc
(b) Copper
(c) Zinc (II) ion
(d) Copper (II) ion

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The reactivity series of metals is an arrangement of metals in vertical column in order of decreasing reactivity The reactivity series is also called activity series of metals. In the activity series, the most reactive metal is placed at the top whereas the least reactive metal is placed at the bottom. The more reactive metal has greater tendency to form compounds. So, such metals are found only in the form of their compounds. Less reactive metals such as silver, gold and platinum are found in the free state in the earth’s crust.
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Chemistry 1


5. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Sulphur _______ manufacture of gun powder
2. Phosphorus _______ manufacture of match sticks
3. Oxygen _______ supporter of combustion
4. Hydrogen _______ for sterilizing water
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Sulphur is used in manufacture of gun powder, sulphuric acid, in vulcanization of rubber. Phosphorus is used for the manufacture of match sticks, rat poison, phosphoric acid and fertilizers. Oxygen is supporter of combustion and used for respiration by living organisms. Hydrogen is used as a fuel, for manufacturing ammonia, hydrogen chloride, vegetable ghee by hydrogenation of oils. Chlorine is used for bleaching and sterilizing water.


Matter in our Surroundings MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of matter?
1. Particles of matter have space between them.
2. Particles of matter are stationaiy.
3. Particles of matter attract each other.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Characteristics of particles of matter:

  1. Particles of matter have space between them.
  2. Matter is made up of particles.
  3. Particles of matter are continuously moving.
  4. Particles of matter attract each other.

2. Which of the following is/are correct for effect of temperature?
1. The kinetic energy of the particles increases.
2. The energy supplied by heat overcomes the forces of attraction between the particles.
3. The minimum temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its boiling point.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
On increasing the temperature of solids, the kinetic energy of the particles increases. Due to the increase in kinetic energy, the particles start vibrating with greater speed. The energy supplied by heat overcomes the forces of attraction between the particles. The particles leave their fixed positions and start moving more freely. A stage is reached when the solid melts and is converted to a liquid. The minimum temperature at which a solid melts to become a liquid at the atmospheric pressure is called its melting point. The temperature at which a liquid starts boiling at the atmospheric pressure is known as its boiling point.


3. Which of the following is/are correct about latent heat?
1. The word latent means hidden.
2. The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1 kg. of a liquid into gas.
(a) Only 1
(b) only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The word latent means hidden. The amount of heat energy that is required to change 1 kg. of a solid into liquid at atmospheric pressure at its melting point is known as the latent heat of fusion. So, particles in water at 0°C (273 K) have more energy as compared to particles in ice at the same temperature.


4. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Sublimation _______ change from solid to gas.
2. Deposition solid _______ direct change of gas to
3. Pressure and reducing temperature _______ solidify gases.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A change of state directly from solid to gas without changing into liquid state is called sublimation and the direct change of gas to solid without changing into liquid is called deposition. Applying pressure and reducing temperature can liquefy gases, dry ice, etc. Thus, we can say that pressure and temperature determine the state of a substance, whether it will be solid, liquid or gas.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for evaporation?
1. Change of a liquid into vapours at any temperature below its boiling point.
2. Increase in temperature decreases evaporation.
3. Decrease in humidity increases evaporation,
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The phenomenon of change of a liquid into vapours at any temperature below its boiling point is called evaporation. The rate of evaporation increases with-

  • an increase of surface area: If the surface area is increased, the rate of evaporation increases.
  • an increase of temperature: With the increase of temperature, more number of particles get enough kinetic energy to go into the vapour state.
  • a decrease in humidity: Humidity is the amount of water vapour present in air. The air around us cannot hold more than a definite amount of water vapour at a given temperature. If the amount of water in air is al-ready high, the rate of evaporation decreases.
  • an increase in wind speed: It is a common observation that clothes dry faster on a windy day. With the increase in wind speed, the particles of water vapour move away with the wind, decreasing the amount of water vapour in the surrounding.

6. What is the correct order of force of attraction?
(a) Solids>gases > liquids
(b) Solids> liquids > gases
(c) Liquid> gases > solids
(d) Gases>liquids > solid

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Matter is made up of small particles. The matter around us exists in three states- solid, liquid and gas. The forces of attraction between the particles are maximum in solids, intermediate in liquids and minimum in gases. The space in between the constituent particles and kinetic energy of the particles are minimum in the case of solids, intermediate in liquids and maximum in gases.


Is Matter Around us Pure? MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is/are correct for mixtures?
1. Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter.
2. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot be separated into their components by physical methods.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Mixtures are constituted by more than one kind of pure form of matter. Alloys are mixtures of two or more metals or a metal and a non-metal and cannot be separated into their components by physical methods. But still, an alloy is considered as a mixture because it shows the properties of its constituents and can have variable composition. For example, brass is a mixture of approximately 30% zinc and 70% copper.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for solutions?
1. A solution is a heterogeneous mixture of two or more substances.
2. It can be solid solutions (alloys) and gaseous solutions (air).
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A solution is a homogeneous mixture of two or more substances. You come across various types of solutions in your daily life. Lemonade, soda water, etc. are all examples of solutions. Usually we think of a solution as a liquid that contains either a solid, liquid or a gas dissolved in it. But, we can also have solid solutions (alloys) and gaseous solutions (air). In a solution there is homogeneity at the particle level.


3. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Solvent _______ dissolves the substance.
2. Solute _______ component that is dissolved
3. Tincture of iodine _______ solution of iodine
in water.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A solution has a solvent and a solute as its components. The component of the solution that dissolves the other component in it (usually the component present in larger amount) is called the solvent. The component of the solution that is dissolved in the solvent (usually present in lesser quantity) is called the solute. A solution of iodine in alcohol known as ‘tincture of iodine’, has iodine (solid) as the solute and alcohol (liquid) as the solvent.


4. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of colloid?
1. A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.
2. Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light.
3. The particles of a colloid can be seen by the naked eye.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A colloid is a heterogeneous mixture.

  • The size of particles of a colloid is too small to be individually seen by naked eyes.
  • Colloids are big enough to scatter a beam of light passing through it and make its path visible.
  • They do not settle down when left undisturbed, that is, a colloid is quite stable.

5. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Dispersed phase _______ dispersed particles.
2. Dispersion medium _______ dispersed phase is suspended.
3. Aerosol _______ fog.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
The components of a colloidal solution are the dispersed phase and the dispersion medium. The solute-like component or the dispersed particles in a colloid form the dispersed phase, and the component in which the dispersed phase is suspended is known as the dispersing medium. Examples of Aerosol : fog, clouds, mist.


6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Coloured dye from black ink _______ evaporation.
2. Cream from milk _______ filtration.
3. Oil and water _______ separating funnel.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Ink is a mixture of a dye in water. Thus, we can separate the volatile component (solvent) from its non-volatile solute by the method of evaporation. Cream from milk is separated by centrifugation. The principle is that the denser particles are forced to the bottom and the lighter particles stay at the top when spun rapidly. The principle is that immiscible liquids separate out in layers depending on their densities using separating funnel.


7. Which of the following is/are correct about elements?
1. Elements can be normally divided into metals, non-metals and metalloids.
2. Antoine Laurent Lavoisie was the first scientist to use the term ‘element’ in 1661.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Robert Boyle was the first scientist to use the term element in 1661. Antoine Laurent Lavoisier (1743-94), a French chemist, was the first to establish an experimentally useful definition of an ‘element’. He defined an ‘element’ as a basic form of matter that cannot be broken down into simpler substances by chemical reactions. Elements can be normally divided into metals, non-metals and metalloids.


8. Which of the following is/are correct for com’ pounds?
1. It is a substance composed of two or more elements.
2. The composition of each new substance is always fixed.
3. It shows the properties of the constituent substances.
Which of the above statements are correct?
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
1. Elements react to form new compounds,
2. The composition of each new substance is al’ ways fixed.
3. The new substance has totally different con; stituent substances and properties.
4. The constituents can be separated only by chemical or electrochemical reactions.


Atoms and Molecules MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is/are true for Dalton atomic theory?
1. All matter is made up of very tiny particles called atoms.
2. Atoms do not participate in chemical reactions.
3. Atoms are indivisible particles.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
According to Dalton’s atomic theory, all matter, whether an element, a compound or a mixture is | composed of small particles called atoms. The postulates of this theory may be stated as follows:
(i) All matter is made up of very tiny particles , called atoms, which participate in chemical reactions.
(ii) Atoms are indivisible particles, which can not be created or destroyed in a chemical reaction.
(iii) Atoms of a given element are identical in mass and chemical properties.
(iv) Atoms of different elements have different masses and chemical properties.
(v) Atoms combine in the ratio of small whole numbers to form compounds.
(vi) The relative number and kinds of atoms are constant in a given compound.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for law of constant proportion?
1. It was given and stated by Lavoisier.
2. In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Lavoisier, along with other scientists, noted that many compounds were composed of two or more elements and each such compound had the same elements in the same proportions, irrespective of where the compound came from or who prepared it. This law was stated by Proust as “In a chemical substance the elements are always present in definite proportions by mass”.


3. Which of the following is/are correct for atomic mass?
1. It was proposed by Bohr.
2. It was explained by law of constant proportions.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The most remarkable concept that Dalton’s atomic theoiy proposed was that of the atomic mass. According to him, each element had a characteristic atomic mass. The theory could explain the law of constant proportions so well that scientists were prompted to measure the atomic mass of an atom.


4. Which of the following is/are correct for molecules?
1. It is a group of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded together.
2. Atoms of only the same element join to form molecules.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A molecule is, in general, a group of two or more atoms that are chemically bonded together, that is, tightly held together by attractive forces. A molecule can be defined as the smallest particle of an element or a compound that is capable of an independent existence and shows all the properties of that substance. Atoms of the same element or of different elements can join together to form molecules.


5. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Argon- monoatomic
2. Phosphorus  polyatomic
3. Chlorine-diatomic
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

Type of Element Non-Metal Name Atomicity
Non-Metal Argon Monoatomic
Helium Monoatomic
Oxygen Diatomic
Hydrogen Diatomic
Nitrogen Diatomic
Chlorine Diatomic
Phosphorus Tetra-atomic
Sulphur Poly-atomic

6. Which of the following is/are correct for ions?
1. The charged species are known as ions.
2. A negatively charged ion is called an cation
3. A group of atoms carrying a charge is known as a polyatomic ion.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Compounds composed of metals and non-metals contain charged species. The charged species are known as ions. Ions may consist of a single charged atom or a group of atoms that have a net charge on them. An ion can be negatively or positively charged. A negatively charged ion is called an ‘anion’ and the positively charged ion, a ‘cation’. A group of atoms carrying a charge is known as a polyatomic ion.


Structure of an Atom MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Electron _______ J.J Thomson
2. Proton _______ Dalton.
3. Neutron _______James Chadwick
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
It was known by 1900 that the atom was indivisible particle but contained at least one subatomic particle – the electron identified by J.J. Thomson. Even before the electron was identified, E. Goldstein in 1886 discovered the presence of new radiations in a gas discharge and called them canal rays. James Chadwick discovered neutron.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for Thomson model of an atom?
1. An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
2. The negative and positive charges are unequal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Thomson proposed that:
(i) An atom consists of a positively charged sphere and the electrons are embedded in it.
(ii) The negative and positive charges are equal in magnitude. So, the atom as a whole is electrically neutral. Although Thomson’s model explained that atoms are electrically neutral.


3. Which of the following is/are correct for observation of Rutherford experiment?
1. Most of the fast moving a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
2. Some of the a-particles are deflected by the foil by small angles.
3. Surprisingly one out of every 1200 particles appear to rebound.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
In the experiment, fast moving alpha (α)-particles were made to fall on a thin gold foil.

  • He selected a gold foil because he wanted as thin a layer as possible. This gold foil was about 1000 atoms thick.
  • α-particles are doubly-charged helium ions. Since they have a mass of 4 u, the fast-moving α-particles have a considerable amount of energy.
  • It was expected that α-particles would be deflected by the sub-atomic particles in the gold atoms. Since the α-particles were much heavier than the protons, he did not expect to see large deflections.

The following observations were made:
(i) Most of the fast moving a-particles passed straight through the gold foil.
(ii) Some of the a-particles were deflected by the foil by small angles.
(iii) Surprisingly one out of every 12000 particles appeared to rebound.


4. Which of the following is/are true for electron distribution in shells?
1. It was suggested by Bohr.
2. The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.
3. The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula 2n(square).
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The distribution of electrons into different orbits of an atom was suggested by Bohr and Bury. The following rules are followed for writing the number of electrons in different energy levels or shells:
(i) The maximum number of electrons present in a shell is given by the formula (2n)2 , where ‘n’ is the orbit number or energy level index.
(ii) The maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the outermost orbit is 8.
(iii) Electrons are not accommodated in a given shell, unless the inner shells are filled. That is, the shells are filled in a step wise manner.


5. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Element Valency
1. Neon zero
2. Nitrogen five
3. Phosphorus three decimal five
4. Potassium one

(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

Element Atomic number Valency
Hydrogen 1 1
Helium 2 0
Lithium 3 1
Beryllium 4 2
Boron 5 3
Carbon 6 4
Nitrogen 7 3
Oxygen 8 2
Fluorine 9 1
Neon 10 0
Sodium 11 2
Magnesium 12 3
Aluminium 13 3
Silicon 14 4
Phosphorus 15 3.5
Sulphur 16 2
Chlorine 17 1
Argon 18 0
Potassium 19 1
Calcium 20 2

6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Mass number _______ denoted by M
2. Atomic number _______ denoted by z
3. Isotopes _______ same atomic number
4. Isobar _______ same atomic mass
(a) 1 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 1,2 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Atomic number is the number of protons of an atom, which determines its atomic number. It is denoted by ‘Z’. the atomic number is defined as the total number of protons present in the nucleus of an atom, the mass of an atom resides in its nucleus. The mass number is defined as the sum of the total number of protons and neutrons present in the nucleus of an atom. It is denoted by A’. Isotopes are defined as the atoms of the same element, having the same atomic number but different mass numbers. Atoms of different elements with different atomic numbers, which have the same mass number, are known as isobars.


Chemical Equations and Reactions MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are the observations of the chemical reaction?
1. Change in state
2. Evolution of a gas
3. Change in colour
4. Change in temperature
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation :
We can say that any of the following observations helps us to determine whether a chemical reaction has taken place or not :

  1. Change in state
  2. Change in colour
  3. Evolution of a gas
  4. Change in temperature.

As we observe the changes around us, we can see that there are many chemical reactions taking


2. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Reactant _______ substance which undergoes change
2. Product _______ new substance
3. Chemical reaction _______ simplest form
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The description of a chemical reaction in a sentence form is quite long. It can be written in a shorter form. The simplest way to do this is to write it in the form of a word equation. The substances that undergo chemical change in the reaction are the reactants. The new substance is formed during the reaction, is a product.


3. Which of the following is/are correct for a balanced chemical equation?
1. It is based on law of conservation of mass.
2. The physical state makes the chemical reaction less informative.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The law of conservation of mass states that mass can neither be created nor destroyed in a chemical reaction. That is, the total mass of the elements present in the products of a chemical reaction has to be equal to the total mass of the elements present in the reactants. In other words, the number of atoms of each element remains the same, before and after a chemical reaction. To make a chemical equation more informative, the physical states of the reactants and products are mentioned along with their chemical formulae. The gaseous, liquid, aqueous and solid states of reactants and products are represented by the notations.


4. Which of the following are correctly matched?

Symbol state
1. aq soluble in alcohol
2. 1 liquid
3. S solid

(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
To make a chemical equation more informative, the physical state of the reactants and products are mentioned along with their chemical formulae. The gaseous, liquid, aqueous and solid states of reactants and products are represented by the notations (g), (1), (aq) and (s), respectively. The word aqueous (aq) is written if the reactant or product is present as a solution in water.


5. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Combination reaction _______ formation of single product
2. Decomposition reaction _______ break down of single entity
3. Thermal decomposition heat is used
4. Displacement reaction _______ based on reactivity series
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 1,2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
A reaction in which a single product is formed from two or more reactants is known as a combination reaction. A large amount of heat is evolved. This makes the reaction mixture warm. Reactions in which heat is released along with the formation of products are called exothermic chemical reactions. When a single reactant breaks down to give simpler products, it is a decomposition reaction. When a decomposition reaction is carried out by heating, it is called thermal decomposition. In displacement reaction, the higher reactive metal displaces the less reactive metal.


6. Which of the statements about the reaction below are incorrect?
2PbO(s) + C(s) → 2Pb(s) + CO2(g)
1. Lead is getting reduced.
2. Carbon dioxide is getting oxidised.
3. Carbon is getting oxidised.
4. Lead oxide is getting reduced.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Reactions also involve the gain or loss of oxygen or hydrogen by substances. Oxidation is the gain of oxygen or loss of hydrogen. Reduction is the loss of oxygen or gain of hydrogen. Lead is losing oxygen, it is getting reduced. Carbon is gaining oxygen: it is getting oxidised.


Acids, Bases and Salts MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct for litmus?
1. Litmus solution is a purple dye.
2. It is extracted from lichen.
3. In neutral solution, it remains colourless.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3
Answer: a

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Litmus solution is a purple dye, which is extracted from lichen, a plant belonging to the division Thallophyta, and is commonly used as an indicator. When the litmus solution is neither acidic nor basic, its colour is purple.


2. Which of the following is/are correct for olfactory indicators?
1. Their colour changes with acid or base.
2. Onion, vanilla or clove are examples.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
There are some substances whose odour changes in acidic or basic media. These are called olfactory indicators. Olfactory indicators can be used in the laboratory to test whether a solution is abase or an acid, a process called olfactory titration. Onion, clove oil and vanilla extract are examples of olfactory indicators.


3. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Acid + salt _______ metal+ hydrogen
2. Acid+ metal carbonate _______ salt+carbon dioxlde+ water
3. Metal oxide+acid _______ salt + water
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The metal displaces hydrogen atoms from the adds as hydrogen gas and forms a compound called a salt. Thus, the reaction of a metal with an acid can be summarised as – Acid + Metal → Salt + Hydrogen gas. All metal carbonates and hydrogen carbonates react with acids to give a corre-sponding salt, carbon dioxide and water. Thus, the reaction can be summarised as-
Metal carbonate/Metal hydrogen carbonate + Acid → Salt + Carbon dioxide + Water
The general reaction between a metal oxide and an acid can be written as – Metal oxide + Acid → Salt + Water.


4. Which of the following is/are correct for diluting acid?
1. Adding acid to water by stirring.
2. Adding water to add by stirring
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The process of dissolving an acid or a base in water is a highly exothermic one. The acid must always be added slowly to water with constant, stirring. If water is added to a concentrated acid, the heat generated may cause the mixture to splash out and cause bums.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for pH?
1. A scale for measuring hydronium ion concentration.
2. Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an acidic solution.
3. As the pH value increases from 7 to 14, it represents an increase in hydrogen ion concentration in the solution.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
A scale for measuring hydrogen ion concentration in a solution, called pH scale has been developed. The p in pH stands for ‘potenz’ in German, meaning power. On the pH scale we can measure pH generally from 0 (very acidic) to 14 (very alkaline). pH should be thought of simply as a number which indicates the acidic or basic nature of a solution. Higher the hydronium ion concentration, lower is the pH value. The pH of a neutral solution is 7. Values less than 7 on the pH scale represent an acidic solution. As the pH value increases from 7 to 14, it represents an increase in OH- ion concentration in the solution, that is, increase in the strength of alkali.


6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Plants and animals _______ pH range is 7.0 to 7.8
2. Rain water _______ pH is 7.6
3. Tooth decay _______ pH less than 5.5
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Our body works within the pH range of 7.0 to 7.8. Living organisms can survive only in a narrow range of pH change. When pH of rain water is less than 5.6, it is called acid rain. When acid rain flows into the rivers, it lowers the pH of the river water. The survival of aquatic life in such rivers becomes difficult. Tooth decay starts when the pH of the mouth is lower than 5.5. Tooth enamel, made up of calcium hydroxyapatite (a crystalline form of calcium phosphate) is the hardest substance in the body. It does not dissolve in water, but is corroded when the pH in the mouth is below 5.5. Bacteria present in the mouth produce acids by degradation of sugar and food particles remaining in the mouth after eating.


7. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Common salt _______ formed by sodium hydroxide and hydrochloric acid.
2. Brine _______ aqueous solution of sodium chloride
3. Chlor-alkali process _______ formation of sodium chloride
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The salt formed by the combination of hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide solution is called sodium chloride. When electricity is passed through an aqueous solution of sodium chloride (called brine), it decomposes to form sodium hydroxide. The process is called the chlor-alkali process because of the products formed- chlor for chlorine and alkali for sodium hydroxide.


8. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Bleaching powder _______ oxidising agent in chemical industries.
2. Baking powder _______ a mixture of sodium hydrogen carbonate and a mild edible acid.
3. Washing soda remove permanent hardness of water.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Uses of washing soda (i) Sodium carbonate (washing soda) is used in glass, soap and paper industries, (ii) It is used in the manufacture of sodium compounds such as borax, (iii) Sodium carbonate can be used as a cleaning agent for domestic purposes, (iv) It is used for removing permanent hardness of water. For making baking powder, which is a mixture of baking soda (sodium hydrogen carbonate) and a mild edible acid such as tartaric acid. Bleaching powder is used – (i) for bleaching cotton and linen in the textile industry, for bleaching wood pulp in paper factories and for bleaching washed clothes in laundry; (ii) as an oxidising agent in many chemical industries; and (iii) to make drinking water free from germs.


Metals and Non-metals MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Ductility _______ drawn into wire
2. Malleability _______ drawn into sheets
3. Good conductors _______ copper and mercury
4. Non-metals solids or gases
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1,2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The ability of metals to be drawn into thin wires is called ductility. Gold is the most ductile metal. Metals are good conductors of heat and have high melting points. The best conductors of heat are silver and copper. Lead and mercury are comparatively poor conductors of heat. The non-metals are either solids or gases except bromine which is a liquid. The ability of metals to be drawn into . sheets is called malleability.


2. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Mercury _______ liquid at room temperature
2. Iodine _______ non-lustrous
3. Lithium _______ low melting point
4. Graphite _______ good conductor
(a) 1, 2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1, 3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
All metals except mercury exist as solids at room temperature. Iodine is a non-metal but it is lustrous. Carbon is a non-metal that can exist in different forms. Each form is called an allotrope. Diamond, an allotrope of carbon, is the hardest atural substance known and has a very high melting and boiling point. Graphite, another al- lotrope of carbon, is a conductor of electricity. Alkali metals (lithium, sodium, potassium) are so soft that they can be cut with a knife. They have low densities and low melting points.


3. Which of the following statements is/are correct for metals?
1. They react with oxygen to form metal oxides.
2. All metallic oxides are basic in nature.
3. Metals are’ reducing agents.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Metal react with oxygen to form metal oxide. Metallic oxides are mostly basic. Metals lose electrons to form positive ions. Metals are good reducing agents. More reactive metals can displace less reactive metals from its salt solution.


4. Which of the following statements is/are correct for anodising?
1. It is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of aluminium.
2. The aluminium oxide coat makes it resistant to further corrosion.
3. It is electrolysed with dilute hydrochloric acid,
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Anodising is a process of forming a thick oxide layer of aluminium. Aluminium develops a thin oxide layer when exposed to air. This aluminium oxide coat makes it resistant to further corrosion. The resistance can be improved further by making the oxide layer thicker. During anodising, a clean aluminium article is made the anode and is electrolysed with dilute sulphuric acid. The oxygen gas evolved at the anode reacts with aluminium to make a thicker protective oxide layer. This oxide layer can be dyed easily to give aluminium articles an attractive finish.


5. Which of the following metals do/does not react with cold water?
1. Potassium
2. Sodium
3. Magnesium
4. Aluminium
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 2 and 4
(d) 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Metals react with water and produce a metal oxide and hydrogen gas. Metal oxides that are soluble in water dissolve in it to further form metal hydroxide. Metals like potassium and sodium react violently with cold water. In case of sodium and potassium, the reaction is so violent and exothermic that the evolved hydrogen immediately catches fire. Magnesium does not react with cold water. It reacts with hot water to form magnesium hydroxide and hydrogen. Metals like aluminium, iron and zinc do not react either with cold or hot water. But, they react with steam to form the metal oxide and hydrogen.


6. Which of the following statements is/are correct for aqua regia?
1. It is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid.
2. Hydrochloric acid and nitric acid are in ratio 2:1
3. It can dissolve gold.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) land 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Aqua regia, (Latin for ‘royal water’) is a freshly prepared mixture of concentrated hydrochloric acid and concentrated nitric acid in the ratio of 3:1. It can dissolve gold, even though neither of these acids can do so alone. Aqua regia is a highly corrosive, fuming liquid. It is one of the few re-agents that is able to dissolve gold and platinum.


7. What is/are true for ionic compounds?
1. They are solids.
2. They have low melting and boiling points.
3. They are soluble in water.
4. They are good conductors of electricity.
(a) 1,2 and 3
(b) 1, 2 and 4
(c) 1,3 and 4
(d) 2, 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The following general properties for ionic compounds-
(i) Physical nature: Ionic compounds are solids and are somewhat hard because of the strong force of attraction between the positive and negative ions. These compounds are generally brittle and break into pieces when pressure is applied.
(ii) Melting and Boiling points: Ionic compounds have high melting and boiling points (see Table 3.4). This is because a considerable amount of energy is required to break the strong inter-ionic attraction.
(iii) Solubility: Electrovalent compounds are generally soluble in water and insoluble in solvents such as kerosene, petrol, etc.
(iv) Conduction of Electricity: The conduction of electricity through a solution involves the movement of charged particles.


8. Which of the following Eire correctly matched for metals?
1. High reactivity _______ electrolysis of molten ore
2. Medium reactivity _______ roasting
3. High reactivity _______ calcination
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3
Answer : c
Explanation:
MCQ Questions for Class 6 Chemistry 2

Answer

Answer: (b)


Carbon and its Compounds MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following is correct order of melting points?
(a) Methane > choloroform > ethanol > acetic acid
(b) Methane > acetic acid > ethanol > choloroform
(c) Acetic acid > choloroform > ethanol > methane
(d) Choloroform > ethanol > methane> acetic acid

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Melting points and boiling points of some compounds of carbon :
Compound Melting point (K) Boiling point (K)
Acetic acid (CH3 COOH) 290 391
Chloroform (CHC13) 209 334
Ethanolji(CH3CH20H) 156 351
Methane (CH4) 90 111


2. Which of the following is/are the characteristics of parbon for the formation of large number of organic compounds?
1. Catenation
2. Tetravalency
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
Carbon has the unique ability to form bonds with other atoms of carbon, giving rise to large molecules. This property is called catenation. These compounds may have long chains of carbon, branched chains of carbon or even carbon atoms arranged in rings. Since carbon has a valency of four, it is capable of bonding with four other atoms of carbon or atoms of some other monovalent element. Compounds of carbon are formed with oxygen, hydrogen, nitrogen, sulphur, chlorine and many other elements giving rise to compounds with specific properties which depend on the elements other than carbon present in the molecule.


3. Which of the following is/are correct for allotropes of carbon?
1. They are two in number.
2. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms.
3. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal array.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
The element carbon occurs in different forms in nature with widely varying physical properties. Both diamond and graphite are formed by carbon atoms, the difference lies in the manner in which the carbon atoms are bonded to one another. In diamond, each carbon atom is bonded to four other carbon atoms forming a rigid threedimensional structure. In graphite, each carbon atom is bonded to three other carbon atoms in the same plane giving a hexagonal array. Fullerenes form another class of carbon allot- ropes. The first one to be identified was C-60 which has carbon atoms arranged in the shape of a football.


4. Which of the following statements is/are correct for saturated compounds?
1. They are called alkanes.
2. They are single bonded.
3. They are very reactive.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 1 and 3
(c) 2 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
The valencies of all the atoms are satisfied by single bonds between them. Such carbon compounds are called saturated compounds. These compounds are normally not very reactive.


5. Which of the following is/are correct for homologous series?
1. The melting point increases as we go down in a series.
2. It is a series with different functional groups,
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2
(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
A homologous series is a series of compounds with the same functional group and similar chemical properties in which the members of the series can be branched or unbranched. As the molecular mass increases in any homologous series, a gradation in physical properties is seen. This is because the melting and boiling points increase with increasing molecular mass. Other physical properties such as solubility in a particular solvent also show a similar gradation. But the chemical properties, which are determined solely by the functional group, remain similar in a homologous series.


6. Which of the following are correctly matched?
1. Alkaline potassium permanganate _______ reducing agent
2. Addition reaction _______ hydrogenation of vegetable oil
3. Concentrated sulphuric acid _______ dehydrating agent.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1, 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
Alkaline potassium permanganate or acidified potassium dichromate are oxidising alcohols to acids, that is, adding oxygen to the starting material. Hence, they are known as oxidising agents. Addition reaction is commonly used in the hydrogenation of vegetable oils using a nickel catalyst. Vegetable oils generally have long unsaturated carbon chains while animal fats have saturated carbon chains. The concentrated sulphuric acid can be regarded as a dehydrating agent which removes water from ethanol.


7. Which of the following is/are true for ethanol?
1. Ethanol is an important industrial solvent.
2. Dyes added to alcohol is called as denatured alcohol.
3. It can be used as a fuel.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:
Ethanol is an important industrial solvent. To prevent the misuse of ethanol produced for industrial use, it is made unfit for drinking by add ing poisonous substances like methanol to it. Dyes are also added to colour the alcohol blue so that it can be identified easily. This is called denatured alcohol. Sugarcane juice can be used to prepare molasses which is fermented to give al-cohol (ethanol). Some countries now use alco hoi as an additive in petrol since it is a cleaner fuel which gives rise to only carbon dioxide and water on burning in sufficient air (oxygen).


Periodic Classification of Elements MCQ Questions

1. Which of the following statements is/are correct for dobereiner triads?
1. It was given in the year 1816.
2. It was a group of three elements.
3. When the three elements in a triad were written in the order of increasing atomic masses; the atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the average of the atomic masses of the other two elements.
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 1 and 3
(d) 1,2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:
In the year 1817, Johann Wolfgang Dobereiner, a German chemist, tried to arrange the elements with similar properties into groups. He identi- fled some groups having three elements each. So he called these groups triads’. Dobereiner showed that when the three elements in a triad were written in the order of increasing atomic masses; the atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the average of the atomic masses of the other two elements.


2. Which of the following statements is/are true for law of octaves.
1. It was applicable upto potassium.
2. Assumption was only 56 elements will exist.
3. It was given by John Newlands.
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 3
(c) 1 and 2
(d) 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
In 1866, John Newlands, an English scientist, arranged the then known elements in the order of increasing atomic masses. He started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended at thorium which was the 56th element. He found that every eighth element had properties similar to that of the first. He compared this to the octaves found in music. It was found that the Law of Octaves was applicable only upto calcium, as after calcium every eighth element did not possess properties similar to that of the first. It was assumed by Newlands that only 56 elements existed in nature and no more elements would be discovered in the future.


3. Which of the following is not based on atomic mass?
1. Dobereiner triads
2. Newlands’ law of octaves
3. Mendeleev classification
4. Modem periodic table
(a) Only 1
(b) Only 2
(c) Only 3
(d) Only 4

Answer

Answer: (d)
Explanation:
Dobereiner showed that when the three elements in a triad were written in the order of increasing atomic masses; the atomic mass of the middle element was roughly the average of the atomic masses of the other two elements. In 1866, John Newlands, an English scientist, arranged the then known elements in the order of increasing atomic masses. He started with the element having the lowest atomic mass (hydrogen) and ended at thorium which was the 56th element. When Mendeleev started his work, 63 elements were known. He examined the relationship between the atomic masses of the elements and their physical and chemical properties. Mendeleev’s Periodic Law was modified and atomic number was adopted as the basis of Modem Periodic Table and the Modem Periodic Law can be stated as follows: ‘Properties of elements are a periodic function of their atomic number.


4. Which of the following statements is not a correct statement about the trends when going from left to right across the periods of periodic table.
(a) The elements become less metallic in nature.
(b) The number of valence electrons increases.
(c) The atoms lose their electrons more easily.
(d) The oxides become more acidic.

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:
The valency of an element is determined by the number of valence electrons present in the outermost shell of its atom. As the atomic number increases from left to right in a period, therefore valence electrons also increases. The atomic radius decreases in moving from left to right along a period. This is due to an increase in nuclear charge which tends to pull the electrons closer to the nucleus and reduces the.size of the atom. Therefore, it becomes difficult to lose electrons. Hence, metallic character decreases across a pe-riod. Non-metals are found on the right-hand side of the Periodic Table towards the top. These trends also help us to predict the nature of oxides formed by the elements because it is known to you that the oxides of metals are basic and that of nonmetals are acidic in general.


Practice MCQ Questions on British Rule in India | MCQ on Impact of British Rule in India

MCQ Questions on British Rule in India

Aspirants who are preparing for competitive exams are advised to learn about the impact of British Rule in India. Avail Multiple Choice Question and Answers related to British Rule in India to test your preparation standards. In fact, you can assess your knowledge and then cross check whether you went wrong or not with our answers provided under each and every question. Use the British Rule in India Quiz Questions for any assistance needed on the topic.

British Rule in India History Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Who was the first Governor General of India?
A. Warren Hastings
B. William Bentick
C. Lord Delhousie
D. Lord Canning

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785. The first governor-general in India (of Bengal) was Warren Hastings, the first official governor-general of British India was Lord William Bentinck, and the first governor-general of the Dominion of India was Lord Mountbatten.


2. Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
A. Robert Clive
B. William Bentinck
C. Warren Hasting
D. Col. Sanders

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Warren Hastings is the first British Governor General of Bengal. He took the charge as a Governor General on 20th October,1773.


3. The first Viceroy of India was
A. Lord Canning
B. Lord Hardinge
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Elgin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The title of Viceroy was created in 1858 after the mutiny of 1857. Before 1858, East India Company was ruling large parts of India and the head of administration of the East India Company was called Governor General.


4. After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in
A. Tea Plantations
B. The Railways
C. Coal Mining
D. Jute Mills

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in the railways.


5. The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was
A. Lord Irwin
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Linlithgow

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was Lord Dalhousie.


6. Which Government of India Act/charter Act generated the post of Governor-General of India?
A. Government of India Act -1858
B. Charter Act-1833
C. Charter Act-1853
D. Charter Act-1813

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. It deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. For the first time, the Governor-General’s Government was known as the ‘Government of India’ and his council as the ‘India Council’ in 1858.


7. The title of ‘Viceroy’ was added to the centre of the Governor-General of India for the first time in
A. 1848
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into “Governor-General of India.” The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


8. The Governor of the East India Company was
A. Appointed by the monarch of England
B. Appointed by the British Parliament
C. Elected by the members of the East India Company
D. Nominated by the Mughal Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Governor of the East India Company was Elected by the members of the East India Company itself.


9. The first constitutional measure introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was
A. the Act of 1919
B. the Act of 1935
C. Indian Independence Bill
D. Cabinet Mission Plan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first constitutional measure Introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was the Act of 1935.


10. Which of the following Act, ensured the establishment of the supreme court in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional development of India. Via this act, the British Parliament for the first time interfered into affairs of India.


11. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Linlithgow
D. Lord Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Lord Linlithgow (1936 – 1944) was the viceroy of India during Quit India Movement. The Quit India Movement (also known as the August Movement) was a civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8,1942 in Mumbai for complete independence


12. Sir Thomas Roe came to India with a letter from the British Monarch
A. Queen Mary
B. Queen Elizabeth
C. James I
D. Queen Anne

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : This event also started the process of transforming the British East India Company from a group of merchants, to an organization with military force. In 1614, King James I of England sent a diplomat, Sir Thomas Roe, to visit the Mughal emperor, Jahangir, and negotiate a trade treaty.


13. Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by __________
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Sir John Shore
C. Robert Clive
D. Lord Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India. According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army.


14. The policy of Doctrine of lapse was introduced by __________
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord William Bentinck
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The doctrine of lapse was an annexation policy applied by the British East India Company in India until 1858. The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.


15. Assertion (A): On 25th April, 1809, the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between Ranjit Singh and East India Company.,Reason (R): Ranjit Singh wanted to increase the realm of his empire with the help of the company
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Treaty of Amritsar (1809) The Treaty of Amritsar of 1809 was an agreement between the British East India Company and Ranjit Singh, the Sikh leader who founded the Sikh empire.


16. Which of the following British official associated with the local self-government?
A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Northbrook
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.


17. Year of the Battle of Wandiwash is __________
A. 1560
B. 1660
C. 1760
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Battle of Wandiwash, (Jan. 22, 1760), in the history of India, a confrontation between the French, under the comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote. It was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years War (1756–63).


18. The Charter for the establishment of the East India Company was granted by
A. Queen Elizabeth I
B. Queen Anbolin
C. Queen Mary
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter granted to the East India Company. Queen Elizabeth I of England grants a formal charter to the London merchants trading to the East Indies, hoping to break the Dutch monopoly of the spice trade in what is now Indonesia.


19. By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of __________ to the East India Company
A. Rs 480000
B. Rs 400000
C. Rs 500000
D. Rs 300000

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of Rs 400,000 to the East India Company.


20. Assertion (A): In some places artisans and craftsmen participated in the Revolt of 1857. ,Reason (R): The British policy of ‘one-way’ free trade destroyed village industries and handicrafts in India
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Artisans and craftsmen were ruined by the large-scale influx of cheap British.


21. When the East India Company was formed, the Mughal emperor in India was
A. Jahangir
B. Humayun
C. Aurangzeb
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The East India Company was incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600. It was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar (1556-1605).


22. The British India Society was formed in __________
A. 1832
B. 1833
C. 1839
D. 1874

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The British India Society (1839): Founded in London with the efforts of William Adam, one of the friends of Raja Ram Mohan Roy. He along with George Thompson, William Ednis, and Major General Briggs organised meetings and enlightened people about the miserable conditions in India.


23. When the Congress Ministries were formed in the provinces in June 1937, the Viceroy of India was
A. Lord Willingdon
B. Lord Irwin
C. Lord Linlithgow
D. Viscount Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province. The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow’s action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people.


24. The first Mysore War Fought between the British and Hyder Ali in 1767- 1769 A.D., came to an end by the
A. Treaty of Pondicherry
B. Treaty of Madras
C. Treaty of Mysore
D. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1767 Mysore was a powerful state under Hyder Ali. In 1769, the first Anglo-Mysore war was fought in which Haider Ali defeated the British and Treaty of Madras was signed between them. Haider Ali occupied almost the whole of Carnatic.


25. The British Government intervened in the affairs of the Company and passed an Act in 1773 A.D., known as the
A. Regulating Act
B. Pitt’s India Act
C. Charter Act
D. Company Act

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation of the British East India Company’s Indian territories, mainly in Bengal. The act was amended and the government of India was recast by Prime Minister William Pitt’s India Act of 1784.


26. According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, . . . . . . was ceded to the British
A. Malabar
B. Cochi
C. Travancore
D. Mysore

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, Malabar was ceded to the British.


27. The Treaty between Ranjit Singh and the British was signed at
A. Allahabad
B. Amritsar
C. Kashmir
D. Agra

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Treaty of Amritsar, (April 25, 1809), pact concluded between Charles T. Metcalfe, representing the British East India Company, and Ranjit Singh, head of the Sikh kingdom of Punjab. The British wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej River.


28. When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the__________
A. Hanoverians
B. Stuarts
C. Normans
D. Tudors

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the Stuarts.


29. An ambassador of the British King James I, who secured favourable privileges for the East India Company from Emperor Jahangir, was
A. Hawkins
B. Henry Middleton
C. Thomas Roe
D. Josiah Child

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : From 1615 to 1618, he was ambassador to the court at Agra, India, of the Great Mughal Ruler, Jahangir. The principal object of the mission was to obtain protection for the East India Company`s factory at Surat. At the Mughal court, Roe allegedly became a favorite of Jahangir and may have been his drinking partner.


30. __________ , the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with its capital at Dhaka
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Rippon
C. Lord Hastings
D. Wellesley

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Curzon, the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with its capital at Dhaka.


31. Indian Mutiny began in __________
A. 1557
B. 1657
C. 1857
D. 1957

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Indian Rebellion of 1857 is also called the Indian Mutiny, the Sepoy Mutiny, North India’s First War of Independence or North India’s first struggle for independence. It began on 10 May 1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company’s army.


32. In which region did Birsa Munda operate against the British?
A. Punjab
B. Chhota Nagpur
C. Tarai
D. Manipur

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Birsa Munda was a great tribal leader belonging to the Munda Adivasi, the movement operate against British in Chhota Nagpur (Jharkhand) region.


33. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was
A. Railways
B. Plantations and mines
C. Banking and insurance
D. Shipping

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was Railways.


34. Which of the Act made the governor of Bengal as Governor General of India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The charter Act 1813 AD
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. The Regulating Act AD 1773

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Warren Hastings was an English statesman and the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor General of India. Hastings brought the Dual Government system to an end by enforcing the Regulating Act of 1773.


35. Which of the following Government of India Act/Indian Council Act brought three separate presidencies (Madras, Bombay and Bengal) into a common system?
A. Indian Council Act of 1861
B. Government of India Act 1935
C. Government of India Act 1919
D. Indian Council Act of 1909

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Act for the first time introduced local representation in the Indian government. Rule of company in India ended and the rule of Crown started. The three presidencies (Madras, Bombay and Bengal) were three separate presidencies brought into a common system.


36. British Crown assumed sovereignty over Indian from the East Indian Company in the year
A. 1857
B. 1858
C. 1859
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The government of India Act (1858) also known as the act for Good Government of India transferred the power to the British crown from East India company.


37. “Treaty of Rajpurghat” was signed on December 25, 1805 between Holkar and __________
A. French
B. British
C. Portuguese
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Yashwantrao was the last to sign a treaty with the British, on 24 December 1805 at a place called Rajpur Ghat on the bank of Beas River. The treaty was named ‘The Treaty of Peace and Amity between the British Government and Yashwantrao Holkar.’


38. The llbert Bill controversy during the period of Lord Ripon exposed the racial bitterness of the British and united the Indians
A. Lytton
B. Lord Ripon
C. Queen Elizabeth
D. Queen Anne

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : British subjects in 1873 had been exempted from trial by Indian magistrates, and in cases involving death or transportation they could only be tried by a high court. But by 1883 the viceroy, Lord Ripon, proposed to make British subjects amenable to sessions courts, over which Indians were now senior enough in the civil service to preside. This proposal as embodied in the Ilbert Bill provoked furious protests, especially among the Calcutta (Kolkata) European business community and the Bengal indigo planters, and there was covert sympathy from many officials.


39. The Peshwaship was abolished by the British at the time of Peshwa
A. Raghunath Rao
B. Narayan Rao
C. Madhav Rao-II
D. Baji Rao-II

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Baji Rao II (10 January, 1775 – 28 January, 1851) was the last Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, and governed from 1795 to 1818. He was installed as a puppet ruler by the Maratha nobles, whose growing power prompted him to flee his capital Pune and sign the Treaty of Bassein (1802) with the British. The last Peshwa was Baji Rao-II. Duringhrs reign the peshwa ship was abolished by the British Government (Lord Harding-I, third Anglo Maratha battle).


40. The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by __________
A. Lord Ripon
B. Lord Lytton
C. Lord William Bentic
D. Gladstone

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Vernacular Press Act, in British India, law enacted in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language (i.e., non-English) press. The law was repealed in 1881 by Lytton’s successor as viceroy, Lord Ripon (governed 1880–84).


41. Who among the following had been the leader of a number of anti-British revolts in Sambalpur?
A. Kattabomman
B. Surendra Sai
C. Utirat Singh
D. Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By virtue of the Doctrine of Lapse, Lord Dalhousie annexed Sambalpur in 1849, as Narayan Singh had no male successor to succeed him. During the uprising of 1857 the sepoys set Surendra Sai and his brother Udyant Sai free. The resistance to British continued in Sambalpur under the leadership of Surendra Sai.


42. By which Charter Act, the East India Company’s monopoly of trade with China come to an end?
A. Charter Act of 1793
B. Charter Act of 1813
C. Charter Act of 1833
D. Charter Act of 1853

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Charter Acts of 1813 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which renewed the charter issued to the British East India Company, and continued the Company’s rule in India. However, the Company’s commercial monopoly was ended, except for the tea trade and the trade with China.


43. Which of the following is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading posts?
A. Bengal
B. Goa
C. Coromandel Coast
D. Gujarat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Goa is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading posts.


44. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism?
A. W.
B. Bannerji
C. Dadabhai Naroji
D. Gandhiji

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji’s work focused on the drain of wealth from India to England during colonial rule of British in India. One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has on the country.


45. Who among the following who fought against British in 1857 Revolt?,
A. Kunwar Singh,B. Tantia Tope,C. Nana Saheb,D. Maulavi Ahmaduallah
A. All of the above
B. A c and d
C. A b and c
D. B c and d

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : All of these four leaders fought against British in 1857 Revolt -Kunwar Singh- Bihar, Tanitia Tope- Gwalior, Nana Saheb- Kanpur, Maulavi Ahmaduallah- Faizabad.


46. During colonial period, British capital was mainly invested in
A. Infra structure
B. Industry
C. Agriculture
D. Services

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Agriculture was mainly invested by British during colonial period, the raw material related to agriculture was compulsory for industry during colonial period.


47. The British attitude towards granting India independence changed partly owing to the
A. Change in the government of the UK
B. Impact of World War II
C. Growing tide of Indian Nationalism
D. All of the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The British attitude towards granting India independence changed partly owing to the Change in the government of the UK, Impact of World War II, Growing tide of Indian Nationalism.


48. In 1650 Gabriel Boughton, an employee of the Company obtained a license for trade in __________
A. Bengal
B. Orissa
C. Mysore
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1650, Gabriel Boughton an employee of the Company obtained a license for trade in Bengal. An English factory was set up in 1651 at Hugli.


49. ‘We do not seek our independence out of Britain’s ruin’ said
A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Gokhale
D. Rabindranath Tagore

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Its true that Gandhi did have a compromising attitude towards the British during WWII and even stated that “We do not seek independence out of Britain’s ruin”. Though Gandhi was the most influential figure in the political scenario at the time, it’s important to remember that simply because he wanted to maintain a compromising attittude towards the British, many of the other political leaders of the time did not wish to do so.


50. The United East India Company refers to the company in India formed by the
A. Portuguese
B. Dutch
C. French
D. British

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The United East Indian Company (Dutch: Vereenigde Oost-Indische Compagnie; VOC), referred to by the British as the Dutch East India Company, was originally established as a chartered company in 1602, when the Dutch government granted it a 21-year monopoly on Dutch spice trade.


51. The East India Company had taken Bombay from
A. The Dutch
B. Charles I
C. Charles II
D. The Portuguese

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The East India Company had taken Bombay from Charles II. On 21 May 1662, the marriage treaty of Charles II of England and Catherine of Braganza, daughter of King John IV of Portugal, placed Bombay in possession of the British Empire, as part of dowry of Catherine to Charles.


52. The new proletariat class which emerged in India on account of the British economic policies, consisted of
A. Money lenders
B. Landlords
C. Traders
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The new proletariat class which emerged in India on account of the British economic policies, consisted of Money lenders, Landlords, Traders.


53. At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651 ?
A. Calcutta
B. Qasim Bazar
C. Singur
D. Burdwan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : At Qasim Bazar in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651. East India Company established a factory at Qasim Bazar by the permission Mughals in 1651.


54. As per ‘August Offer’ the British objective for India was __________
A. Dominion Status
B. Puma Swaraj
C. Responsible Government
D. Provincial Authority

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The August Offer was a proposal made by the British government in 1940 promising the expansion of the Executive Council of the Viceroy of India to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving full weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians’ right to frame their own constitution (after the end of the war). The Congress rejected the August Offer. Nehru said, “Dominion status concept is dead as a door nail.” Gandhi said that the declaration had widened the gulf between the nationalists and the British rulers.


55. Who had, while fasting in the prison, written to the British governor, The individual must die so that the nation may live. Today, I must die so that India may win freedom and glory?
A. Jatin Das
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. MK Gandhi
D. SC Bose

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Jatin Das, while fasting in the prison, written to the British governor, The individual must die so that the nation may live. Today, I must die so that India may win freedom and glory.


56. The Indian naval mutiny against the British took place in the year
A. 1857
B. 1919
C. 1946
D. 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Naval Ratings mutiny took place in 1946. Basically, it started as the sailors were dissatisfied with the food they were given. This snowballed into a mutiny against British rule. The mutiny started in Bombay Dock.


57. The land was owned by temples known as __________
A. Dewaswam
B. Brahmaswam
C. Cherikkal
D. Kanam

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In Kerala, temples are managed by Devaswom Board,which comes under the government of Kerala.


58. Dyer was __________ by the Government of Britain
A. Sentenced for life
B. Sentenced to death
C. Rewarded with honour
D. Relieved of his service

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : After the Punjab disturbances, O’Dyer was relieved of his office by the government of Britain.


59. The capital of British India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
A. 1911
B. 1912
C. 1920
D. 1925

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Delhi was officially announced as the capital of British Raj by the then-Emperor George V, on December 12, 1911. The capital was shifted from Calcutta as Delhi was the financial and political seat of many earlier empires and was located closer to the geographical center of India.


60. The transfer of Government from the ‘Company’ to the ‘Crown’ was pronounced by Lord Canning (November 1, 1858) at
A. Calcutta
B. Delhi
C. Patna
D. Allahabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : To declare the assumption of the Government of India by the crown a Durbar was held at Allahabad on November 1, 1858, by the Viceroy Lord Canning. Queen`s proclamation was read by Lord Canning. As per the proclamation, the administration of India came into the direct hands of British Government.


61. During the period of which Governor General Viceroy was the Indian Civil Service introduced?
A. Dalhousie
B. Curzon
C. Bentick
D. Conrnwallis

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Cornwallis realised that in order to consolidate the British rule in India, it was very important to organise the civil services. Civil Services was started by Lord Cornwallis and hence he is called the “Father of Indian Civil Service”.


62. Who said that he had not become His Majesty’s first Minister to preside over the liquidation of the British Empire?
A. Attlee
B. Churchill
C. Disraeli
D. Loyd George

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Churchill said that the Charter did not apply to India, for he had ‘not become His Majesty’s first minister to preside over the liquidation of the British empire’.


63. Which of the following authorised the British Government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law
A. Rowlatt Act of 1919
B. Government of India Act of 1935
C. Indian Council Act of 1909
D. Government Of India Act of 1919

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : As per the Rowlatt act the govemment had the power to arrest any person without showing any reason, the acts were threat to the civil liberties. Later, this act became the reason for occurrence of Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy.


64. The Seven Years’ War (1756-1763) resulted in the defeat of the__________ forces
A. American
B. British
C. French
D. Russian

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1756, the British formally declared war against France. In addition, Spanish attempts to aid France in the Americas had failed, and France also suffered defeats against British forces in India. The Seven Years’ War ended with the signing of the treaties of Hubertusburg and Paris in February 1763.


65. India became independent during the vice royalty of
A. William Bentinck
B. Wellesley
C. Wavell
D. Mountbatten

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Mountbatten: Last Viceroy of India (1947-1948) Lord Mountbatten served as last Viceroy of India from 12 February 1947 – 15 August 1947; and then first Governor General of Free India from 15 August 1947 – 21 June 1948. During his tenure, India got independence in the form of two dominions of India Pakistan.


66. The Company lost all its administrative powers__________
A. By the Government of India Act of 1658
B. By the Government of India Act of 1758
C. By the Government of India Act of 1858
D. By the Government of India Act of 1958

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : British Parliament brought the Government of India Act, 1858, which made the following changes: i. Transferred powers from the East India Company to the Crown. ii. A member of British Parliament was made secretary of state of India to exercise powers on behalf of the Crown and was responsible to the British Parliament. iii. The Governor General for India was provided with an Executive Council, whose decision he was empowered to override.


67. The momentous decision to transfer the capital from Calcutta to Delhi, to annul the partition of Bengal and to abolish Indian indentured labour were taken during the Viceroyalty of Lord
A. Hardinge
B. Minto
C. Chelmsford
D. Reading

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : At that time, Lord Hardinge was the Governor General of the British held territories in India, and he was the one that shifted the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi.


68. Till the end of the 17th Century the growth of the executive and legislative powers of the East india Company depended on
A. Governor
B. Governor-General
C. Parliament
D. Crown

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Till the end of the 17th Century the growth of the executive and legislative powers of the East india Company depended on Crown.


69. In November 1781, Sir Eyre Coote defeated __________ at Porto Nova
A. Hyder Ali
B. Marthanda Verma
C. British
D. Tipu Sultan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Battle of Porto Novo was fought on 1 July 1781 between forces of the Kingdom of Mysore and British East India Company in the place called Porto Novo (now known as Parangipettai) on the Indian subcontinent, during the Second Anglo-Mysore War. The British force, numbering more than 8,000 under the command of Sir Eyre Coote defeated a force estimated at 40,000 under the command of Hyder Ali.


70. The English East Company achieved a major victory over the Portuguese in the Battle of __________ in 1612
A. Buxar
B. Plassey
C. Swally
D. Trafalgar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The naval Battle of Swally, also known as Battle of Suvali, took place on 29–30 November 1612 off the coast of Suvali (anglicised to Swally) a village near the Surat city (now in Gujarat, India) and was a victory for four English East India Company galleons over four Portuguese galleons and 26 barks (rowing vessels with no armament).


71. The first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons was
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Surendra Nath Banerjee
C. Dr BR Ambedkar
D. C R Das

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji was elected to the British house of commons from the Finsbury Central Constituency in the elections of 1892 by a narrow margin of 3 votes by defeating Fredrick Thomas Penton. Being a subject of the British crown (Being a citizen of British India) he was allowed to take part in the election.


72. The first Indian to contest an election to the British House of Commons was
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Womesh Chandra Banerjee
C. Surendranath Banerjee
D. Pheroze Shah Mehta

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first Indian to contest an election to the British House of Commons was Womesh Chandra Banerjee.


73. The first Bengali Drama, written to highlight the brutality of the British indigo planters, was
A. Rast Goftar
B. Neel Darpan
C. Shome Prakash
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Nil Darpan (The Indigo Mirror) is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was published in Dhaka in 1860, under a pseudonym of the author. The play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.


74. The Treaty of Lahore was signed between the Sikhs and the British in India in the year
A. 1836
B. 1846
C. 1856
D. 1866

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Treaty of Lahore was signed on 9 March 1846 after the First Sikh War. After the defeat of the Sikhs at the Battle of Sobraon the British were able to march into Lahore without any further battles. After the British reached the city of Lahore the treaty was signed.


75. The privileges of free trade granted to the English East India Company were confirmed in 1717 by Emperor
A. Bahadur Shah
B. Farrukh-Siyar
C. Muhammad Shah
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Emperor Farrukhsiyar issued the British East India Company such a farman in 1717. It allowed the Company to live and trade for free in Mughal India except for an annual payment. They were also given the right to issue dastak or trade permits to transfer goods, which the officials largely used for their own gains.


76. Who was the Governor General of India during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A. Lord Chelmsford
B. Lord Reading
C. Lord Irwin
D. Lord Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Lord Irwin was the Governor General and Viceroy of India (1926-1931). On April 3, 1926 Lord Irwin was appointed 30th Viceroy and Governor-General of India. This was the most tumultuous period for the politics of India.


77. Who tried to rediscover India’s past?
A. Lord Lytton
B. Max Muller
C. S.N. Banerjee
D. Gokahale

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Max Muller


78. The process of the introduction of education in English had been initiated in India by Lord
A. Curzon
B. Bentick
C. Hastings
D. Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Thomas Babington Macaulay was the secretary to the Board of control of India during the British rule. He was the secretary under Lord Grey from 1832 to 1833. He is known for his Minute on Indian Education which came out in February 1835. He wanted to teach English to the people of India and not Sanskrit or Persian.


79. Select the correct chronological sequence of the following events?,I. Appointment of the Simon Commission.,II. Formation of the first Labour Government in Britain.,III. Submission of the Nehru report.,IV. Inauguration of the First Round Table Conference
A. II I III ; IV
B. I III IV ; II
C. I II IV ; III
D. II IV I ; III

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation :
I. Appointment of the Simon Commission – November 1927
II. Formation of the first Labour Government in Britain – January 1924
III. Submission of the Nehru report – August 1928
IV. Inauguration of the First Round Table Conference – November 1930


80. What was meant by the secretary of State of India during the British?
A. An official who worked as the Secretary to the Viceroy of India
B. A Secretary level official appointed in each Presidency of India
C. A British minister given full control over the Government of India
D. A senior officer appointed the Viceroy to look into his internal administration in India

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Secretary of State is also deemed as Political Head of India. The post was created in Charter Act of 1858. The first Secretary of state was Lord Stanley.


81. Dadabhai Naoroji’s book ‘poverty and un British rule in India’ published in __________ analysed the nature of the British rule in India
A. 1898
B. 1901
C. 1908
D. 1946

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Naoroji published Poverty and un-British Rule in India in 1901. It analysed the nature of the British rule in India.


82. Who among the British Governor- General shown great interest in the preservation of ancient monuments?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Governor- General Lord Curzon shown great interest in the preservation of ancient monuments.


83. When the East India Company was established India was ruled by
A. a Mughal Emperor
B. a Gupta Emperor
C. a Mauryan Emperor
D. a Sunga Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : When the East India Company was established India was ruled by a Mughal Emperor.


84. Who among the following revolutionaries was executed by the British
A. Jitin Das
B. Chandrashekhar Azad
C. Rajguru
D. Kalpana – Dutt

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Shivaram Hari Rajguru (24 August 1908 – 23 March 1931) was an Indian revolutionary from Maharashtra, known mainly for his involvement in the assassination of a British Raj police officer.


85. During the Second World War the British forces were defeated at __________
A. London
B. Dunkirk
C. Paris
D. Liverpool

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : As part of the Battle of France on the Western Front, the Battle of Dunkirk was the defence and evacuation to Britain of British and other Allied forces in Europe from 26 May to 4 June 1940. After the Phoney War, the Battle of France began in earnest on 10 May 1940.


86. Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta on 20 April 1843, was the __________ political public association to be formed in British India, the first being the zamindari association (1837)
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta on 20 April 1843, was the Second political public association to be formed in British India, the first being the zamindari association (1837).


87. Under the Government of India __________, the British Crown assumed direct administration of India in the new British Raj
A. Act of 1658
B. Act of 1758
C. Act of 1858
D. Act of 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Government of India Act 1858 was passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


88. The East India Association was founded by __________ in 1866
A. Lord Lyveden
B. Raja radhakanta dev
C. Debendranath Tagore
D. Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.


89. Who among the following Indian cracks the British Indian Civil Services Examination in the first time of Indian Histroy?
A. Satyendranath Tagore
B. R.
C. Dutt
D. Surendranath Banerjee

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Satyendranath Tagore became first Indian who cracked I.C.S. or Indian Civil Service examination.


90. The term of office fixed by Regulating Act for Governor General was
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Regulating Act ( May 3, 1773): In 1765, after the battle of Buxer the East India Company got the Diwani ( Right to collect Revenue) of Bengal , Bihar and Orissa. The Governor General was assisted by four councilors. Their tenure of office was fixed for 5 years.


91. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar?
A. Minto-I
B. William Bentinck
C. Hastings
D. Auckland

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Governor General William Bentinck had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar.


92. Which of the following statement is not correct about the provisions of the Government of India Act,1858?
A. The Queen’s Principal Secretary of State received the powers and duties of the Company’s Court of Directors
B. A council of fifteen members was appointed to assist the Secretary of State for India
C. For all the communications between Britain and India the Secretary of State became the real channel
D. All the above statements are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


93. Which of the following is not the provision of the government of India Act, 1858?
A. India was to be governed in the Queen’s name
B. The Queen’s Principal Secretary of State received the powers and duties of the Company’s Court of Directors
C. Provision for the creation of an Indian Civil Service under the control of the Secretary of State
D. The British Parliament was empowered to appoint a Governor-General and the Governors of the Presidencies

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


94. Who was the prime minister of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858?
A. Lord Palmerston
B. Russell II
C. Edward Smith-Stanley
D. Benjamin Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Palmerston was the prime minister of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858.


95. Who was the monarch of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858?
A. William IV
B. Victoria
C. Edward VII
D. George V

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In August 1858, the British parliament passed an act that set an end to the rule of the company. The control of the British government in India was transferred to the British crown. At this time, Victoria was the queen of Britain.


96. Who was the supreme body in the Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act- 1858?
A. Queen Victoria
B. The British Parliament
C. Government of Britan
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The British Parliament was the supreme body in the Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act- 1858.


97. Which of the following is not correct about Montegu- Chelmsford’s Reform & Government of India Act, 1919?
A. It changed the administrative system in India
B. In this Act the central legislative council was replaced by two houses-the imperial legislative assembly and the council of state
C. Education and public health were placed under charge of ministers responsible to the legislature
D. All of the above are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms or more briefly known as Mont-Ford Reforms were reforms introduced by the colonial government in British India to introduce self-governing institutions gradually to India. The reforms take their name from Edwin Samuel Montagu, the Secretary of State for India during the latter parts of World War I and Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921. The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report prepared in 1918 and formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919.


98. Which of the following is not the part of Government of India Act, 1935
A. This act provided for setting up of the federation of India comprising British Indian provinces
B. Diarchy in the provinces was replaced by provincial autonomy
C. The post of Indian council of secretary of state for India made permanent
D. The diarchy was introduced at the centre

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first Secretary of state was Lord Stanley, who prior to 2 August 1858, served as President of the Board of Control. The Secretary of State was now the political head of the India.


99. Which of the following is not the provision of government of India act, 1935?
A. This act ended the system of diarchy
B. The structure for “Federation of India” was established for both British India and some or all of the “princely states”
C. Burma became the part of India
D. The introduction of direct elections thus increasing the franchise from seven million to thirty-five million people

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The British colony of Burma was part of the British run-state in India, the Empire of India, from 1824 to 1937. It is not the provision of government of India act, 1935.


100. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of __________ in 1772
A. Bengal
B. Madras
C. Bombay
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1772 to 1785.


101. Which one of the following events did not take place during the Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon?
A. Establishment of the department of Archaeology
B. Second Delhi Durbar
C. Formation of Indian National Congress
D. Partition of Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Indian National congress was fromed in 1885 during the Viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin. The first Chairman of INC was W.C.Banerjee.


102. The Simla Conference called by Viceroy Lord Wavell (to discuss the so-called Wavell Plan) in June 1945 failed on account of
A. Jinnah’s demand that the Muslim League alone would nominate Muslim members to the Executive Council
B. the demand of the Congress to include the members of all communities in their quota to the Executive Council
C. the demand of the Scheduled Castes to reserved seats in the Executive Council in Proportion to their population
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Simla Conference called by Viceroy Lord Wavell (to discuss the so-called Wavell Plan) in June 1945 failed on account of Jinnah’s demand that the Muslim League alone would nominate Muslim members to the Executive Council, the demand of the Congress to include the members of all communities in their quota to the Executive Council, the demand of the Scheduled Castes to reserved seats in the Executive Council in Proportion to their population.


103. Lord Cornwallis had introduced the __________ land tenure system
A. Zamindari
B. Ryotwari
C. Mahalwari
D. Inamdari

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Immediately after putting his legs in India, Lord Cornwallis in 1786 opined once-for-all settlement with the zamindars for the collection of land revenue. In fact, Lord Cornwallis cut the Gordian knot in 1790 when the decennial permanent settlement system was decided to be introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.


104. Lytton was selected as Viceroy to India to fulfill the ambitious plans of Disraeli in __________
A. Awadh
B. Afghanistan
C. Bengal
D. Burma

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton was selected as Viceroy to India to fulfill the ambitious plans of Disraeli in Afghanistan.


105. Who said that the exploitative nature of British rule was ‘Bleeding India White’?
A. Tilak
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Hume
D. Annie Besant

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji said that the exploitative nature of British rule was ‘Bleeding India White’.


106. Which Indian ruler had requested Napoleon for help in driving the British away from India?
A. Shivaji
B. Jai Singh
C. Tipu Sultan
D. Rani of Jhansi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tipu Sultan had requested Napoleon for help in driving the British away from India.


107. Rani Laxmi Bai died fighting the British in the Battle of
A. Jhansi
B. Kanpur
C. Gwalior
D. Kalpi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On June 18th 1858, Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi, one of the most important figures of India’s First War of Independence, died while fighting against the British in Gwalior.


108. In which year was the title of Governor general chanced to that of the Viceroy?
A. 1858
B. 1861
C. 1878
D. 1885

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


109. The Mutiny was brought to an end with the fall of __________ into the hands of the British in India
A. Meerut
B. Awadh
C. Gwalior
D. Rohilkhand

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mutiny was brought to an end with the fall of Gwalior into the hands of the British in India.


110. The permanent settlement was made in Bengal in the sphere of revenue administration by
A. William Pitt
B. Hastings
C. William Bentic
D. Lord Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Permanent Settlement (also Premanent Settlement of Bengal) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. It was an agreement between the British East India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to settle the Land Revenue to be raised.


111. When were Morley-Minto reforms taken place?
A. 1905
B. 1909
C. 1919
D. 1857

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Indian Councils Act 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (or as the Minto-Morley Reforms), was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that brought about a limited increase in the involvement of Indians in the governance of British India.


112. The writers of the East India Company had their training in the college at __________ in England
A. London
B. Manchester
C. Liverpool
D. Haileybury

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The writers of the East India Company had their training in the college at Haileybury in England.


113. Gandhiji’s famous Quit India movement call to the British was given in
A. 1943
B. 1941
C. 1942
D. 1940

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gandhiji launched Quit India Movement on 8th August 1942 in Bombay session of congress. It is also known as August revolutoion.


114. Lord __________ is regarded to have been the father of local self-government in India
A. Ripon
B. Bentinck
C. Curzon
D. Mayo

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known as Father of Local Self Government in India. This was not enacted by any act, it was a resolution that was passed in 1882.


115. Which war lord is also known as ‘little corporal’
A. Alexander
B. Julius Caesar
C. Napoleon Bonaparte
D. Genghis Khan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Napoleon Bonaparte war lord is also known as ‘little corporal’.


116. The greatest contribution of the British rule to the growth of India nationalism was the __________
A. Introduction of western education in India
B. Racial arrogance of the British
C. Denial of Higher Jobs to deserving Indians
D. Queen’s proclamation of 1858

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Introduction of western education was another important factor which paved the way for the growth of nationalism. Three main agencies were responsible for the spread of modem education in India. They were the foreign Christian missionaries, the British Government and the progressive Indians.


117. During the Viceroyalty of Sir John Lawrence the bone of contention between India and Bhutan was
A. Duars
B. Jalpaiguri
C. Goalpara
D. Cooch Behar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : During the Viceroyalty of Sir John Lawrence the bone of contention between India and Bhutan was Duars.


118. The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on __________
A. 1398
B. 1495
C. 1496
D. 1498

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Vasco Da Gama sailed from Lisbon on July 8, 1497, with a crew of 170 men. He arrived at Calicut (now Kozhikode) on May 20, 1498.


119. The island of Bombay had been given to the British Prince Charles II as dowry by the
A. Dutch
B. Portuguese
C. Danish
D. French

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The island of Bombay had been given to the British Prince Charles II as dowry by the Portuguese.


120. Assertion (A): East India Association in London was organised by Dadabhai Naoroji.,Reason (R): He wanted to influence the British public opinion
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.


121. During the first hundred years of the British rule in India, people’s resentment and opposition to the British policies mainly surfaced in the form of
A. Tribal uprisings
B. Peasant uprisings
C. Civil uprisings
D. Both (a) and (b) above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : During the first hundred years of the British rule in India, people’s resentment and opposition to the British policies mainly surfaced in the form of tribal uprisings, peasant uprisings.


122. The Permanent Settlement was enforced on__________
A. 1693
B. 1793
C. 1893
D. 1933

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The rules of the permanent settlement made every individual zamindar and talukdar the permanent and absolute proprietors of the land under their control. As absolute proprietors of land, zamindars and talukdars were required to pay revenue to government at a rate fixed permanently.


123. Who set up the dual system of administration in Bengal?
A. Robert Clive
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Dupleix
D. Lord Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Dual System of Government in Bengal was the brainchild of Lord Clive.


124. MSP means __________
A. Malabar Special Police
B. Mysore Special police
C. Madras Special police
D. Mappila Special Police

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Malabar Special Police (MSP) is a paramilitary unit of the State Police of Kerala.


125. Lord Lytton had lowered the age limit for Indian for the ICS from 21 year to
A. 20 years
B. 19 years
C. 18 years
D. 17 years

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The age for eligibility in civil services was brought down from 21 to 19 years by Lord Lytton.


126. In the 18th Century the Royal prerogative in the affairs of the East India Company was controlled by
A. The Viceroy’s Council
B. The Indian Legislature
C. The Parliament in England
D. The Secretary of State

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In the 18th Century the Royal prerogative in the affairs of the East India Company was controlled by The Parliament in England.


127. In March 1942, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill appointed the Cripps Mission to resolve Indian political crisis because
A. he was under pressure from the US President Roosevelt
B. of the gravity of the Japanese war menace on India’s borders
C. both (a) and (b) above
D. of INA’s initial success on India’s eastern borders

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In March 1942, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill appointed the Cripps Mission to resolve Indian political crisis because he was under pressure from the US President Roosevelt and of the gravity of the Japanese war menace on India’s borders.


128. As the unrest continued unabatedly, the Madras government appointed . . . . . . the collector of Malabar as special commissioner to enquire into the causes of the uprisings and recommend remedial measures.
A. Connolly
B. William Logan
C. S.N. Banerjee
D. Gokahale

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : William Logan (1841–1914) was a Scottish officer of the Madras Civil Service under the British Government. Before his appointment as Collector of Malabar, he had served in the area for about twenty years in the capacity of Magistrate and Judge. He was conversant in Malayalam, Tamil and Telugu.


129. Which of the following British Prime Minister headed the First Round Table Conference in London?
A. Churchill
B. Ramsay McDonald
C. Chamberlain
D. Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Round Table Conference officially inaugurated by George V on November 12, 1930 in Royal Gallery House of Lords at London and chaired by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald. The three British political parties were represented by sixteen delegates.


130. In 1661 the company obtained __________ from Charles II
A. Bombay
B. Madras
C. Kannur
D. Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On 11 May 1661, the marriage treaty of Charles II of England and Catherine of Braganza, daughter of King John IV of Portugal, placed Bombay in the possession of the British Empire, as part of Catherine’s dowry to Charles.


131. __________ started an all-India campaign for restoring the entrance age of 21 and for simultaneous ICS examination in India
A. Gokahale
B. S.N. Banerjee
C. Tilak
D. William Logan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : S.N. Banerjee started an all-India campaign for restoring the entrance age of 21 and for simultaneous ICS examination in India.


132. Who among the following Viceroys became a victim of one of the convicts during his visit to the Andamans?
A. Curzon
B. Mayo
C. Ripon
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Mayo was stabbed when he was in Andamans. He was first and last Viceory murdered in India.


133. India was granted freedom during the British Prime Minister
A. Clement Attlee
B. Winston Churchill
C. Ramsay Mac Donald
D. William Pitt

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Indian Independence Act 1947 passed on 1st August 1947 by the British Parliament in reign of Prime minister Clement Attlee (Labour party). On 14 August 1947 India divided into two dominion states Pakistan (14th August) and India (15th August).


134. By the Charter Act of 1813 the Indian trade except in __________ was thrown open to all British subjects
A. Tea
B. Spices
C. Coffee
D. Cotton

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, however the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in tea with India was kept intact. Thus, trade with India for all commodities except Tea was thrown open to all British subjects.


135. Before the Regulating Act was passed in 1773, there was __________ at home to administer the East India Company
A. A Committee of 24
B. A Secretary
C. A Council of Lords
D. A Board of Revenue

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Before the Regulating Act was passed in 1773, there was A Committee of 24 at home to, administer the East India Company.


136. Which of the following act of India ensured the partition of India?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : It was passed to expand participation of Indians in the government of India. The Act embodied the reforms recommended in the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chemlsford. The Act covered ten years, from 1919 to 1929. The Act received royal assent on 23 December 1919.


137. Which of the following British official intiated the Doctrine of Lapse?
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Auckland
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.


138. The exclusive right of trading between __________ was granted to the East India Company
A. North America and South America
B. Red Sea and Caspian Sea
C. The Cape of Good Hope and the Straits of Magellan
D. France and Poland

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The exclusive right of trading between The Cape of Good Hope and the Straits of Magellan was granted to the East India Company.


139. Despite holding a monopoly, the East India Company had faced competition from what it had termed as the ‘interlopers’ represented by the
A. Portuguese
B. Indigenous merchants
C. British free merchants
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Despite holding a monopoly, the East India Company had faced competition from what it had termed as the ‘interlopers’ represented by the British free merchants.


140. The Act constituting the first legislative interference by the British Parliament in the affairs of India was the
A. Fox’s India Act 1783
B. Pitt’s India Act 1784
C. Regulating Act 1773
D. Declaratory Act 1781

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Regulating Act 1773 was an Act of the Parliament of Great Britain intended to overhaul the management of the East India Company’s rule in India.


141. The only Viceroy to be assassinated in India was
A. Lord Harding
B. Lord Northbrook
C. Lord Ellenborough
D. Lord Mayo

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Mayo was killed by an Afridi Pathan Sher Ali Afridi in Port Blair of Andaman and Nicobar on 8th Feb, 1972.


142. Which Government of India Act/charter Act generated the post of Governor-General of India?
A. Government of India Act -1858
B. Charter Act-1833
C. Charter Act-1853
D. Charter Act-1813

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. It deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. For the first time, the Governor-General’s Government was known as the ‘Government of India’ and his council as the ‘India Council’ in 1858.


143. British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at__________
A. Calcutta
B. Pune
C. Madras
D. Bombay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at Calcutta with Raja Radhakanta Dev and Debendranath Tagore as its President and Secretary respectively. Other members of the Association included Ramgopal Ghosh, Peary Chand Mitra and Krishnadas Pal. Its membership was kept exclusive to Indians.


144. Who defeated the Spanish Armada?
A. Elizabeth I
B. Elizabeth II
C. Henry VIII
D. James I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588 has long been held as one of England’s greatest military achievements. The successful defence of the kingdom against invasion on such an unprecedented scale boosted the prestige of England’s Queen Elizabeth I and encouraged a sense of English pride and nationalism.


145. The title of ‘Viceroy’ was added to the centre of the Governor-General of India for the first time in
A. 1848
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into “Governor-General of India.” The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


146. The Governor of the East India Company was
A. Appointed by the monarch of England
B. Appointed by the British Parliament
C. Elected by the members of the East India Company
D. Nominated by the Mughal Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Governor of the East India Company was Elected by the members of the East India Company itself.


147. Which British Governor General introduced Postage Stamp in India?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Auckland
C. Lord Canning
D. Lord William Bentinck

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Dalhousie introduced Postage stamp, he also introduced Railway, Telegram and PWD.


148. Who among the following British persons admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Ellenborough
D. Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : British member of Parliament (House of commons) Benziman Disraeli admitted the revolt of 1857 as a National Revolt. V.D. SavarKar describe this revolt as the Indian’s first struggle for Independence.


149. The first constitutional measure introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was
A. the Act of 1919
B. the Act of 1935
C. Indian Independence Bill
D. Cabinet Mission Plan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first constitutional measure Introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was the Act of 1935.


150. Which of the following Act, ensured the establishment of the supreme court in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional development of India. Via this act, the British Parliament for the first time interfered into affairs of India.


151. Who among the following analysed the causes of the uprising of 1857 advocating a reconciliation between the British and the Muslims?
A. Sayyed Ahmad Brelvi
B. Shah Waliullah
C. Sayyed Ahmad Khan
D. Sayyed Amir Ali

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, he remained, loyal to the British Empire and was noted for his actions in saving European lives. After the rebellion, he penned the booklet ‘The Causes of the Indian Mutiny’ – a daring critique, at the time, of British policies that he blamed for causing the revolt. Believing that the future of Muslims was threatened by the rigidity of their orthodox outlook, Sir Syed began promoting Western–style scientific education by founding modern schools and journals and organising Muslim entrepreneurs.


152. Lytton held an Imperial Durbar at Delhi in 1877 to announce __________ as the Empress of India at a time when a large part of the country was in the grip of a severe famine
A. Queen Elizabeth
B. Queen Victoria
C. Queen Anne
D. Queen Marie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton held an Imperial Durbar at Delhi in 1877 to announce Queen Victoria as the Empress of India at a time when a large part of the country was in the grip of a severe famine.


153. During British rule, who was instrumental for the introduction of the Ryotwari system in the then Madras Presidency?
A. Macaulay
B. Elphinstone
C. Thomas Munro
D. John Lawrence

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Thomas Munro and Captain Reid known as the father of the Ryotwari Settlement in India. It was firstly introduced in district ‘BARAMAHAL’ of Tamilnadu. By this settlement the Ryott-Cultivator was recognised as a owner of field and he had to pay revenue to British Government directly.


154. The East India Company was established in the year
A. 1607 AD
B. 1600 AD
C. 1700 AD
D. 1669 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The East India Company was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India. Incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600, it was started as a monopolistic trading body so that England could participate in the East Indian spice trade.


155. The ‘Sepoy Mutiny’ was in the year __________
A. 1657
B. 1757
C. 1765
D. 1857

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Indian Mutiny, also called Sepoy Mutiny, widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India in 1857–58. Begun in Meerut by Indian troops (sepoys) in the service of the British East India Company, it spread to Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow.


156. Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance against the East India Company dominated in __________
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance an armed resistance of the combined body of Muslim fakirs (sufis) and Hindu sannyasis (yogis) against the dominance of the English East India Company in Bengal. This resistance began in 1760 and continued for more than four decades.


157. Assertion (A): The announcement of the Simon Commission aroused widespread Indian resentment. ,Reason (R): The British Government in defiance of the opinion of all parties in India had deliberately decided to appoint an all British Commission
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Government in defiance of the opinion of all parties in India had deliberately decided to appoint an all British Commission.


158. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year __________
A. 1484
B. 1584
C. 1684
D. 1784

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company on 11 March 1784. It was signed in Mangalore and brought an end to the Second Anglo-Mysore War.


159. Arrange the following in chronological order:,I. Viceroy Lytton,II. Viceroy Mayo,III. Viceroy Lansdowne,IV. Viceroy Linlithgow
A. II III I IV
B. II I III IV
C. IV III II I
D. III IV I II

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Viceroy Mayo- Richard Southwell Bourke, 6th Earl of Mayo, KP, GCSI, PC, styled Lord Naas between 1842 and 1867, called Lord Mayo in India, was a statesman, Viceroy of India and prominent member of the British Conservative Party from Dublin, Ireland. Viceroy Lytton- Robert Bulwer-Lytton, 1st Earl of Lytton GCB GCSI GCIE PC was an English statesman, Conservative politician, and poet. He served as Viceroy of India between 1876 and 1880 – during his tenure as which Queen Victoria was proclaimed Empress of India – and as British Ambassador to France from 1887 to 1891. Viceroy Lansdowne- Henry Charles Keith Petty-Fitzmaurice, 5th Marquess of Lansdowne, KG, GCSI, GCMG, GCIE, PC was a British statesman who served successively as the fifth Governor General of Canada, Viceroy of India, Secretary of State for War, and Secretary of State for Foreign Affairs. Viceroy Linlithgow- Victor Alexander John Hope, 2nd Marquess of Linlithgow, KG, KT, FRSE, GCSI, GCIE, OBE was a British Unionist politician, agriculturalist and colonial administrator. He served as Governor-General and Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1943. He was usually referred to simply as Linlithgow.


160. During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Assam to grow__________
A. Jute
B. Tea
C. Sugarcane
D. Wheat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The trade of tea was most profitable to Britishers that’s why they turned to cultivator in Assam to grow Tea.


161. On which day had premier Attlee conceded that the British would quit India by June, 1948?
A. January 26 1947
B. August 15 1947
C. January 26 1948
D. February 20 1947

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : February 20, 1947 had premier Attlee conceded that the British would quit India by June, 1948.


162. The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act __________
A. 1856
B. 1858
C. 1865
D. 1946

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act of 1856, provided legal safeguards against loss of certain forms of inheritance for remarrying a Hindu widow, though, under the Act, the widow forsook any inheritance due her from her deceased husband.


163. I. Bengal Nawab was captured and put to death by Mir Jafar in the Battle of Plassey, 1757., II. After Mir Qasim, Nizam-ud-daula was made the Nawab of Bengal., III. The same person acted as the deputy Dewan on behalf of the East Indian Company and as Deputy Subedar on behalf of the Bengal Nawab., IV. In 1767, British Government ordered the East India Company to pay £400,000 per year.,Which of these statement(s) is/are correct related to the Bengal Politics during the 18th century?
A. I ; II
B. I ; III
C. II ; IV
D. III ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The same person acted as deputy Dewan on behalf of the East Indian Company and as Deputy Subedar on behalf of the Bengal Nawab. The British East India Company was suffering from massive amounts of debts incurred primarily from annual contractual payments due to the British government totaling £400,000 per year.


164. What did the Hunter Commission appointed by the Viceroy probe?
A. Bardoli Satyagraha
B. Khilafat Agitation
C. Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
D. Chauri Chaura incident

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After Jallianwala Bagh tragedy a commission was estb. under William Wilson Hunter in 1919. It is known as Hunter commission but the report of commission was rejected by INC,and new commission was estb. under Madan Mohan Malviya.


165. The British colonial policies in India proved moat ruinous for Indian
A. agriculture
B. trade
C. industry
D. handicrafts

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : the british colonial policies in india proved moat ruinous for indian handicrafts. The real blow to Indian handicrafts fell after 1813, when they lost not only their foreign markets but, what was of much greater importance, their market in India itself. The Industrial Revolution in Britain completely transformed Britain’s economy and its economic relations with India.


166. The violent Mappilas stormed the bunglow of the District Magistrate . . . . . . and murdered him in 1855
A. H.V. Connolly
B. William Logan
C. Lord Ripond
D. Gladstone

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : At about 9 p.m. on the evening of 11 September 1855 Conolly was attacked and killed at the Collector’s Residence at West Hill Bungalow, Calicut by a small group of Mappilas. Conolly was buried in what is now Conolly Park, near South Beach Road; the headstone of his tomb was moved to the premises of the C.S.I. St. Mary’s English Church, Calicut in 1997.


167. The first Indian Governor of a British Province (Bihar) in India was
A. Sir SP Sinha
B. Sir Shaukat Hayat
C. Sir Hari Singh Gaur
D. VJ Patel

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : He was the first Governor of Bihar and Orissa, first Indian Advocate-General of Bengal, first Indian to become a member of the Viceroy’s executive Council and the first Indian to become a member of the British ministry. He is sometimes also referred as Satyendra Prasanno Sinha or Satyendra Prasad Sinha.


168. The Treaty of Surat was in the year __________
A. 1475
B. 1575
C. 1675
D. 1775

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Treaty of Surat (6 March 1775) was a treaty by which Raghunathrao, one of the claimants to the throne of the Peshwa, agreed to cede Salsette and Bassein Fort to the English, in consideration of being himself restored to Poona. The military operations that followed are known as the First Anglo-Maratha War.


169. Assertion (A): British excluded the Indian middle and upper classes from the high administrative and military posts. ,Reason (R): Many of the traditional zamindars lost their zamindaris to the new class of urban-based absentee landlords
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Many of them lost their zamindaris to the new class of urban-based absentee landlords due to the introduction of the zamindari or the new class of urban-based absentee landlords due to the introduction of zamindari or the permanent settlement, and the strict manner of revenue collection by the British.


170. Which of the following is not the provision of The Act of 1892?
A. A simultaneous examination of ICS to be held in England and India
B. Reforms of the legislative council and adoption of the principle of election in place of nomination
C. Support of the annexation of Upper Burma
D. Reduction in the Military expenditure

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Burma achieved independence from British rule on 4 January 1948.


171. August Offer 1940 was made by the Viceroy
A. Willingdon
B. Linlithgow
C. Minto
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : On 8 August 1940, early in the Battle of Britain, the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, made the so-called “August Offer”.


172. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
A. Promote heavy industries in India
B. Facilitate British commerce and adminitstrative control
C. More foodstuff in case of famine
D. Enable Indians to move freely within the country

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : British Introduced the railways in India (1853) to facilitate British commerce and administrative control.


173. In 1877 the entrance age to ICS was reduced from 21 to __________
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1877 the entrance age to ICS was reduced from 21 to 19.


174. Charles Wood’s Despatch__________
A. 1554
B. 1684
C. 1784
D. 1854

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sir Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control, had an important effect on spreading English learning and female education in India. When in 1855 he sent a despatch to Lord Dalhousie, the then Governor-General of India.Wood suggested that primary colleges must adopt vernacular languages, high schools must adopt Anglo verncular language and on college level English medium for education. This is known as Wood’s despatch. Vocational and women’s education were not stressed upon.


175. Consider the following according to the correct chronological order of the Governors-General during British India,I. Wellesley,II. Marquess of Hastings,III. Amherst,IV. Bentinck
A. I II III ; IV
B. II I IV ; III
C. I III II ; IV
D. III I II ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The correct chronological order of the Governors-General during British India were Wellesley, Marquess of Hastings, Amherst, Bentinck.


176. The State Jhansi was made a part of the British Empire in India through
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Policy of Subsidiaty Alliance
C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse i.e any princely state under the direct influence of East India Company, as a vassal state under the British Subsidiary System would automatically be annexed if the ruler was either “manifestly in competent or died without a male heir. The series of state annexed – Satara, Jaipur, Sambhal pur, Jhansi (1854).


177. The first strategically placed factory that the Britishers had fortified was at
A. Surat
B. Bombay
C. Masulipatnam
D. Madras

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Englishmen’s easy success in trade and in establishing independent and fortified settlements at Madras and at Bombay, and the preoccupation of Aurangzeb with the anti-Maratha campaigns led the English to abandon the role of humble petitioners.


178. Who convinced the British in 1829 to outlaw Sati?
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B. Swami Dayananda Saraswati
C. Lokmanya Tilak
D. Bhagat Singh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Raja Ram Mohan Roy convinced the British in 1829 to outlaw Sati.


179. The Vernacular Press Act was passed in __________
A. 1878
B. 1881
C. 1888
D. 1898

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then Viceroy of India, and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy’s Council on 14 March 1878.


180. Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind and returned all the war medals which were awarded to him by the British for his war services (during the First World War)
A. in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
B. during the Non-Cooperation Movement
C. in support of the Khilafat demand when the Central Khilafat Committee organised a general all-India hartal on August 1 1920
D. during the Champaran Satyagraha

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind and returned all the war medals which were awarded to him by the British for his war services (during the First World War) in support of the Khilafat demand when the Central Khilafat Committee organised a general all-India hartal on August 1, 1920.


181. Robert Clive, the Governor General of the __________
A. Dutch
B. French
C. British
D. Portuguese

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Major-General Robert Clive, 1st Baron Clive, KB, FRS, also known as Clive of India, Commander-in-Chief of British India, was a British officer and privateer who established the military and political supremacy of the East India Company in Bengal.


182. Throughout the 19th century intermittent uprisings occurred in Malabar, especially in the __________ and Valluvanad taluks.Twenty two such riots were reported from different parts of Malabar
A. Ernad
B. Cochi
C. Travancore
D. Kannur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Throughout the 19th century intermittent uprisings occurred in Malabar, especially in the Ernad and Valluvanad taluks.Twenty two such riots were reported from different parts of Malabar.


183. During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Bengal to grow__________
A. Jute
B. Tea
C. Sugarcane
D. Wheat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Britisher invested in agriculture to fulfil the demand of raw materials required for industries in Britain. So, British persuaded or forced cultivator in Bengal to grow Jute (it also known as golden fibre).


184. What did the Rowlatt Act, 1919 empower the British government to do
A. Foment class and caste strife
B. Shut down any industrial unit at will
C. Extend the period of imprisonment for Indians
D. Detain a person for any duration without a trial

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial.


185. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was instructed by __________ to visit the court of Jahangir, the Mughal emperor of India
A. James I
B. Babur
C. Shajahan
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was instructed by James I to visit the court of Jahangir, the Moghul emperor of Hindustan to arrange a commercial treaty and to secure for the East India Company sites for commercial agencies. Sir Thomas was successful, and though the Great Moghul Jahangir was contemptuous of the presents sent him by James I, he sent him a remarkably polite letter.


186. In Bengal, the East India Company’s headquarters were located at
A. Fort St George
B. Fort william
C. Fort St David
D. Shantiniketan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The headquarters of East India Company were located at Fort William in Bengal. Fort William is a fort built in Calcutta (presently Kolkata) on the eastern banks of the River Hooghly, the major distributary of the River Ganges, during the early years of the Bengal Presidency of British India. It was named after King William III of England. In front of the Fort is the Maidan, which used to be a part of the Fort and is the largest urban park in Calcutta.


187. Who established the Sadr-Di-wani-Adalat during the British East India Company’s rule?
A. Wellesley
B. Warren Hastings
C. Dalhousie
D. Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Sadr-Di-wani-Adalat during Mughal and British rule in India was a High Court of Civil and Revenue matters.The Ṣadr Dīwānī ʿAdālat was the Supreme Court of Revenue in British India established at Calcutta by Warren Hastings in 1772. It was reformed in 1780 and again in 1793 by the British Parliament.


188. In 1612 __________established a trading post in Gujarat
A. British
B. French
C. Spain
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : British established a trading post in 1612 at Gujarat.


189. The first interim government during the British rule in India was formed in
A. September 1945
B. November 1945
C. September 1946
D. January 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On 2nd September 1946 the Interim Government of India was formed. This temporary government was formed from the Constituent Assembly of India (which was then newly elected). This government was entrusted the task of helping the transition of India and Pakistan from British rule to Independence as two separate nations.


190. After the commencement of the government of India Act-1858, what name was to British Governor-General of India?
A. Governor-General of India
B. Governor of the state
C. Viceroy of the state
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After the commencement of the government of India Act-1858, Viceroy of the state was to British Governor-General of India.


191. Author of Poverty and Un-British Rule in India is__________
A. Romila Thapar
B. Irfan Habib
C. S.
D. Naoroji Dadabhai

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Naoroji Dadabhai Is the author of books such as Poverty and Un-British Rule In India.


192. The English rounded Calcutta after obtaining the zamindari of three villages, viz Sutanuti, Kalikata and Govindpur, from the Mughal Viceroy of Bengal in 1698. The nucleus of the British settlement in Calcutta was
A. San Thome
B. Victoria Memeorial
C. Fort William
D. Howrah Port

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : the english rounded calcutta after obtaining the zamindari of three villages, viz sutanuti, kalikata and govindpur, from the mughal viceroy of bengal in 1698. The nucleus of the british settlement in calcutta was Fort William.


193. The inauguration of the Ganapati and Shivaji Festivals was done by
A. 1721
B. 1821
C. 1895
D. 1921

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The inauguration of the Ganapati and Shivaji Festivals was done by 1895.


194. __________, a judge of the Supreme Court founded the Asiatic society of Bengal in 1784 A.D
A. Sir William Jones
B. Warren Hastings
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Lord Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Asiatic Society was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones on 15 January 1784 in a meeting presided over by Sir William Jones, Justice of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William at the Fort William in Calcutta, then capital of the British Raj, to enhance and further the cause of Oriental research.


195. The Ilbert Bill introduced In Lord Ripon’s reign is significant because
A. it limited the Britishers political authority
B. it put restrictions on the vernacular press
C. it debarred Indians from entering the civil services
D. it removed racial discrimination from the judicial services

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The introduction of the bill led to intense opposition in Britain and from British settlers in India that ultimately played on racial tension before it was enacted in 1884 in a severely compromised state. The bitter controversy deepened antagonism between the British and Indians and was a prelude to the formation of the Indian National Congress in the next two years. There was also a strong protest among Europeans.


196. Who put on the statute book two obnoxious measures the Vernacular press Act and the Indian Arms Act
A. Lord Ripon
B. Lytton
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton put on the statute book two obnoxious measures— the vernacular press Act and Indian Arms Act. Lytton’ s unpopular acts provoked a great storm of opposition in the country and led to the organisation of various political associations for carrying an anti-Government propaganda in the country.


197. The Indian Civil Service Act was passed during the Viceroyalty of
A. Elgin
B. Canning
C. Minto
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Canning (1858–62): The Indian Councils Act of 1862 was passed, which proved to be a landmark in the constitutional history of India.


198. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act was passed during the viceroyalty of
A. Ripon
B. Curzon
C. Hastings
D. Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One of the most remarkable acts passed during the times of Lord Curzon was the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904. This act made any injury to the protected monuments an offence punishable under the law.


199. When did the British Govt. start ruling India directly?
A. After the Battle of Plassey
B. After the Battle of Panipat
C. After the war of Mysore
D. After Sepoy Mutiny

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : After Sepoy Mutiny rule established in 1857, British govt. started ruling over India, Governor general became the Viceroy and Lord Canning became the last Governor General and first Viceroy.


200. Diu was the colony of the __________
A. Portuguese
B. English
C. Dutch
D. French

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Daman and Diu were once part of a combined union territory along with Goa (a Konkani-speaking region), before Goa became a state in 1987. The use of Portuguese, which was the territory’s official language during the colonial period, is in decline and relegated to home use.


201. Lord Mountbatten had replaced Lord __________ as the viceroy of India in 1947
A. Wavell
B. Lytton
C. Linlithgow
D. Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Mountbatten had replaced Lord Wavell as the viceroy of India in 1947.


202. The First Opium War started__________
A. 1729
B. 1736
C. 1839
D. 1939

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The First Opium War, fought over opium trade, financial reparations, and diplomatic status, began in 1839 and was concluded by the Treaty of Nanking (Nanjing) in 1842.


203. Which of the following act led to the introduction of dual system of government in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Pitt’s India Act 1784 or the East India Company Act 1784 was passed in the British Parliament to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act 1773. It resulted in dual control or joint government in India by Crown in Great Britain and the British East India Company, with crown having ultimate authority.


204. What was the motive of Lord Wellesley to introduced the system of Subsidiary Alliance?
A. Improve the administration of the Indian States
B. Prevent disloyalty towards the British
C. Tone up the British Indian administration
D. Prevent the French influence in the Indian States

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Wellesley’s aims were expansionism and imperialism. He wan­ted to expand the British dominions in India to such an extent that it should become the sovereign power in India. His expansionist mind would not remain content with British remaining one of the powers in India, as such he set himself to the task of converting India into an empire of Britain. Another aim, which was ancillary to his main objective, was removal of French influence from India and to make possibility of French territorial expansion of India impossible.


205. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament?
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. GopalaKrishna Gokhale
C. Bipin Chandra Pal
D. Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Dadabhai Naroji was the first Anglo Indian to elect the British Parliament. He also known as Grand Old Man of India. He introduced, drain of wealth theory.


206. Which of the following events made the English East India Company the legitimate masters of the Bengal Suba?
A. Battle of Buxar 1764
B. Battle of Plassey 1757
C. Farrukh Siyar’s Farman 1717
D. Ibrahim Khan’s Farman 1690

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : English East India Company became the legitimate masters of Bengal Suba after battle of Buxar which was held on 22 Oct, 1764 between East lndia company led by Hector Munro and Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Mughal emperor Shah Alam, Nawab of Avadh Shira-jud-daula.


207. Which of the following Government of India Act introduced the diarchy system in the provinces of India?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dyarchy, also spelled diarchy, system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. Dyarchy was introduced as a constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu (secretary of state for India, 1917–22) and Lord Chelmsford (viceroy of India, 1916–21).


208. Nana Sahib the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II had become a great enemy of the British because
A. The Queen had humiliated him
B. He had lost his title
C. The British had stopped his pension
D. His estate had been snatched from him

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Nana Saheb was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. His annual pension was stopped because the British refused to recognize him as the legitimate heir to the throne as he was adopted.


209. British Prime Minister Attlee made the historic announcement of the end of British rule in India (and transfer of power to responsible Indian hands by a date not later than June1948) on
A. May 16 1946
B. February 20 1947
C. March 10 1946
D. December 31 1946

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Prime Minister of the United Kingdom announced on 20 February 1947 that: the British Government would grant full self-government to British India by 30 June 1948 at the latest, The future of the Princely States would be decided after the date of final transfer is decided.


210. The Viceroy who wanted to train Indian in the art of selfgovernment was
A. Mountbatten
B. Ripon
C. Northbrook
D. Curzon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Ripon was a true democrat. He took some steps towards liberalizing the administration in India. His aim was to give popular and political education to the Indians. He formulated the local self government and laid the foundations of representative institutions in India.


211. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct related to the Revolt of the Bhils? ,I. The Bhils revolted in 1818 due to the occupation of their territory by the British.,II. They defied British authority for 50 years from 1818.,III. Their revolt was finally ended by the British through military operations as well as conciliatory measures.,IV. The leader of the Bhil revolt was Ram Charan
A. I ; II
B. II ; III
C. I ; III
D. II ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The statements that are correct related to the Revolt of the Bhils are They defied British authority for 50 years from 1818. Their revolt was finally ended by the British through military operations as well as conciliatory measures.


212. Gandhi had been provoked into crusading for the lot of the Asians in South Africa by the British law called the Act
A. Apartheid
B. Blacks’ Registration
C. cl Asiatic Registration
D. Subcitizens’ Licence

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gandhi had been provoked into crusading for the lot of the Asians in South Africa by the British law called cl Asiatic Registration.


213. Where had civil rebellions against the British initially started?
A. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
B. Bengal and Bihar
C. Odisha
D. Madras and Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The civil rebellions against the British was initially started at Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.


214. Who was the Viceroy when Delhi became the capital of British India?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Minto
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Charles Hardinge was the Viceroy when the capital of India was shifted from Calcutta (now Kolkata) to Delhi in 1911. There is a well known medical college in Delhi named after the Viceroy.


215. Joseph François Dupleix was the commander of the __________ forces in India
A. French
B. British
C. American
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Joseph-François Dupleix was a colonial administrator and governor-general of the French territories in India, who nearly realized his dream of establishing a French empire in India.


216. The decisive battle of the third Carnatic War was waged between the French and the British at
A. Arcot
B. Jhansi
C. Plassey
D. Wandiwash

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Battle of Wandiwash was a decisive battle in India during the Seven Years’ War. The Count de Lally’s army, burdened by a lack of naval support and funds, attempted to regain the fort at Vandavasi, now in Tamil Nadu. This was the Third Carnatic War fought between the French and the British.


217. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct related to the Charter Act of 1793? ,I. Renewed the Charter of the Company for 20 more years.,II. Regulated the finances of the Company.,III. Lay down that the salaries of the Board of Control and their staffs were to be paid from the British revenues.,IV. Prohibited the Commander-in-Chief from being a member of the Governor General’s Council
A. I II ; III
B. I II ; IV
C. I ; II
D. II ; III

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The statements that are correct related to the Charter Act of 1793 were Renewed the Charter of the Company for 20 more years. Regulated the finances of the Company. Prohibited the Commander-in-Chief from being a member of the Governor General’s Council.


218. The correct Chronological order in which the British established their trading centre in the places mentioned below is
A. Calcutta Bombay Madras Surat
B. Bombay Madras Surat Calcutta
C. Surat Madras Bombay Calcutta
D. Surat Madras Calcutta Bombay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Britishers established there first trading center in Surat. After that in Madras, Calcutta and Bombay.


219. Punjab was annexed to the British empire during the reign of Governor General
A. Lord Bentinck
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Cornwallis
D. Lord Canning

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During the reign of Dalhousie East India Company annexed Punjab in 1849. Most of the Punjab region was annexed by the East India Company in 1849, and was one of the last areas of the Indian subcontinent to fall under British control. In 1858, the Punjab, along with the rest of British India, came under the direct rule of the British crown.


220. Who of the following Governor General is associated with Subsidiary Alliance System?
A. Lord Cornwallies
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Lord Mayo
D. Lord Delhousie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India. According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army.


221. Which of the following British official associated with the local self-government?
A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Northbrook
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.


222. Year of the Battle of Wandiwash is __________
A. 1560
B. 1660
C. 1760
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Battle of Wandiwash, (Jan. 22, 1760), in the history of India, a confrontation between the French, under the comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote. It was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years War (1756–63).


223. The Charter for the establishment of the East India Company was granted by
A. Queen Elizabeth I
B. Queen Anbolin
C. Queen Mary
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter granted to the East India Company. Queen Elizabeth I of England grants a formal charter to the London merchants trading to the East Indies, hoping to break the Dutch monopoly of the spice trade in what is now Indonesia.


224. By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of __________ to the East India Company
A. Rs 480000
B. Rs 400000
C. Rs 500000
D. Rs 300000

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of Rs 400,000 to the East India Company.


225. Assertion (A): In some places artisans and craftsmen participated in the Revolt of 1857. ,Reason (R): The British policy of ‘one-way’ free trade destroyed village industries and handicrafts in India
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Artisans and craftsmen were ruined by the large-scale influx of cheap British.


226. On imprisonment in 1908 by the British, Bal Gangadhar Tilak was in
A. Andaman and Nicobar
B. Rangoon
C. Singapore
D. Mandalay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Bal Gangadhar Tilak was imprisoned in 1908 to Mandalay for six years. Tilak criticise the Britishers in his newspaper, under a article name ‘Bharat ki Durdasha’ and this became the reason for his imprisonment.


227. Madras was returned by the French to the British in 1748 by the Treaty of
A. Paris
B. Delhi
C. London
D. Aix-la-Chapelle

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Madras was returned by the French to the British in 1748 by the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle.


228. Which of the following counterpart of British in the Treaty of Salbai?
A. The French
B. The Marathas
C. Tipu Sultan
D. The Nizam of Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Treaty of Salbai was signed on 17 May 1782, by representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company after long negotiations to settle the outcome of the First Anglo-Maratha War. David Anderson concluded the Treaty of Salbai on behalf of the East India Company.


229. The master stroke of Lord Wellesley to establish British paramountcy in India was
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Subsidiary Alliance
C. Mediatisation
D. Annexation of Indian States

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The master stroke of Lord Wellesley to establish British paramountcy in India was Subsidiary Alliance.


230. In what way did the early nationalists undermine the moral foundations of the British rule with great success?
A. By their agitation for Constitutional reforms
B. By advocating open revolt
C. By seeking foreign help against the British
D. By seeking the support of the Indians living abroad

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The very conditions of British rule helped the growth of national sentiment. Roy was the first Indian leader to start an agitation for political reforms in India. There is a moral evil which, if anything, is even greater.


231. In 1831 Bentinck signed a treaty with Ranjit Singh to protect the British territories from
A. Russian menace
B. Pindari menace
C. Rohelas
D. Attack by Burmese

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1831 Bentinck signed a treaty with Ranjit Singh to protect the British territories from Russian menace.


232. As a result of the partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in 1905, Bengal was partitioned into two provinces of
A. East Bengal and West Bengal
B. Bengal and Eastern Bengal ; Assam
C. Bengal and Assam
D. Bengal and Odisha and East Bengal and Assam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : As a result of the partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in 1905, Bengal was partitioned into two provinces of Bengal and Eastern Bengal & Assam.


233. Regulating Act was in the year of__________
A. 1573
B. 1673
C. 1773
D. 1873

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation of the British East India Company’s Indian territories, mainly in Bengal.


234. The Governor General of India who initiated the introduction of English in India was
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Macaulay
C. Lord Bentinck
D. Lord Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In India Lord Macaulay (Thomas Balington Macaulay) is fully credited with the official introduction of English education though the necessary order on the subject were given by Lord William Bentinck the governor general of India on 7th March 1835.


235. Who made remarkable contribution to the development of Local government?
A. Lord Ripon
B. Gladstone
C. W.W Hunter
D. Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Ripon made remarkable contribution to the development of local government. In 1882, he abandoned the existing system of local government by the officially nominated people.


236. Who among of the following was the Viceroy of India when Indian University Act, 1904 was passed?
A. Lord Dufferin
B. Lord Lansdowne
C. Lord Minto
D. Lord Curzon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : During the time period of Indian University act,1904 Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India.


237. When the Simon Commission visited India the Viceroy was
A. Lloyd George
B. Lord Irwin
C. Lord Reading
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Simon Commission had visited India on April 3, 1926 Lord Irwin was appointed 30th Viceroy and Governor-General of India. In 1927, British government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon.


238. Who was the Viceroy when the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place?
A. Hardinge-II
B. Chelmsford
C. Reading
D. Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India when Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April 13, 1919.


239. Seringapatnam was the capital of __________
A. Pazhassi Raja
B. Tipu Sultan
C. Kurumbranad Raja
D. Srimoolam Tirunal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1767 Maratha Peshwa Madhavrao defeated both Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan and entered Srirangapatna, the capital of Mysore.


240. Consider the following on the chronology of appointment of Viceroys ,I.Reading,II.Irwin,III.Wellingdon,IV.Linlithgow
A. I II III IV
B. III II IV II
C. IV III II I
D. II IV III I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The following on the chronology of appointment of Viceroys were Reading, Irwin, Wellingdon and Linlithgow.


241. On account of severe British repression the Civil Disobedience movement was again suspended In July 1933 and people were asked to offer Satyagraha
A. individually
B. in groups
C. locally
D. against liquor shops

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On account of severe British repression the Civil Disobedience movement was again suspended In July 1933 and people were asked to offer Satyagraha individually.


242. Who was Lord Morley?
A. Secretary of the state
B. Viceroy of India
C. Governor General of India
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Morley became secretary of state for India in Henry Campbell-Bannerman’s Cabinet of 1905.


243. The Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhi was in full swing during the Viceroyalty of
A. Chelmsford
B. Irwin
C. Reading
D. Hardinge

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhi was in full swing during the Viceroyalty of Reading.


244. Which of the following charter act ended the monopoly of trade of east India Company with china and sea route also?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The charter Act 1813 AD
C. Charter Act 1833 AD
D. The Regulating Act AD 1773

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, however the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in tea was remained intact. The charter act of 1813, for the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in India.


245. Queen Victoria’s famous proclamation, transferring authority from the East India Company to the Crown , was made from
A. London
B. Calcutta
C. Delhi
D. Allahabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Queen Victoria’s famous proclamation, A Royal Durbar was held at Allahabad in November 1, 1858. A proclamation was issued by Queen Victoria. It was read at the Durbar by Lord Canning, who was the last Governor General and the first Viceroy of India.


1. Who was the first Governor General of India?
A. Warren Hastings
B. William Bentick
C. Lord Delhousie
D. Lord Canning

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1773 to 1785. The first governor-general in India (of Bengal) was Warren Hastings, the first official governor-general of British India was Lord William Bentinck, and the first governor-general of the Dominion of India was Lord Mountbatten.


2. Who was the first Governor General of Bengal?
A. Robert Clive
B. William Bentinck
C. Warren Hasting
D. Col. Sanders

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Warren Hastings is the first British Governor General of Bengal. He took the charge as a Governor General on 20th October,1773.


3. The first Viceroy of India was
A. Lord Canning
B. Lord Hardinge
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Lord Elgin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Canning was the first Viceroy of India. The title of Viceroy was created in 1858 after the mutiny of 1857. Before 1858, East India Company was ruling large parts of India and the head of administration of the East India Company was called Governor General.


4. After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in
A. Tea Plantations
B. The Railways
C. Coal Mining
D. Jute Mills

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : After the year 1853, a substantial amount of British capital had been invested in the railways.


5. The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was
A. Lord Irwin
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Curzon
D. Lord Linlithgow

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The British Governor General and Viceroy who served for the longest period in India was Lord Dalhousie.


6. Which Government of India Act/charter Act generated the post of Governor-General of India?
A. Government of India Act -1858
B. Charter Act-1833
C. Charter Act-1853
D. Charter Act-1813

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. It deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. For the first time, the Governor-General’s Government was known as the ‘Government of India’ and his council as the ‘India Council’ in 1858.


7. The title of ‘Viceroy’ was added to the centre of the Governor-General of India for the first time in
A. 1848
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into “Governor-General of India.” The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


8. The Governor of the East India Company was
A. Appointed by the monarch of England
B. Appointed by the British Parliament
C. Elected by the members of the East India Company
D. Nominated by the Mughal Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Governor of the East India Company was Elected by the members of the East India Company itself.


9. The first constitutional measure introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was
A. the Act of 1919
B. the Act of 1935
C. Indian Independence Bill
D. Cabinet Mission Plan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first constitutional measure Introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was the Act of 1935.


10. Which of the following Act, ensured the establishment of the supreme court in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional development of India. Via this act, the British Parliament for the first time interfered into affairs of India.


11. Who was the Viceroy at the time of Quit India Movement?
A. Lord Mountbatten
B. Lord Wavell
C. Lord Linlithgow
D. Lord Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Lord Linlithgow (1936 – 1944) was the viceroy of India during Quit India Movement. The Quit India Movement (also known as the August Movement) was a civil disobedience movement launched by Mahatma Gandhi on August 8,1942 in Mumbai for complete independence


12. Sir Thomas Roe came to India with a letter from the British Monarch
A. Queen Mary
B. Queen Elizabeth
C. James I
D. Queen Anne

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : This event also started the process of transforming the British East India Company from a group of merchants, to an organization with military force. In 1614, King James I of England sent a diplomat, Sir Thomas Roe, to visit the Mughal emperor, Jahangir, and negotiate a trade treaty.


13. Subsidiary Alliance was introduced by __________
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Sir John Shore
C. Robert Clive
D. Lord Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India. According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army.


14. The policy of Doctrine of lapse was introduced by __________
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord William Bentinck
C. Lord Macaulay
D. Lord Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The doctrine of lapse was an annexation policy applied by the British East India Company in India until 1858. The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.


15. Assertion (A): On 25th April, 1809, the Treaty of Amritsar was signed between Ranjit Singh and East India Company.,Reason (R): Ranjit Singh wanted to increase the realm of his empire with the help of the company
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Treaty of Amritsar (1809) The Treaty of Amritsar of 1809 was an agreement between the British East India Company and Ranjit Singh, the Sikh leader who founded the Sikh empire.


16. Which of the following British official associated with the local self-government?
A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Northbrook
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.


17. Year of the Battle of Wandiwash is __________
A. 1560
B. 1660
C. 1760
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Battle of Wandiwash, (Jan. 22, 1760), in the history of India, a confrontation between the French, under the comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote. It was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years War (1756–63).


18. The Charter for the establishment of the East India Company was granted by
A. Queen Elizabeth I
B. Queen Anbolin
C. Queen Mary
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter granted to the East India Company. Queen Elizabeth I of England grants a formal charter to the London merchants trading to the East Indies, hoping to break the Dutch monopoly of the spice trade in what is now Indonesia.


19. By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of __________ to the East India Company
A. Rs 480000
B. Rs 400000
C. Rs 500000
D. Rs 300000

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of Rs 400,000 to the East India Company.


20. Assertion (A): In some places artisans and craftsmen participated in the Revolt of 1857. ,Reason (R): The British policy of ‘one-way’ free trade destroyed village industries and handicrafts in India
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Artisans and craftsmen were ruined by the large-scale influx of cheap British.


21. When the East India Company was formed, the Mughal emperor in India was
A. Jahangir
B. Humayun
C. Aurangzeb
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The East India Company was incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600. It was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India during the reign of Mughal Emperor Akbar (1556-1605).


22. The British India Society was formed in __________
A. 1832
B. 1833
C. 1839
D. 1874

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The British India Society (1839): Founded in London with the efforts of William Adam, one of the friends of Raja Ram Mohan Roy. He along with George Thompson, William Ednis, and Major General Briggs organised meetings and enlightened people about the miserable conditions in India.


23. When the Congress Ministries were formed in the provinces in June 1937, the Viceroy of India was
A. Lord Willingdon
B. Lord Irwin
C. Lord Linlithgow
D. Viscount Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The All-India Muslim League failed to form the government in any province. The Congress ministries resigned in October and November 1939, in protest against Viceroy Lord Linlithgow’s action of declaring India to be a belligerent in the Second World War without consulting the Indian people.


24. The first Mysore War Fought between the British and Hyder Ali in 1767- 1769 A.D., came to an end by the
A. Treaty of Pondicherry
B. Treaty of Madras
C. Treaty of Mysore
D. Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1767 Mysore was a powerful state under Hyder Ali. In 1769, the first Anglo-Mysore war was fought in which Haider Ali defeated the British and Treaty of Madras was signed between them. Haider Ali occupied almost the whole of Carnatic.


25. The British Government intervened in the affairs of the Company and passed an Act in 1773 A.D., known as the
A. Regulating Act
B. Pitt’s India Act
C. Charter Act
D. Company Act

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation of the British East India Company’s Indian territories, mainly in Bengal. The act was amended and the government of India was recast by Prime Minister William Pitt’s India Act of 1784.


26. According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, . . . . . . was ceded to the British
A. Malabar
B. Cochi
C. Travancore
D. Mysore

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : According to the terms of the treaty of Srirangapattanam, Malabar was ceded to the British.


27. The Treaty between Ranjit Singh and the British was signed at
A. Allahabad
B. Amritsar
C. Kashmir
D. Agra

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Treaty of Amritsar, (April 25, 1809), pact concluded between Charles T. Metcalfe, representing the British East India Company, and Ranjit Singh, head of the Sikh kingdom of Punjab. The British wanted a defensive treaty against the French and control of Punjab to the Sutlej River.


28. When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the__________
A. Hanoverians
B. Stuarts
C. Normans
D. Tudors

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When the East India Company came into existence, England was ruled by the Stuarts.


29. An ambassador of the British King James I, who secured favourable privileges for the East India Company from Emperor Jahangir, was
A. Hawkins
B. Henry Middleton
C. Thomas Roe
D. Josiah Child

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : From 1615 to 1618, he was ambassador to the court at Agra, India, of the Great Mughal Ruler, Jahangir. The principal object of the mission was to obtain protection for the East India Company`s factory at Surat. At the Mughal court, Roe allegedly became a favorite of Jahangir and may have been his drinking partner.


30. __________ , the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with its capital at Dhaka
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Rippon
C. Lord Hastings
D. Wellesley

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Curzon, the viceroy of India decided to partition Bengal for administrative purposes, creating a new province of East Bengal and Assam, with a population of 31 million people and with its capital at Dhaka.


31. Indian Mutiny began in __________
A. 1557
B. 1657
C. 1857
D. 1957

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Indian Rebellion of 1857 is also called the Indian Mutiny, the Sepoy Mutiny, North India’s First War of Independence or North India’s first struggle for independence. It began on 10 May 1857 at Meerut, as a mutiny of sepoys of the British East India Company’s army.


32. In which region did Birsa Munda operate against the British?
A. Punjab
B. Chhota Nagpur
C. Tarai
D. Manipur

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Birsa Munda was a great tribal leader belonging to the Munda Adivasi, the movement operate against British in Chhota Nagpur (Jharkhand) region.


33. The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was
A. Railways
B. Plantations and mines
C. Banking and insurance
D. Shipping

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The single biggest item of British capital investment in India was Railways.


34. Which of the Act made the governor of Bengal as Governor General of India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The charter Act 1813 AD
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. The Regulating Act AD 1773

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Warren Hastings was an English statesman and the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor General of India. Hastings brought the Dual Government system to an end by enforcing the Regulating Act of 1773.


35. Which of the following Government of India Act/Indian Council Act brought three separate presidencies (Madras, Bombay and Bengal) into a common system?
A. Indian Council Act of 1861
B. Government of India Act 1935
C. Government of India Act 1919
D. Indian Council Act of 1909

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Act for the first time introduced local representation in the Indian government. Rule of company in India ended and the rule of Crown started. The three presidencies (Madras, Bombay and Bengal) were three separate presidencies brought into a common system.


36. British Crown assumed sovereignty over Indian from the East Indian Company in the year
A. 1857
B. 1858
C. 1859
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The government of India Act (1858) also known as the act for Good Government of India transferred the power to the British crown from East India company.


37. “Treaty of Rajpurghat” was signed on December 25, 1805 between Holkar and __________
A. French
B. British
C. Portuguese
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Yashwantrao was the last to sign a treaty with the British, on 24 December 1805 at a place called Rajpur Ghat on the bank of Beas River. The treaty was named ‘The Treaty of Peace and Amity between the British Government and Yashwantrao Holkar.’


38. The llbert Bill controversy during the period of Lord Ripon exposed the racial bitterness of the British and united the Indians
A. Lytton
B. Lord Ripon
C. Queen Elizabeth
D. Queen Anne

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : British subjects in 1873 had been exempted from trial by Indian magistrates, and in cases involving death or transportation they could only be tried by a high court. But by 1883 the viceroy, Lord Ripon, proposed to make British subjects amenable to sessions courts, over which Indians were now senior enough in the civil service to preside. This proposal as embodied in the Ilbert Bill provoked furious protests, especially among the Calcutta (Kolkata) European business community and the Bengal indigo planters, and there was covert sympathy from many officials.


39. The Peshwaship was abolished by the British at the time of Peshwa
A. Raghunath Rao
B. Narayan Rao
C. Madhav Rao-II
D. Baji Rao-II

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Baji Rao II (10 January, 1775 – 28 January, 1851) was the last Peshwa of the Maratha Empire, and governed from 1795 to 1818. He was installed as a puppet ruler by the Maratha nobles, whose growing power prompted him to flee his capital Pune and sign the Treaty of Bassein (1802) with the British. The last Peshwa was Baji Rao-II. Duringhrs reign the peshwa ship was abolished by the British Government (Lord Harding-I, third Anglo Maratha battle).


40. The Vernacular Press Act was repealed by __________
A. Lord Ripon
B. Lord Lytton
C. Lord William Bentic
D. Gladstone

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Vernacular Press Act, in British India, law enacted in 1878 to curtail the freedom of the Indian-language (i.e., non-English) press. The law was repealed in 1881 by Lytton’s successor as viceroy, Lord Ripon (governed 1880–84).


41. Who among the following had been the leader of a number of anti-British revolts in Sambalpur?
A. Kattabomman
B. Surendra Sai
C. Utirat Singh
D. Sayyid Ahmad Barelvi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By virtue of the Doctrine of Lapse, Lord Dalhousie annexed Sambalpur in 1849, as Narayan Singh had no male successor to succeed him. During the uprising of 1857 the sepoys set Surendra Sai and his brother Udyant Sai free. The resistance to British continued in Sambalpur under the leadership of Surendra Sai.


42. By which Charter Act, the East India Company’s monopoly of trade with China come to an end?
A. Charter Act of 1793
B. Charter Act of 1813
C. Charter Act of 1833
D. Charter Act of 1853

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Charter Acts of 1813 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom which renewed the charter issued to the British East India Company, and continued the Company’s rule in India. However, the Company’s commercial monopoly was ended, except for the tea trade and the trade with China.


43. Which of the following is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading posts?
A. Bengal
B. Goa
C. Coromandel Coast
D. Gujarat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Goa is not among the regions where the Britishers had first set up trading posts.


44. Who propounded the theory of ‘Economic Drain of India’ during British imperialism?
A. W.
B. Bannerji
C. Dadabhai Naroji
D. Gandhiji

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji’s work focused on the drain of wealth from India to England during colonial rule of British in India. One of the reasons that the Drain theory is attributed to Naoroji is his decision to estimate the net national profit of India, and by extension, the effect that colonisation has on the country.


45. Who among the following who fought against British in 1857 Revolt?,
A. Kunwar Singh,B. Tantia Tope,C. Nana Saheb,D. Maulavi Ahmaduallah
A. All of the above
B. A c and d
C. A b and c
D. B c and d

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : All of these four leaders fought against British in 1857 Revolt -Kunwar Singh- Bihar, Tanitia Tope- Gwalior, Nana Saheb- Kanpur, Maulavi Ahmaduallah- Faizabad.


46. During colonial period, British capital was mainly invested in
A. Infra structure
B. Industry
C. Agriculture
D. Services

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Agriculture was mainly invested by British during colonial period, the raw material related to agriculture was compulsory for industry during colonial period.


47. The British attitude towards granting India independence changed partly owing to the
A. Change in the government of the UK
B. Impact of World War II
C. Growing tide of Indian Nationalism
D. All of the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The British attitude towards granting India independence changed partly owing to the Change in the government of the UK, Impact of World War II, Growing tide of Indian Nationalism.


48. In 1650 Gabriel Boughton, an employee of the Company obtained a license for trade in __________
A. Bengal
B. Orissa
C. Mysore
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1650, Gabriel Boughton an employee of the Company obtained a license for trade in Bengal. An English factory was set up in 1651 at Hugli.


49. ‘We do not seek our independence out of Britain’s ruin’ said
A. Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru
B. Mahatma Gandhi
C. Gokhale
D. Rabindranath Tagore

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Its true that Gandhi did have a compromising attitude towards the British during WWII and even stated that “We do not seek independence out of Britain’s ruin”. Though Gandhi was the most influential figure in the political scenario at the time, it’s important to remember that simply because he wanted to maintain a compromising attittude towards the British, many of the other political leaders of the time did not wish to do so.


50. The United East India Company refers to the company in India formed by the
A. Portuguese
B. Dutch
C. French
D. British

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The United East Indian Company (Dutch: Vereenigde Oost-Indische Compagnie; VOC), referred to by the British as the Dutch East India Company, was originally established as a chartered company in 1602, when the Dutch government granted it a 21-year monopoly on Dutch spice trade.


51. The East India Company had taken Bombay from
A. The Dutch
B. Charles I
C. Charles II
D. The Portuguese

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The East India Company had taken Bombay from Charles II. On 21 May 1662, the marriage treaty of Charles II of England and Catherine of Braganza, daughter of King John IV of Portugal, placed Bombay in possession of the British Empire, as part of dowry of Catherine to Charles.


52. The new proletariat class which emerged in India on account of the British economic policies, consisted of
A. Money lenders
B. Landlords
C. Traders
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The new proletariat class which emerged in India on account of the British economic policies, consisted of Money lenders, Landlords, Traders.


53. At which place in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651 ?
A. Calcutta
B. Qasim Bazar
C. Singur
D. Burdwan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : At Qasim Bazar in Bengal was the East India Company given permission to trade and build a factory by the Mughals in 1651. East India Company established a factory at Qasim Bazar by the permission Mughals in 1651.


54. As per ‘August Offer’ the British objective for India was __________
A. Dominion Status
B. Puma Swaraj
C. Responsible Government
D. Provincial Authority

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The August Offer was a proposal made by the British government in 1940 promising the expansion of the Executive Council of the Viceroy of India to include more Indians, the establishment of an advisory war council, giving full weight to minority opinion, and the recognition of Indians’ right to frame their own constitution (after the end of the war). The Congress rejected the August Offer. Nehru said, “Dominion status concept is dead as a door nail.” Gandhi said that the declaration had widened the gulf between the nationalists and the British rulers.


55. Who had, while fasting in the prison, written to the British governor, The individual must die so that the nation may live. Today, I must die so that India may win freedom and glory?
A. Jatin Das
B. Lala Lajpat Rai
C. MK Gandhi
D. SC Bose

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Jatin Das, while fasting in the prison, written to the British governor, The individual must die so that the nation may live. Today, I must die so that India may win freedom and glory.


56. The Indian naval mutiny against the British took place in the year
A. 1857
B. 1919
C. 1946
D. 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Naval Ratings mutiny took place in 1946. Basically, it started as the sailors were dissatisfied with the food they were given. This snowballed into a mutiny against British rule. The mutiny started in Bombay Dock.


57. The land was owned by temples known as __________
A. Dewaswam
B. Brahmaswam
C. Cherikkal
D. Kanam

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In Kerala, temples are managed by Devaswom Board,which comes under the government of Kerala.


58. Dyer was __________ by the Government of Britain
A. Sentenced for life
B. Sentenced to death
C. Rewarded with honour
D. Relieved of his service

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : After the Punjab disturbances, O’Dyer was relieved of his office by the government of Britain.


59. The capital of British India was transferred from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
A. 1911
B. 1912
C. 1920
D. 1925

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Delhi was officially announced as the capital of British Raj by the then-Emperor George V, on December 12, 1911. The capital was shifted from Calcutta as Delhi was the financial and political seat of many earlier empires and was located closer to the geographical center of India.


60. The transfer of Government from the ‘Company’ to the ‘Crown’ was pronounced by Lord Canning (November 1, 1858) at
A. Calcutta
B. Delhi
C. Patna
D. Allahabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : To declare the assumption of the Government of India by the crown a Durbar was held at Allahabad on November 1, 1858, by the Viceroy Lord Canning. Queen`s proclamation was read by Lord Canning. As per the proclamation, the administration of India came into the direct hands of British Government.


61. During the period of which Governor General Viceroy was the Indian Civil Service introduced?
A. Dalhousie
B. Curzon
C. Bentick
D. Conrnwallis

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Cornwallis realised that in order to consolidate the British rule in India, it was very important to organise the civil services. Civil Services was started by Lord Cornwallis and hence he is called the “Father of Indian Civil Service”.


62. Who said that he had not become His Majesty’s first Minister to preside over the liquidation of the British Empire?
A. Attlee
B. Churchill
C. Disraeli
D. Loyd George

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Churchill said that the Charter did not apply to India, for he had ‘not become His Majesty’s first minister to preside over the liquidation of the British empire’.


63. Which of the following authorised the British Government to imprison any person without trial and conviction in a court of law
A. Rowlatt Act of 1919
B. Government of India Act of 1935
C. Indian Council Act of 1909
D. Government Of India Act of 1919

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : As per the Rowlatt act the govemment had the power to arrest any person without showing any reason, the acts were threat to the civil liberties. Later, this act became the reason for occurrence of Jallianwala Bagh Tragedy.


64. The Seven Years’ War (1756-1763) resulted in the defeat of the__________ forces
A. American
B. British
C. French
D. Russian

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1756, the British formally declared war against France. In addition, Spanish attempts to aid France in the Americas had failed, and France also suffered defeats against British forces in India. The Seven Years’ War ended with the signing of the treaties of Hubertusburg and Paris in February 1763.


65. India became independent during the vice royalty of
A. William Bentinck
B. Wellesley
C. Wavell
D. Mountbatten

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Mountbatten: Last Viceroy of India (1947-1948) Lord Mountbatten served as last Viceroy of India from 12 February 1947 – 15 August 1947; and then first Governor General of Free India from 15 August 1947 – 21 June 1948. During his tenure, India got independence in the form of two dominions of India Pakistan.


66. The Company lost all its administrative powers__________
A. By the Government of India Act of 1658
B. By the Government of India Act of 1758
C. By the Government of India Act of 1858
D. By the Government of India Act of 1958

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : British Parliament brought the Government of India Act, 1858, which made the following changes: i. Transferred powers from the East India Company to the Crown. ii. A member of British Parliament was made secretary of state of India to exercise powers on behalf of the Crown and was responsible to the British Parliament. iii. The Governor General for India was provided with an Executive Council, whose decision he was empowered to override.


67. The momentous decision to transfer the capital from Calcutta to Delhi, to annul the partition of Bengal and to abolish Indian indentured labour were taken during the Viceroyalty of Lord
A. Hardinge
B. Minto
C. Chelmsford
D. Reading

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : At that time, Lord Hardinge was the Governor General of the British held territories in India, and he was the one that shifted the capital of India from Calcutta to Delhi.


68. Till the end of the 17th Century the growth of the executive and legislative powers of the East india Company depended on
A. Governor
B. Governor-General
C. Parliament
D. Crown

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Till the end of the 17th Century the growth of the executive and legislative powers of the East india Company depended on Crown.


69. In November 1781, Sir Eyre Coote defeated __________ at Porto Nova
A. Hyder Ali
B. Marthanda Verma
C. British
D. Tipu Sultan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Battle of Porto Novo was fought on 1 July 1781 between forces of the Kingdom of Mysore and British East India Company in the place called Porto Novo (now known as Parangipettai) on the Indian subcontinent, during the Second Anglo-Mysore War. The British force, numbering more than 8,000 under the command of Sir Eyre Coote defeated a force estimated at 40,000 under the command of Hyder Ali.


70. The English East Company achieved a major victory over the Portuguese in the Battle of __________ in 1612
A. Buxar
B. Plassey
C. Swally
D. Trafalgar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The naval Battle of Swally, also known as Battle of Suvali, took place on 29–30 November 1612 off the coast of Suvali (anglicised to Swally) a village near the Surat city (now in Gujarat, India) and was a victory for four English East India Company galleons over four Portuguese galleons and 26 barks (rowing vessels with no armament).


71. The first Indian to be elected as a member of the British House of Commons was
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Surendra Nath Banerjee
C. Dr BR Ambedkar
D. C R Das

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji was elected to the British house of commons from the Finsbury Central Constituency in the elections of 1892 by a narrow margin of 3 votes by defeating Fredrick Thomas Penton. Being a subject of the British crown (Being a citizen of British India) he was allowed to take part in the election.


72. The first Indian to contest an election to the British House of Commons was
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. Womesh Chandra Banerjee
C. Surendranath Banerjee
D. Pheroze Shah Mehta

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first Indian to contest an election to the British House of Commons was Womesh Chandra Banerjee.


73. The first Bengali Drama, written to highlight the brutality of the British indigo planters, was
A. Rast Goftar
B. Neel Darpan
C. Shome Prakash
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Nil Darpan (The Indigo Mirror) is a Bengali play written by Dinabandhu Mitra in 1858–1859. The play was published in Dhaka in 1860, under a pseudonym of the author. The play was essential to Nil Vidroha, better known as the Indigo Revolt of February–March 1859 in Bengal, when farmers refused to sow indigo in their fields to protest against exploitative farming under the British Raj.


74. The Treaty of Lahore was signed between the Sikhs and the British in India in the year
A. 1836
B. 1846
C. 1856
D. 1866

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Treaty of Lahore was signed on 9 March 1846 after the First Sikh War. After the defeat of the Sikhs at the Battle of Sobraon the British were able to march into Lahore without any further battles. After the British reached the city of Lahore the treaty was signed.


75. The privileges of free trade granted to the English East India Company were confirmed in 1717 by Emperor
A. Bahadur Shah
B. Farrukh-Siyar
C. Muhammad Shah
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Emperor Farrukhsiyar issued the British East India Company such a farman in 1717. It allowed the Company to live and trade for free in Mughal India except for an annual payment. They were also given the right to issue dastak or trade permits to transfer goods, which the officials largely used for their own gains.


76. Who was the Governor General of India during the Civil Disobedience Movement?
A. Lord Chelmsford
B. Lord Reading
C. Lord Irwin
D. Lord Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Lord Irwin was the Governor General and Viceroy of India (1926-1931). On April 3, 1926 Lord Irwin was appointed 30th Viceroy and Governor-General of India. This was the most tumultuous period for the politics of India.


77. Who tried to rediscover India’s past?
A. Lord Lytton
B. Max Muller
C. S.N. Banerjee
D. Gokahale

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Max Muller


78. The process of the introduction of education in English had been initiated in India by Lord
A. Curzon
B. Bentick
C. Hastings
D. Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Thomas Babington Macaulay was the secretary to the Board of control of India during the British rule. He was the secretary under Lord Grey from 1832 to 1833. He is known for his Minute on Indian Education which came out in February 1835. He wanted to teach English to the people of India and not Sanskrit or Persian.


79. Select the correct chronological sequence of the following events?,I. Appointment of the Simon Commission.,II. Formation of the first Labour Government in Britain.,III. Submission of the Nehru report.,IV. Inauguration of the First Round Table Conference
A. II I III ; IV
B. I III IV ; II
C. I II IV ; III
D. II IV I ; III

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation :
I. Appointment of the Simon Commission – November 1927
II. Formation of the first Labour Government in Britain – January 1924
III. Submission of the Nehru report – August 1928
IV. Inauguration of the First Round Table Conference – November 1930


80. What was meant by the secretary of State of India during the British?
A. An official who worked as the Secretary to the Viceroy of India
B. A Secretary level official appointed in each Presidency of India
C. A British minister given full control over the Government of India
D. A senior officer appointed the Viceroy to look into his internal administration in India

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Secretary of State is also deemed as Political Head of India. The post was created in Charter Act of 1858. The first Secretary of state was Lord Stanley.


81. Dadabhai Naoroji’s book ‘poverty and un British rule in India’ published in __________ analysed the nature of the British rule in India
A. 1898
B. 1901
C. 1908
D. 1946

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Naoroji published Poverty and un-British Rule in India in 1901. It analysed the nature of the British rule in India.


82. Who among the British Governor- General shown great interest in the preservation of ancient monuments?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Ripon
C. Lord Lytton
D. Lord Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Governor- General Lord Curzon shown great interest in the preservation of ancient monuments.


83. When the East India Company was established India was ruled by
A. a Mughal Emperor
B. a Gupta Emperor
C. a Mauryan Emperor
D. a Sunga Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : When the East India Company was established India was ruled by a Mughal Emperor.


84. Who among the following revolutionaries was executed by the British
A. Jitin Das
B. Chandrashekhar Azad
C. Rajguru
D. Kalpana – Dutt

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Shivaram Hari Rajguru (24 August 1908 – 23 March 1931) was an Indian revolutionary from Maharashtra, known mainly for his involvement in the assassination of a British Raj police officer.


85. During the Second World War the British forces were defeated at __________
A. London
B. Dunkirk
C. Paris
D. Liverpool

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : As part of the Battle of France on the Western Front, the Battle of Dunkirk was the defence and evacuation to Britain of British and other Allied forces in Europe from 26 May to 4 June 1940. After the Phoney War, the Battle of France began in earnest on 10 May 1940.


86. Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta on 20 April 1843, was the __________ political public association to be formed in British India, the first being the zamindari association (1837)
A. First
B. Second
C. Third
D. Fourth

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bengal British India Society founded in Calcutta on 20 April 1843, was the Second political public association to be formed in British India, the first being the zamindari association (1837).


87. Under the Government of India __________, the British Crown assumed direct administration of India in the new British Raj
A. Act of 1658
B. Act of 1758
C. Act of 1858
D. Act of 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Government of India Act 1858 was passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


88. The East India Association was founded by __________ in 1866
A. Lord Lyveden
B. Raja radhakanta dev
C. Debendranath Tagore
D. Dadabhai Naoroji

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.


89. Who among the following Indian cracks the British Indian Civil Services Examination in the first time of Indian Histroy?
A. Satyendranath Tagore
B. R.
C. Dutt
D. Surendranath Banerjee

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Satyendranath Tagore became first Indian who cracked I.C.S. or Indian Civil Service examination.


90. The term of office fixed by Regulating Act for Governor General was
A. 4 years
B. 5 years
C. 3 years
D. 2 years

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Regulating Act ( May 3, 1773): In 1765, after the battle of Buxer the East India Company got the Diwani ( Right to collect Revenue) of Bengal , Bihar and Orissa. The Governor General was assisted by four councilors. Their tenure of office was fixed for 5 years.


91. Which Governor General had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar?
A. Minto-I
B. William Bentinck
C. Hastings
D. Auckland

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Governor General William Bentinck had entertained Ranjit Singh with great honour at Ropar.


92. Which of the following statement is not correct about the provisions of the Government of India Act,1858?
A. The Queen’s Principal Secretary of State received the powers and duties of the Company’s Court of Directors
B. A council of fifteen members was appointed to assist the Secretary of State for India
C. For all the communications between Britain and India the Secretary of State became the real channel
D. All the above statements are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


93. Which of the following is not the provision of the government of India Act, 1858?
A. India was to be governed in the Queen’s name
B. The Queen’s Principal Secretary of State received the powers and duties of the Company’s Court of Directors
C. Provision for the creation of an Indian Civil Service under the control of the Secretary of State
D. The British Parliament was empowered to appoint a Governor-General and the Governors of the Presidencies

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1858 was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom passed on August 2, 1858. Its provisions called for the liquidation of the British East India Company (who had up to this point been ruling British India under the auspices of Parliament) and the transference of its functions to the British Crown.


94. Who was the prime minister of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858?
A. Lord Palmerston
B. Russell II
C. Edward Smith-Stanley
D. Benjamin Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Palmerston was the prime minister of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858.


95. Who was the monarch of Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act, 1858?
A. William IV
B. Victoria
C. Edward VII
D. George V

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In August 1858, the British parliament passed an act that set an end to the rule of the company. The control of the British government in India was transferred to the British crown. At this time, Victoria was the queen of Britain.


96. Who was the supreme body in the Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act- 1858?
A. Queen Victoria
B. The British Parliament
C. Government of Britan
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The British Parliament was the supreme body in the Britain at the time of commencement of the Government of India Act- 1858.


97. Which of the following is not correct about Montegu- Chelmsford’s Reform & Government of India Act, 1919?
A. It changed the administrative system in India
B. In this Act the central legislative council was replaced by two houses-the imperial legislative assembly and the council of state
C. Education and public health were placed under charge of ministers responsible to the legislature
D. All of the above are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Montagu–Chelmsford Reforms or more briefly known as Mont-Ford Reforms were reforms introduced by the colonial government in British India to introduce self-governing institutions gradually to India. The reforms take their name from Edwin Samuel Montagu, the Secretary of State for India during the latter parts of World War I and Lord Chelmsford, Viceroy of India between 1916 and 1921. The reforms were outlined in the Montagu-Chelmsford Report prepared in 1918 and formed the basis of the Government of India Act 1919.


98. Which of the following is not the part of Government of India Act, 1935
A. This act provided for setting up of the federation of India comprising British Indian provinces
B. Diarchy in the provinces was replaced by provincial autonomy
C. The post of Indian council of secretary of state for India made permanent
D. The diarchy was introduced at the centre

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first Secretary of state was Lord Stanley, who prior to 2 August 1858, served as President of the Board of Control. The Secretary of State was now the political head of the India.


99. Which of the following is not the provision of government of India act, 1935?
A. This act ended the system of diarchy
B. The structure for “Federation of India” was established for both British India and some or all of the “princely states”
C. Burma became the part of India
D. The introduction of direct elections thus increasing the franchise from seven million to thirty-five million people

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The British colony of Burma was part of the British run-state in India, the Empire of India, from 1824 to 1937. It is not the provision of government of India act, 1935.


100. Warren Hastings was appointed as the Governor of __________ in 1772
A. Bengal
B. Madras
C. Bombay
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Warren Hastings (6 December 1732 – 22 August 1818), an English statesman, was the first Governor of the Presidency of Fort William (Bengal), the head of the Supreme Council of Bengal, and thereby the first de facto Governor-General of India from 1772 to 1785.


101. Which one of the following events did not take place during the Viceroyalty of Lord Curzon?
A. Establishment of the department of Archaeology
B. Second Delhi Durbar
C. Formation of Indian National Congress
D. Partition of Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Indian National congress was fromed in 1885 during the Viceroyalty of Lord Dufferin. The first Chairman of INC was W.C.Banerjee.


102. The Simla Conference called by Viceroy Lord Wavell (to discuss the so-called Wavell Plan) in June 1945 failed on account of
A. Jinnah’s demand that the Muslim League alone would nominate Muslim members to the Executive Council
B. the demand of the Congress to include the members of all communities in their quota to the Executive Council
C. the demand of the Scheduled Castes to reserved seats in the Executive Council in Proportion to their population
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Simla Conference called by Viceroy Lord Wavell (to discuss the so-called Wavell Plan) in June 1945 failed on account of Jinnah’s demand that the Muslim League alone would nominate Muslim members to the Executive Council, the demand of the Congress to include the members of all communities in their quota to the Executive Council, the demand of the Scheduled Castes to reserved seats in the Executive Council in Proportion to their population.


103. Lord Cornwallis had introduced the __________ land tenure system
A. Zamindari
B. Ryotwari
C. Mahalwari
D. Inamdari

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Immediately after putting his legs in India, Lord Cornwallis in 1786 opined once-for-all settlement with the zamindars for the collection of land revenue. In fact, Lord Cornwallis cut the Gordian knot in 1790 when the decennial permanent settlement system was decided to be introduced in Bengal, Bihar, and Orissa.


104. Lytton was selected as Viceroy to India to fulfill the ambitious plans of Disraeli in __________
A. Awadh
B. Afghanistan
C. Bengal
D. Burma

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton was selected as Viceroy to India to fulfill the ambitious plans of Disraeli in Afghanistan.


105. Who said that the exploitative nature of British rule was ‘Bleeding India White’?
A. Tilak
B. Dadabhai Naoroji
C. Hume
D. Annie Besant

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dadabhai Naoroji said that the exploitative nature of British rule was ‘Bleeding India White’.


106. Which Indian ruler had requested Napoleon for help in driving the British away from India?
A. Shivaji
B. Jai Singh
C. Tipu Sultan
D. Rani of Jhansi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tipu Sultan had requested Napoleon for help in driving the British away from India.


107. Rani Laxmi Bai died fighting the British in the Battle of
A. Jhansi
B. Kanpur
C. Gwalior
D. Kalpi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On June 18th 1858, Rani Lakshmibai of Jhansi, one of the most important figures of India’s First War of Independence, died while fighting against the British in Gwalior.


108. In which year was the title of Governor general chanced to that of the Viceroy?
A. 1858
B. 1861
C. 1878
D. 1885

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


109. The Mutiny was brought to an end with the fall of __________ into the hands of the British in India
A. Meerut
B. Awadh
C. Gwalior
D. Rohilkhand

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mutiny was brought to an end with the fall of Gwalior into the hands of the British in India.


110. The permanent settlement was made in Bengal in the sphere of revenue administration by
A. William Pitt
B. Hastings
C. William Bentic
D. Lord Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Permanent Settlement (also Premanent Settlement of Bengal) was introduced by Lord Cornwallis in 1793. It was an agreement between the British East India Company and the Landlords of Bengal to settle the Land Revenue to be raised.


111. When were Morley-Minto reforms taken place?
A. 1905
B. 1909
C. 1919
D. 1857

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Indian Councils Act 1909, commonly known as the Morley-Minto Reforms (or as the Minto-Morley Reforms), was an Act of the Parliament of the United Kingdom that brought about a limited increase in the involvement of Indians in the governance of British India.


112. The writers of the East India Company had their training in the college at __________ in England
A. London
B. Manchester
C. Liverpool
D. Haileybury

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The writers of the East India Company had their training in the college at Haileybury in England.


113. Gandhiji’s famous Quit India movement call to the British was given in
A. 1943
B. 1941
C. 1942
D. 1940

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gandhiji launched Quit India Movement on 8th August 1942 in Bombay session of congress. It is also known as August revolutoion.


114. Lord __________ is regarded to have been the father of local self-government in India
A. Ripon
B. Bentinck
C. Curzon
D. Mayo

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known as Father of Local Self Government in India. This was not enacted by any act, it was a resolution that was passed in 1882.


115. Which war lord is also known as ‘little corporal’
A. Alexander
B. Julius Caesar
C. Napoleon Bonaparte
D. Genghis Khan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Napoleon Bonaparte war lord is also known as ‘little corporal’.


116. The greatest contribution of the British rule to the growth of India nationalism was the __________
A. Introduction of western education in India
B. Racial arrogance of the British
C. Denial of Higher Jobs to deserving Indians
D. Queen’s proclamation of 1858

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Introduction of western education was another important factor which paved the way for the growth of nationalism. Three main agencies were responsible for the spread of modem education in India. They were the foreign Christian missionaries, the British Government and the progressive Indians.


117. During the Viceroyalty of Sir John Lawrence the bone of contention between India and Bhutan was
A. Duars
B. Jalpaiguri
C. Goalpara
D. Cooch Behar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : During the Viceroyalty of Sir John Lawrence the bone of contention between India and Bhutan was Duars.


118. The arrival of Vasco da Gama in Calicut, India on __________
A. 1398
B. 1495
C. 1496
D. 1498

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Vasco Da Gama sailed from Lisbon on July 8, 1497, with a crew of 170 men. He arrived at Calicut (now Kozhikode) on May 20, 1498.


119. The island of Bombay had been given to the British Prince Charles II as dowry by the
A. Dutch
B. Portuguese
C. Danish
D. French

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The island of Bombay had been given to the British Prince Charles II as dowry by the Portuguese.


120. Assertion (A): East India Association in London was organised by Dadabhai Naoroji.,Reason (R): He wanted to influence the British public opinion
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The East India Association was founded by Dadabhai Naoroji in 1866, in collaboration with Indians and retired British officials in London. It superseded the London Indian Society and was a platform for discussing matters and ideas about India, and to provide representation for Indians to the Government.


121. During the first hundred years of the British rule in India, people’s resentment and opposition to the British policies mainly surfaced in the form of
A. Tribal uprisings
B. Peasant uprisings
C. Civil uprisings
D. Both (a) and (b) above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : During the first hundred years of the British rule in India, people’s resentment and opposition to the British policies mainly surfaced in the form of tribal uprisings, peasant uprisings.


122. The Permanent Settlement was enforced on__________
A. 1693
B. 1793
C. 1893
D. 1933

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The rules of the permanent settlement made every individual zamindar and talukdar the permanent and absolute proprietors of the land under their control. As absolute proprietors of land, zamindars and talukdars were required to pay revenue to government at a rate fixed permanently.


123. Who set up the dual system of administration in Bengal?
A. Robert Clive
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Dupleix
D. Lord Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Dual System of Government in Bengal was the brainchild of Lord Clive.


124. MSP means __________
A. Malabar Special Police
B. Mysore Special police
C. Madras Special police
D. Mappila Special Police

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Malabar Special Police (MSP) is a paramilitary unit of the State Police of Kerala.


125. Lord Lytton had lowered the age limit for Indian for the ICS from 21 year to
A. 20 years
B. 19 years
C. 18 years
D. 17 years

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The age for eligibility in civil services was brought down from 21 to 19 years by Lord Lytton.


126. In the 18th Century the Royal prerogative in the affairs of the East India Company was controlled by
A. The Viceroy’s Council
B. The Indian Legislature
C. The Parliament in England
D. The Secretary of State

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In the 18th Century the Royal prerogative in the affairs of the East India Company was controlled by The Parliament in England.


127. In March 1942, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill appointed the Cripps Mission to resolve Indian political crisis because
A. he was under pressure from the US President Roosevelt
B. of the gravity of the Japanese war menace on India’s borders
C. both (a) and (b) above
D. of INA’s initial success on India’s eastern borders

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In March 1942, British Prime Minister Winston Churchill appointed the Cripps Mission to resolve Indian political crisis because he was under pressure from the US President Roosevelt and of the gravity of the Japanese war menace on India’s borders.


128. As the unrest continued unabatedly, the Madras government appointed . . . . . . the collector of Malabar as special commissioner to enquire into the causes of the uprisings and recommend remedial measures.
A. Connolly
B. William Logan
C. S.N. Banerjee
D. Gokahale

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : William Logan (1841–1914) was a Scottish officer of the Madras Civil Service under the British Government. Before his appointment as Collector of Malabar, he had served in the area for about twenty years in the capacity of Magistrate and Judge. He was conversant in Malayalam, Tamil and Telugu.


129. Which of the following British Prime Minister headed the First Round Table Conference in London?
A. Churchill
B. Ramsay McDonald
C. Chamberlain
D. Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Round Table Conference officially inaugurated by George V on November 12, 1930 in Royal Gallery House of Lords at London and chaired by the British Prime Minister, Ramsay MacDonald. The three British political parties were represented by sixteen delegates.


130. In 1661 the company obtained __________ from Charles II
A. Bombay
B. Madras
C. Kannur
D. Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On 11 May 1661, the marriage treaty of Charles II of England and Catherine of Braganza, daughter of King John IV of Portugal, placed Bombay in the possession of the British Empire, as part of Catherine’s dowry to Charles.


131. __________ started an all-India campaign for restoring the entrance age of 21 and for simultaneous ICS examination in India
A. Gokahale
B. S.N. Banerjee
C. Tilak
D. William Logan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : S.N. Banerjee started an all-India campaign for restoring the entrance age of 21 and for simultaneous ICS examination in India.


132. Who among the following Viceroys became a victim of one of the convicts during his visit to the Andamans?
A. Curzon
B. Mayo
C. Ripon
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Mayo was stabbed when he was in Andamans. He was first and last Viceory murdered in India.


133. India was granted freedom during the British Prime Minister
A. Clement Attlee
B. Winston Churchill
C. Ramsay Mac Donald
D. William Pitt

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Indian Independence Act 1947 passed on 1st August 1947 by the British Parliament in reign of Prime minister Clement Attlee (Labour party). On 14 August 1947 India divided into two dominion states Pakistan (14th August) and India (15th August).


134. By the Charter Act of 1813 the Indian trade except in __________ was thrown open to all British subjects
A. Tea
B. Spices
C. Coffee
D. Cotton

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, however the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in tea with India was kept intact. Thus, trade with India for all commodities except Tea was thrown open to all British subjects.


135. Before the Regulating Act was passed in 1773, there was __________ at home to administer the East India Company
A. A Committee of 24
B. A Secretary
C. A Council of Lords
D. A Board of Revenue

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Before the Regulating Act was passed in 1773, there was A Committee of 24 at home to, administer the East India Company.


136. Which of the following act of India ensured the partition of India?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : It was passed to expand participation of Indians in the government of India. The Act embodied the reforms recommended in the report of the Secretary of State for India, Edwin Montagu, and the Viceroy, Lord Chemlsford. The Act covered ten years, from 1919 to 1929. The Act received royal assent on 23 December 1919.


137. Which of the following British official intiated the Doctrine of Lapse?
A. Lord Wellesley
B. Lord Auckland
C. Lord Dalhousie
D. Warren Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The policy is most commonly associated with Lord Dalhousie, who was the Governor General of the East India Company in India between 1848 and 1856.


138. The exclusive right of trading between __________ was granted to the East India Company
A. North America and South America
B. Red Sea and Caspian Sea
C. The Cape of Good Hope and the Straits of Magellan
D. France and Poland

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The exclusive right of trading between The Cape of Good Hope and the Straits of Magellan was granted to the East India Company.


139. Despite holding a monopoly, the East India Company had faced competition from what it had termed as the ‘interlopers’ represented by the
A. Portuguese
B. Indigenous merchants
C. British free merchants
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Despite holding a monopoly, the East India Company had faced competition from what it had termed as the ‘interlopers’ represented by the British free merchants.


140. The Act constituting the first legislative interference by the British Parliament in the affairs of India was the
A. Fox’s India Act 1783
B. Pitt’s India Act 1784
C. Regulating Act 1773
D. Declaratory Act 1781

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Regulating Act 1773 was an Act of the Parliament of Great Britain intended to overhaul the management of the East India Company’s rule in India.


141. The only Viceroy to be assassinated in India was
A. Lord Harding
B. Lord Northbrook
C. Lord Ellenborough
D. Lord Mayo

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Mayo was killed by an Afridi Pathan Sher Ali Afridi in Port Blair of Andaman and Nicobar on 8th Feb, 1972.


142. Which Government of India Act/charter Act generated the post of Governor-General of India?
A. Government of India Act -1858
B. Charter Act-1833
C. Charter Act-1853
D. Charter Act-1813

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under this provision Lord William Bentinck became the first Governor-General of India. It deprived the Governors of Bombay and Madras of their legislative powers. For the first time, the Governor-General’s Government was known as the ‘Government of India’ and his council as the ‘India Council’ in 1858.


143. British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at__________
A. Calcutta
B. Pune
C. Madras
D. Bombay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Indian Association was founded on October 29, 1851 at Calcutta with Raja Radhakanta Dev and Debendranath Tagore as its President and Secretary respectively. Other members of the Association included Ramgopal Ghosh, Peary Chand Mitra and Krishnadas Pal. Its membership was kept exclusive to Indians.


144. Who defeated the Spanish Armada?
A. Elizabeth I
B. Elizabeth II
C. Henry VIII
D. James I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The defeat of the Spanish Armada in 1588 has long been held as one of England’s greatest military achievements. The successful defence of the kingdom against invasion on such an unprecedented scale boosted the prestige of England’s Queen Elizabeth I and encouraged a sense of English pride and nationalism.


145. The title of ‘Viceroy’ was added to the centre of the Governor-General of India for the first time in
A. 1848
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Government of India Act 1833 converted the title into “Governor-General of India.” The title “Viceroy and Governor-General” was first used in the queen’s proclamation appointing Viscount Canning in 1858.


146. The Governor of the East India Company was
A. Appointed by the monarch of England
B. Appointed by the British Parliament
C. Elected by the members of the East India Company
D. Nominated by the Mughal Emperor

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Governor of the East India Company was Elected by the members of the East India Company itself.


147. Which British Governor General introduced Postage Stamp in India?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Auckland
C. Lord Canning
D. Lord William Bentinck

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Dalhousie introduced Postage stamp, he also introduced Railway, Telegram and PWD.


148. Who among the following British persons admitted the Revolt of 1857 as a national revolt?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Canning
C. Lord Ellenborough
D. Disraeli

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : British member of Parliament (House of commons) Benziman Disraeli admitted the revolt of 1857 as a National Revolt. V.D. SavarKar describe this revolt as the Indian’s first struggle for Independence.


149. The first constitutional measure introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was
A. the Act of 1919
B. the Act of 1935
C. Indian Independence Bill
D. Cabinet Mission Plan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first constitutional measure Introduced by the British in India which worked till the framing of the Indian Constitution was the Act of 1935.


150. Which of the following Act, ensured the establishment of the supreme court in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Regulating Act of 1773 was the first landmark in the constitutional development of India. Via this act, the British Parliament for the first time interfered into affairs of India.


151. Who among the following analysed the causes of the uprising of 1857 advocating a reconciliation between the British and the Muslims?
A. Sayyed Ahmad Brelvi
B. Shah Waliullah
C. Sayyed Ahmad Khan
D. Sayyed Amir Ali

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : During the Indian Rebellion of 1857, he remained, loyal to the British Empire and was noted for his actions in saving European lives. After the rebellion, he penned the booklet ‘The Causes of the Indian Mutiny’ – a daring critique, at the time, of British policies that he blamed for causing the revolt. Believing that the future of Muslims was threatened by the rigidity of their orthodox outlook, Sir Syed began promoting Western–style scientific education by founding modern schools and journals and organising Muslim entrepreneurs.


152. Lytton held an Imperial Durbar at Delhi in 1877 to announce __________ as the Empress of India at a time when a large part of the country was in the grip of a severe famine
A. Queen Elizabeth
B. Queen Victoria
C. Queen Anne
D. Queen Marie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton held an Imperial Durbar at Delhi in 1877 to announce Queen Victoria as the Empress of India at a time when a large part of the country was in the grip of a severe famine.


153. During British rule, who was instrumental for the introduction of the Ryotwari system in the then Madras Presidency?
A. Macaulay
B. Elphinstone
C. Thomas Munro
D. John Lawrence

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Thomas Munro and Captain Reid known as the father of the Ryotwari Settlement in India. It was firstly introduced in district ‘BARAMAHAL’ of Tamilnadu. By this settlement the Ryott-Cultivator was recognised as a owner of field and he had to pay revenue to British Government directly.


154. The East India Company was established in the year
A. 1607 AD
B. 1600 AD
C. 1700 AD
D. 1669 AD

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The East India Company was an English company formed for the exploitation of trade with East and Southeast Asia and India. Incorporated by royal charter on December 31, 1600, it was started as a monopolistic trading body so that England could participate in the East Indian spice trade.


155. The ‘Sepoy Mutiny’ was in the year __________
A. 1657
B. 1757
C. 1765
D. 1857

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Indian Mutiny, also called Sepoy Mutiny, widespread but unsuccessful rebellion against British rule in India in 1857–58. Begun in Meerut by Indian troops (sepoys) in the service of the British East India Company, it spread to Delhi, Agra, Kanpur, and Lucknow.


156. Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance against the East India Company dominated in __________
A. Gujarat
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Fakir-Sannyasi Resistance an armed resistance of the combined body of Muslim fakirs (sufis) and Hindu sannyasis (yogis) against the dominance of the English East India Company in Bengal. This resistance began in 1760 and continued for more than four decades.


157. Assertion (A): The announcement of the Simon Commission aroused widespread Indian resentment. ,Reason (R): The British Government in defiance of the opinion of all parties in India had deliberately decided to appoint an all British Commission
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The British Government in defiance of the opinion of all parties in India had deliberately decided to appoint an all British Commission.


158. The Treaty of Mangalore was in the year __________
A. 1484
B. 1584
C. 1684
D. 1784

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Treaty of Mangalore was signed between Tipu Sultan and the British East India Company on 11 March 1784. It was signed in Mangalore and brought an end to the Second Anglo-Mysore War.


159. Arrange the following in chronological order:,I. Viceroy Lytton,II. Viceroy Mayo,III. Viceroy Lansdowne,IV. Viceroy Linlithgow
A. II III I IV
B. II I III IV
C. IV III II I
D. III IV I II

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Viceroy Mayo- Richard Southwell Bourke, 6th Earl of Mayo, KP, GCSI, PC, styled Lord Naas between 1842 and 1867, called Lord Mayo in India, was a statesman, Viceroy of India and prominent member of the British Conservative Party from Dublin, Ireland. Viceroy Lytton- Robert Bulwer-Lytton, 1st Earl of Lytton GCB GCSI GCIE PC was an English statesman, Conservative politician, and poet. He served as Viceroy of India between 1876 and 1880 – during his tenure as which Queen Victoria was proclaimed Empress of India – and as British Ambassador to France from 1887 to 1891. Viceroy Lansdowne- Henry Charles Keith Petty-Fitzmaurice, 5th Marquess of Lansdowne, KG, GCSI, GCMG, GCIE, PC was a British statesman who served successively as the fifth Governor General of Canada, Viceroy of India, Secretary of State for War, and Secretary of State for Foreign Affairs. Viceroy Linlithgow- Victor Alexander John Hope, 2nd Marquess of Linlithgow, KG, KT, FRSE, GCSI, GCIE, OBE was a British Unionist politician, agriculturalist and colonial administrator. He served as Governor-General and Viceroy of India from 1936 to 1943. He was usually referred to simply as Linlithgow.


160. During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Assam to grow__________
A. Jute
B. Tea
C. Sugarcane
D. Wheat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The trade of tea was most profitable to Britishers that’s why they turned to cultivator in Assam to grow Tea.


161. On which day had premier Attlee conceded that the British would quit India by June, 1948?
A. January 26 1947
B. August 15 1947
C. January 26 1948
D. February 20 1947

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : February 20, 1947 had premier Attlee conceded that the British would quit India by June, 1948.


162. The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act __________
A. 1856
B. 1858
C. 1865
D. 1946

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Hindu Widows Remarriage Act of 1856, provided legal safeguards against loss of certain forms of inheritance for remarrying a Hindu widow, though, under the Act, the widow forsook any inheritance due her from her deceased husband.


163. I. Bengal Nawab was captured and put to death by Mir Jafar in the Battle of Plassey, 1757., II. After Mir Qasim, Nizam-ud-daula was made the Nawab of Bengal., III. The same person acted as the deputy Dewan on behalf of the East Indian Company and as Deputy Subedar on behalf of the Bengal Nawab., IV. In 1767, British Government ordered the East India Company to pay £400,000 per year.,Which of these statement(s) is/are correct related to the Bengal Politics during the 18th century?
A. I ; II
B. I ; III
C. II ; IV
D. III ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The same person acted as deputy Dewan on behalf of the East Indian Company and as Deputy Subedar on behalf of the Bengal Nawab. The British East India Company was suffering from massive amounts of debts incurred primarily from annual contractual payments due to the British government totaling £400,000 per year.


164. What did the Hunter Commission appointed by the Viceroy probe?
A. Bardoli Satyagraha
B. Khilafat Agitation
C. Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
D. Chauri Chaura incident

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After Jallianwala Bagh tragedy a commission was estb. under William Wilson Hunter in 1919. It is known as Hunter commission but the report of commission was rejected by INC,and new commission was estb. under Madan Mohan Malviya.


165. The British colonial policies in India proved moat ruinous for Indian
A. agriculture
B. trade
C. industry
D. handicrafts

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : the british colonial policies in india proved moat ruinous for indian handicrafts. The real blow to Indian handicrafts fell after 1813, when they lost not only their foreign markets but, what was of much greater importance, their market in India itself. The Industrial Revolution in Britain completely transformed Britain’s economy and its economic relations with India.


166. The violent Mappilas stormed the bunglow of the District Magistrate . . . . . . and murdered him in 1855
A. H.V. Connolly
B. William Logan
C. Lord Ripond
D. Gladstone

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : At about 9 p.m. on the evening of 11 September 1855 Conolly was attacked and killed at the Collector’s Residence at West Hill Bungalow, Calicut by a small group of Mappilas. Conolly was buried in what is now Conolly Park, near South Beach Road; the headstone of his tomb was moved to the premises of the C.S.I. St. Mary’s English Church, Calicut in 1997.


167. The first Indian Governor of a British Province (Bihar) in India was
A. Sir SP Sinha
B. Sir Shaukat Hayat
C. Sir Hari Singh Gaur
D. VJ Patel

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : He was the first Governor of Bihar and Orissa, first Indian Advocate-General of Bengal, first Indian to become a member of the Viceroy’s executive Council and the first Indian to become a member of the British ministry. He is sometimes also referred as Satyendra Prasanno Sinha or Satyendra Prasad Sinha.


168. The Treaty of Surat was in the year __________
A. 1475
B. 1575
C. 1675
D. 1775

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Treaty of Surat (6 March 1775) was a treaty by which Raghunathrao, one of the claimants to the throne of the Peshwa, agreed to cede Salsette and Bassein Fort to the English, in consideration of being himself restored to Poona. The military operations that followed are known as the First Anglo-Maratha War.


169. Assertion (A): British excluded the Indian middle and upper classes from the high administrative and military posts. ,Reason (R): Many of the traditional zamindars lost their zamindaris to the new class of urban-based absentee landlords
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Many of them lost their zamindaris to the new class of urban-based absentee landlords due to the introduction of the zamindari or the new class of urban-based absentee landlords due to the introduction of zamindari or the permanent settlement, and the strict manner of revenue collection by the British.


170. Which of the following is not the provision of The Act of 1892?
A. A simultaneous examination of ICS to be held in England and India
B. Reforms of the legislative council and adoption of the principle of election in place of nomination
C. Support of the annexation of Upper Burma
D. Reduction in the Military expenditure

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Burma achieved independence from British rule on 4 January 1948.


171. August Offer 1940 was made by the Viceroy
A. Willingdon
B. Linlithgow
C. Minto
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : On 8 August 1940, early in the Battle of Britain, the Viceroy of India, Lord Linlithgow, made the so-called “August Offer”.


172. The British introduced the railways in India in order to
A. Promote heavy industries in India
B. Facilitate British commerce and adminitstrative control
C. More foodstuff in case of famine
D. Enable Indians to move freely within the country

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : British Introduced the railways in India (1853) to facilitate British commerce and administrative control.


173. In 1877 the entrance age to ICS was reduced from 21 to __________
A. 17
B. 18
C. 19
D. 20

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1877 the entrance age to ICS was reduced from 21 to 19.


174. Charles Wood’s Despatch__________
A. 1554
B. 1684
C. 1784
D. 1854

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sir Charles Wood, the President of the Board of Control, had an important effect on spreading English learning and female education in India. When in 1855 he sent a despatch to Lord Dalhousie, the then Governor-General of India.Wood suggested that primary colleges must adopt vernacular languages, high schools must adopt Anglo verncular language and on college level English medium for education. This is known as Wood’s despatch. Vocational and women’s education were not stressed upon.


175. Consider the following according to the correct chronological order of the Governors-General during British India,I. Wellesley,II. Marquess of Hastings,III. Amherst,IV. Bentinck
A. I II III ; IV
B. II I IV ; III
C. I III II ; IV
D. III I II ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The correct chronological order of the Governors-General during British India were Wellesley, Marquess of Hastings, Amherst, Bentinck.


176. The State Jhansi was made a part of the British Empire in India through
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Policy of Subsidiaty Alliance
C. War against Rani Lakshmi Bai
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Dalhousie introduced the Doctrine of Lapse i.e any princely state under the direct influence of East India Company, as a vassal state under the British Subsidiary System would automatically be annexed if the ruler was either “manifestly in competent or died without a male heir. The series of state annexed – Satara, Jaipur, Sambhal pur, Jhansi (1854).


177. The first strategically placed factory that the Britishers had fortified was at
A. Surat
B. Bombay
C. Masulipatnam
D. Madras

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Englishmen’s easy success in trade and in establishing independent and fortified settlements at Madras and at Bombay, and the preoccupation of Aurangzeb with the anti-Maratha campaigns led the English to abandon the role of humble petitioners.


178. Who convinced the British in 1829 to outlaw Sati?
A. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
B. Swami Dayananda Saraswati
C. Lokmanya Tilak
D. Bhagat Singh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Raja Ram Mohan Roy convinced the British in 1829 to outlaw Sati.


179. The Vernacular Press Act was passed in __________
A. 1878
B. 1881
C. 1888
D. 1898

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The act was proposed by Lord Lytton, then Viceroy of India, and was unanimously passed by the Viceroy’s Council on 14 March 1878.


180. Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind and returned all the war medals which were awarded to him by the British for his war services (during the First World War)
A. in protest against the Jallianwala Bagh tragedy
B. during the Non-Cooperation Movement
C. in support of the Khilafat demand when the Central Khilafat Committee organised a general all-India hartal on August 1 1920
D. during the Champaran Satyagraha

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mahatma Gandhi gave up the title of Kaiser-i-Hind and returned all the war medals which were awarded to him by the British for his war services (during the First World War) in support of the Khilafat demand when the Central Khilafat Committee organised a general all-India hartal on August 1, 1920.


181. Robert Clive, the Governor General of the __________
A. Dutch
B. French
C. British
D. Portuguese

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Major-General Robert Clive, 1st Baron Clive, KB, FRS, also known as Clive of India, Commander-in-Chief of British India, was a British officer and privateer who established the military and political supremacy of the East India Company in Bengal.


182. Throughout the 19th century intermittent uprisings occurred in Malabar, especially in the __________ and Valluvanad taluks.Twenty two such riots were reported from different parts of Malabar
A. Ernad
B. Cochi
C. Travancore
D. Kannur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Throughout the 19th century intermittent uprisings occurred in Malabar, especially in the Ernad and Valluvanad taluks.Twenty two such riots were reported from different parts of Malabar.


183. During their rule the British persuaded or forced cultivators in Bengal to grow__________
A. Jute
B. Tea
C. Sugarcane
D. Wheat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Britisher invested in agriculture to fulfil the demand of raw materials required for industries in Britain. So, British persuaded or forced cultivator in Bengal to grow Jute (it also known as golden fibre).


184. What did the Rowlatt Act, 1919 empower the British government to do
A. Foment class and caste strife
B. Shut down any industrial unit at will
C. Extend the period of imprisonment for Indians
D. Detain a person for any duration without a trial

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Rowlatt Acts, (February 1919), legislation passed by the Imperial Legislative Council, the legislature of British India. The acts allowed certain political cases to be tried without juries and permitted internment of suspects without trial.


185. In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was instructed by __________ to visit the court of Jahangir, the Mughal emperor of India
A. James I
B. Babur
C. Shajahan
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1614 Sir Thomas Roe was instructed by James I to visit the court of Jahangir, the Moghul emperor of Hindustan to arrange a commercial treaty and to secure for the East India Company sites for commercial agencies. Sir Thomas was successful, and though the Great Moghul Jahangir was contemptuous of the presents sent him by James I, he sent him a remarkably polite letter.


186. In Bengal, the East India Company’s headquarters were located at
A. Fort St George
B. Fort william
C. Fort St David
D. Shantiniketan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The headquarters of East India Company were located at Fort William in Bengal. Fort William is a fort built in Calcutta (presently Kolkata) on the eastern banks of the River Hooghly, the major distributary of the River Ganges, during the early years of the Bengal Presidency of British India. It was named after King William III of England. In front of the Fort is the Maidan, which used to be a part of the Fort and is the largest urban park in Calcutta.


187. Who established the Sadr-Di-wani-Adalat during the British East India Company’s rule?
A. Wellesley
B. Warren Hastings
C. Dalhousie
D. Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Sadr-Di-wani-Adalat during Mughal and British rule in India was a High Court of Civil and Revenue matters.The Ṣadr Dīwānī ʿAdālat was the Supreme Court of Revenue in British India established at Calcutta by Warren Hastings in 1772. It was reformed in 1780 and again in 1793 by the British Parliament.


188. In 1612 __________established a trading post in Gujarat
A. British
B. French
C. Spain
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : British established a trading post in 1612 at Gujarat.


189. The first interim government during the British rule in India was formed in
A. September 1945
B. November 1945
C. September 1946
D. January 1947

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On 2nd September 1946 the Interim Government of India was formed. This temporary government was formed from the Constituent Assembly of India (which was then newly elected). This government was entrusted the task of helping the transition of India and Pakistan from British rule to Independence as two separate nations.


190. After the commencement of the government of India Act-1858, what name was to British Governor-General of India?
A. Governor-General of India
B. Governor of the state
C. Viceroy of the state
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After the commencement of the government of India Act-1858, Viceroy of the state was to British Governor-General of India.


191. Author of Poverty and Un-British Rule in India is__________
A. Romila Thapar
B. Irfan Habib
C. S.
D. Naoroji Dadabhai

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Naoroji Dadabhai Is the author of books such as Poverty and Un-British Rule In India.


192. The English rounded Calcutta after obtaining the zamindari of three villages, viz Sutanuti, Kalikata and Govindpur, from the Mughal Viceroy of Bengal in 1698. The nucleus of the British settlement in Calcutta was
A. San Thome
B. Victoria Memeorial
C. Fort William
D. Howrah Port

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : the english rounded calcutta after obtaining the zamindari of three villages, viz sutanuti, kalikata and govindpur, from the mughal viceroy of bengal in 1698. The nucleus of the british settlement in calcutta was Fort William.


193. The inauguration of the Ganapati and Shivaji Festivals was done by
A. 1721
B. 1821
C. 1895
D. 1921

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The inauguration of the Ganapati and Shivaji Festivals was done by 1895.


194. __________, a judge of the Supreme Court founded the Asiatic society of Bengal in 1784 A.D
A. Sir William Jones
B. Warren Hastings
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Lord Macaulay

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Asiatic Society was founded by civil servant Sir William Jones on 15 January 1784 in a meeting presided over by Sir William Jones, Justice of the Supreme Court of Judicature at Fort William at the Fort William in Calcutta, then capital of the British Raj, to enhance and further the cause of Oriental research.


195. The Ilbert Bill introduced In Lord Ripon’s reign is significant because
A. it limited the Britishers political authority
B. it put restrictions on the vernacular press
C. it debarred Indians from entering the civil services
D. it removed racial discrimination from the judicial services

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The introduction of the bill led to intense opposition in Britain and from British settlers in India that ultimately played on racial tension before it was enacted in 1884 in a severely compromised state. The bitter controversy deepened antagonism between the British and Indians and was a prelude to the formation of the Indian National Congress in the next two years. There was also a strong protest among Europeans.


196. Who put on the statute book two obnoxious measures the Vernacular press Act and the Indian Arms Act
A. Lord Ripon
B. Lytton
C. Raja Ram Mohan Roy
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lytton put on the statute book two obnoxious measures— the vernacular press Act and Indian Arms Act. Lytton’ s unpopular acts provoked a great storm of opposition in the country and led to the organisation of various political associations for carrying an anti-Government propaganda in the country.


197. The Indian Civil Service Act was passed during the Viceroyalty of
A. Elgin
B. Canning
C. Minto
D. Lytton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Canning (1858–62): The Indian Councils Act of 1862 was passed, which proved to be a landmark in the constitutional history of India.


198. The Ancient Monuments Preservation Act was passed during the viceroyalty of
A. Ripon
B. Curzon
C. Hastings
D. Dalhousie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One of the most remarkable acts passed during the times of Lord Curzon was the Ancient Monuments Preservation Act of 1904. This act made any injury to the protected monuments an offence punishable under the law.


199. When did the British Govt. start ruling India directly?
A. After the Battle of Plassey
B. After the Battle of Panipat
C. After the war of Mysore
D. After Sepoy Mutiny

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : After Sepoy Mutiny rule established in 1857, British govt. started ruling over India, Governor general became the Viceroy and Lord Canning became the last Governor General and first Viceroy.


200. Diu was the colony of the __________
A. Portuguese
B. English
C. Dutch
D. French

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Daman and Diu were once part of a combined union territory along with Goa (a Konkani-speaking region), before Goa became a state in 1987. The use of Portuguese, which was the territory’s official language during the colonial period, is in decline and relegated to home use.


201. Lord Mountbatten had replaced Lord __________ as the viceroy of India in 1947
A. Wavell
B. Lytton
C. Linlithgow
D. Cornwallis

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Mountbatten had replaced Lord Wavell as the viceroy of India in 1947.


202. The First Opium War started__________
A. 1729
B. 1736
C. 1839
D. 1939

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The First Opium War, fought over opium trade, financial reparations, and diplomatic status, began in 1839 and was concluded by the Treaty of Nanking (Nanjing) in 1842.


203. Which of the following act led to the introduction of dual system of government in India?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The Regulating Act AD 1773
C. Charter Act 1793 AD
D. Charter Act 1813 AD

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Pitt’s India Act 1784 or the East India Company Act 1784 was passed in the British Parliament to rectify the defects of the Regulating Act 1773. It resulted in dual control or joint government in India by Crown in Great Britain and the British East India Company, with crown having ultimate authority.


204. What was the motive of Lord Wellesley to introduced the system of Subsidiary Alliance?
A. Improve the administration of the Indian States
B. Prevent disloyalty towards the British
C. Tone up the British Indian administration
D. Prevent the French influence in the Indian States

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Wellesley’s aims were expansionism and imperialism. He wan­ted to expand the British dominions in India to such an extent that it should become the sovereign power in India. His expansionist mind would not remain content with British remaining one of the powers in India, as such he set himself to the task of converting India into an empire of Britain. Another aim, which was ancillary to his main objective, was removal of French influence from India and to make possibility of French territorial expansion of India impossible.


205. Who was the first Indian to be elected to the British Parliament?
A. Dadabhai Naoroji
B. GopalaKrishna Gokhale
C. Bipin Chandra Pal
D. Lala Lajpat Rai

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Dadabhai Naroji was the first Anglo Indian to elect the British Parliament. He also known as Grand Old Man of India. He introduced, drain of wealth theory.


206. Which of the following events made the English East India Company the legitimate masters of the Bengal Suba?
A. Battle of Buxar 1764
B. Battle of Plassey 1757
C. Farrukh Siyar’s Farman 1717
D. Ibrahim Khan’s Farman 1690

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : English East India Company became the legitimate masters of Bengal Suba after battle of Buxar which was held on 22 Oct, 1764 between East lndia company led by Hector Munro and Mir Qasim (Nawab of Bengal), Mughal emperor Shah Alam, Nawab of Avadh Shira-jud-daula.


207. Which of the following Government of India Act introduced the diarchy system in the provinces of India?
A. Government of India Act 1909
B. Government of India Act 1919
C. Government of India Act 1935
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Dyarchy, also spelled diarchy, system of double government introduced by the Government of India Act (1919) for the provinces of British India. Dyarchy was introduced as a constitutional reform by Edwin Samuel Montagu (secretary of state for India, 1917–22) and Lord Chelmsford (viceroy of India, 1916–21).


208. Nana Sahib the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II had become a great enemy of the British because
A. The Queen had humiliated him
B. He had lost his title
C. The British had stopped his pension
D. His estate had been snatched from him

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Nana Saheb was the adopted son of Peshwa Baji Rao II. His annual pension was stopped because the British refused to recognize him as the legitimate heir to the throne as he was adopted.


209. British Prime Minister Attlee made the historic announcement of the end of British rule in India (and transfer of power to responsible Indian hands by a date not later than June1948) on
A. May 16 1946
B. February 20 1947
C. March 10 1946
D. December 31 1946

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Prime Minister of the United Kingdom announced on 20 February 1947 that: the British Government would grant full self-government to British India by 30 June 1948 at the latest, The future of the Princely States would be decided after the date of final transfer is decided.


210. The Viceroy who wanted to train Indian in the art of selfgovernment was
A. Mountbatten
B. Ripon
C. Northbrook
D. Curzon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Ripon was a true democrat. He took some steps towards liberalizing the administration in India. His aim was to give popular and political education to the Indians. He formulated the local self government and laid the foundations of representative institutions in India.


211. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct related to the Revolt of the Bhils? ,I. The Bhils revolted in 1818 due to the occupation of their territory by the British.,II. They defied British authority for 50 years from 1818.,III. Their revolt was finally ended by the British through military operations as well as conciliatory measures.,IV. The leader of the Bhil revolt was Ram Charan
A. I ; II
B. II ; III
C. I ; III
D. II ; IV

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The statements that are correct related to the Revolt of the Bhils are They defied British authority for 50 years from 1818. Their revolt was finally ended by the British through military operations as well as conciliatory measures.


212. Gandhi had been provoked into crusading for the lot of the Asians in South Africa by the British law called the Act
A. Apartheid
B. Blacks’ Registration
C. cl Asiatic Registration
D. Subcitizens’ Licence

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gandhi had been provoked into crusading for the lot of the Asians in South Africa by the British law called cl Asiatic Registration.


213. Where had civil rebellions against the British initially started?
A. Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
B. Bengal and Bihar
C. Odisha
D. Madras and Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The civil rebellions against the British was initially started at Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.


214. Who was the Viceroy when Delhi became the capital of British India?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Minto
C. Lord Hardinge
D. Lord Wavell

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Charles Hardinge was the Viceroy when the capital of India was shifted from Calcutta (now Kolkata) to Delhi in 1911. There is a well known medical college in Delhi named after the Viceroy.


215. Joseph François Dupleix was the commander of the __________ forces in India
A. French
B. British
C. American
D. Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Joseph-François Dupleix was a colonial administrator and governor-general of the French territories in India, who nearly realized his dream of establishing a French empire in India.


216. The decisive battle of the third Carnatic War was waged between the French and the British at
A. Arcot
B. Jhansi
C. Plassey
D. Wandiwash

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Battle of Wandiwash was a decisive battle in India during the Seven Years’ War. The Count de Lally’s army, burdened by a lack of naval support and funds, attempted to regain the fort at Vandavasi, now in Tamil Nadu. This was the Third Carnatic War fought between the French and the British.


217. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct related to the Charter Act of 1793? ,I. Renewed the Charter of the Company for 20 more years.,II. Regulated the finances of the Company.,III. Lay down that the salaries of the Board of Control and their staffs were to be paid from the British revenues.,IV. Prohibited the Commander-in-Chief from being a member of the Governor General’s Council
A. I II ; III
B. I II ; IV
C. I ; II
D. II ; III

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The statements that are correct related to the Charter Act of 1793 were Renewed the Charter of the Company for 20 more years. Regulated the finances of the Company. Prohibited the Commander-in-Chief from being a member of the Governor General’s Council.


218. The correct Chronological order in which the British established their trading centre in the places mentioned below is
A. Calcutta Bombay Madras Surat
B. Bombay Madras Surat Calcutta
C. Surat Madras Bombay Calcutta
D. Surat Madras Calcutta Bombay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Britishers established there first trading center in Surat. After that in Madras, Calcutta and Bombay.


219. Punjab was annexed to the British empire during the reign of Governor General
A. Lord Bentinck
B. Lord Dalhousie
C. Lord Cornwallis
D. Lord Canning

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During the reign of Dalhousie East India Company annexed Punjab in 1849. Most of the Punjab region was annexed by the East India Company in 1849, and was one of the last areas of the Indian subcontinent to fall under British control. In 1858, the Punjab, along with the rest of British India, came under the direct rule of the British crown.


220. Who of the following Governor General is associated with Subsidiary Alliance System?
A. Lord Cornwallies
B. Lord Wellesley
C. Lord Mayo
D. Lord Delhousie

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Subsidiary Alliance System was “Non-Intervention Policy” used by Lord Wellesley who was the Governor-General (1798-1805) to establish British Empire in India. According to this system, every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army.


221. Which of the following British official associated with the local self-government?
A. Lord Mayo
B. Lord Dufferin
C. Lord Northbrook
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lord Ripon is known to have granted the Indians first taste of freedom by introducing the Local Self Government in 1882. His scheme of local self government developed the Municipal institutions which had been growing up in the country ever since India was occupied by the British Crown.


222. Year of the Battle of Wandiwash is __________
A. 1560
B. 1660
C. 1760
D. 1860

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Battle of Wandiwash, (Jan. 22, 1760), in the history of India, a confrontation between the French, under the comte de Lally, and the British, under Sir Eyre Coote. It was the decisive battle in the Anglo-French struggle in southern India during the Seven Years War (1756–63).


223. The Charter for the establishment of the East India Company was granted by
A. Queen Elizabeth I
B. Queen Anbolin
C. Queen Mary
D. Queen Victoria

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Charter granted to the East India Company. Queen Elizabeth I of England grants a formal charter to the London merchants trading to the East Indies, hoping to break the Dutch monopoly of the spice trade in what is now Indonesia.


224. By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of __________ to the East India Company
A. Rs 480000
B. Rs 400000
C. Rs 500000
D. Rs 300000

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : By the Act of 1773, Parliament granted a loan of Rs 400,000 to the East India Company.


225. Assertion (A): In some places artisans and craftsmen participated in the Revolt of 1857. ,Reason (R): The British policy of ‘one-way’ free trade destroyed village industries and handicrafts in India
A. Both A and R is true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R is true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Artisans and craftsmen were ruined by the large-scale influx of cheap British.


226. On imprisonment in 1908 by the British, Bal Gangadhar Tilak was in
A. Andaman and Nicobar
B. Rangoon
C. Singapore
D. Mandalay

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Bal Gangadhar Tilak was imprisoned in 1908 to Mandalay for six years. Tilak criticise the Britishers in his newspaper, under a article name ‘Bharat ki Durdasha’ and this became the reason for his imprisonment.


227. Madras was returned by the French to the British in 1748 by the Treaty of
A. Paris
B. Delhi
C. London
D. Aix-la-Chapelle

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Madras was returned by the French to the British in 1748 by the Treaty of Aix-la-Chapelle.


228. Which of the following counterpart of British in the Treaty of Salbai?
A. The French
B. The Marathas
C. Tipu Sultan
D. The Nizam of Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Treaty of Salbai was signed on 17 May 1782, by representatives of the Maratha Empire and the British East India Company after long negotiations to settle the outcome of the First Anglo-Maratha War. David Anderson concluded the Treaty of Salbai on behalf of the East India Company.


229. The master stroke of Lord Wellesley to establish British paramountcy in India was
A. Doctrine of Lapse
B. Subsidiary Alliance
C. Mediatisation
D. Annexation of Indian States

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The master stroke of Lord Wellesley to establish British paramountcy in India was Subsidiary Alliance.


230. In what way did the early nationalists undermine the moral foundations of the British rule with great success?
A. By their agitation for Constitutional reforms
B. By advocating open revolt
C. By seeking foreign help against the British
D. By seeking the support of the Indians living abroad

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The very conditions of British rule helped the growth of national sentiment. Roy was the first Indian leader to start an agitation for political reforms in India. There is a moral evil which, if anything, is even greater.


231. In 1831 Bentinck signed a treaty with Ranjit Singh to protect the British territories from
A. Russian menace
B. Pindari menace
C. Rohelas
D. Attack by Burmese

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1831 Bentinck signed a treaty with Ranjit Singh to protect the British territories from Russian menace.


232. As a result of the partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in 1905, Bengal was partitioned into two provinces of
A. East Bengal and West Bengal
B. Bengal and Eastern Bengal ; Assam
C. Bengal and Assam
D. Bengal and Odisha and East Bengal and Assam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : As a result of the partition of Bengal announced by Lord Curzon in 1905, Bengal was partitioned into two provinces of Bengal and Eastern Bengal & Assam.


233. Regulating Act was in the year of__________
A. 1573
B. 1673
C. 1773
D. 1873

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Regulating Act, (1773), legislation passed by the British Parliament for the regulation of the British East India Company’s Indian territories, mainly in Bengal.


234. The Governor General of India who initiated the introduction of English in India was
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Macaulay
C. Lord Bentinck
D. Lord Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In India Lord Macaulay (Thomas Balington Macaulay) is fully credited with the official introduction of English education though the necessary order on the subject were given by Lord William Bentinck the governor general of India on 7th March 1835.


235. Who made remarkable contribution to the development of Local government?
A. Lord Ripon
B. Gladstone
C. W.W Hunter
D. Hastings

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Ripon made remarkable contribution to the development of local government. In 1882, he abandoned the existing system of local government by the officially nominated people.


236. Who among of the following was the Viceroy of India when Indian University Act, 1904 was passed?
A. Lord Dufferin
B. Lord Lansdowne
C. Lord Minto
D. Lord Curzon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : During the time period of Indian University act,1904 Lord Curzon was the Viceroy of India.


237. When the Simon Commission visited India the Viceroy was
A. Lloyd George
B. Lord Irwin
C. Lord Reading
D. Lord Ripon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Simon Commission had visited India on April 3, 1926 Lord Irwin was appointed 30th Viceroy and Governor-General of India. In 1927, British government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of Sir John Simon.


238. Who was the Viceroy when the Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place?
A. Hardinge-II
B. Chelmsford
C. Reading
D. Irwin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lord Chelmsford was the Viceroy of India when Jallianwala Bagh Massacre took place on April 13, 1919.


239. Seringapatnam was the capital of __________
A. Pazhassi Raja
B. Tipu Sultan
C. Kurumbranad Raja
D. Srimoolam Tirunal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1767 Maratha Peshwa Madhavrao defeated both Hyder Ali and Tipu Sultan and entered Srirangapatna, the capital of Mysore.


240. Consider the following on the chronology of appointment of Viceroys ,I.Reading,II.Irwin,III.Wellingdon,IV.Linlithgow
A. I II III IV
B. III II IV II
C. IV III II I
D. II IV III I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The following on the chronology of appointment of Viceroys were Reading, Irwin, Wellingdon and Linlithgow.


241. On account of severe British repression the Civil Disobedience movement was again suspended In July 1933 and people were asked to offer Satyagraha
A. individually
B. in groups
C. locally
D. against liquor shops

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On account of severe British repression the Civil Disobedience movement was again suspended In July 1933 and people were asked to offer Satyagraha individually.


242. Who was Lord Morley?
A. Secretary of the state
B. Viceroy of India
C. Governor General of India
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lord Morley became secretary of state for India in Henry Campbell-Bannerman’s Cabinet of 1905.


243. The Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhi was in full swing during the Viceroyalty of
A. Chelmsford
B. Irwin
C. Reading
D. Hardinge

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Non-Cooperation Movement under Gandhi was in full swing during the Viceroyalty of Reading.


244. Which of the following charter act ended the monopoly of trade of east India Company with china and sea route also?
A. Pitt’s India Act AD 1784
B. The charter Act 1813 AD
C. Charter Act 1833 AD
D. The Regulating Act AD 1773

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Charter act of 1813 ended the monopoly of the East India Company in India, however the company’s monopoly in trade with china and trade in tea was remained intact. The charter act of 1813, for the first time explicitly defined the constitutional position of the British territories in India.


245. Queen Victoria’s famous proclamation, transferring authority from the East India Company to the Crown , was made from
A. London
B. Calcutta
C. Delhi
D. Allahabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Queen Victoria’s famous proclamation, A Royal Durbar was held at Allahabad in November 1, 1858. A proclamation was issued by Queen Victoria. It was read at the Durbar by Lord Canning, who was the last Governor General and the first Viceroy of India.


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MCQ Questions on Mughal Empire

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Mughal Empire History Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. Babur was born in the year
A. 1483
B. 1583
C. 1693
D. 1783

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Babur (14 February 1483 – 26 December 1530), born Zahīr ud-Dīn Muhammad, was the founder and first Emperor of the Mughal dynasty in India.


2. Babur came to India originally from
A. Khiva
B. Ferghana
C. Khorasan
D. Seistan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Zahiruddin Muhammad was born on February 14, 1483 in the town of Andijan, in the Fergana Valley which is in modern Uzbekistan.


3. Babur (1526-1530 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Mughal
B. Nanda
C. Maurya
D. Haryanka

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Mughal Empire was founded by Babur (reigned 1526–1530), a Central Asian ruler who was descended from the Turco-Mongol conqueror Timur (the founder of the Timurid Empire) on his father’s side and from Chagatai, the second son of the Mongol ruler Genghis Khan, on his mother’s side.


4. Babur was succeeded to the Mughal throne by
A. Sher Shah
B. Akbar
C. Humayun
D. Bhadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Babur married several times. Notable among his sons are Humayun, Kamran Mirza and Hindal Mirza. Babur died in 1530 in Agra and was succeeded by Humayun.


5. The Mughal leader Babur originally invaded northern India
A. To creates a Shiite Muslim state
B. Because he was unable to achieve his ambitious goals in central Asia
C. To control the trade routes into Southeast Asia
D. To defeat his longstanding enemy the sultan of Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Mughal leader Babur originally invaded northern India because he was unable to achieve his ambitious goals in central Asia.


6. Akbar was enthroned in a garden at
A. Kalanaur
B. Ajmer
C. Gaur
D. Kabul

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The town has recorded essentialness as Mughal Emperor Akbar, was enthroned in a garden close to the Kalanaur by Bairam Khan.


7. The only Hindu Courtier of Akbar who accepted Din-i-Ilahi was
A. Todermal
B. Birbal
C. Tansen
D. Man Singh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Raja Birbal was the only Hindu to adopt Din-i-Ilahi, the religion founded by Akbar.


8. Ramayana was translated into Persian at Akbar’s court by whom?
A. Faizi
B. Abul Fazl
C. Badayuni
D. Haji Ibrahim Sirhindi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Ramayana was translated by Mulla Abdul Qadir Badayuni into Persian.


9. Of the so-called ‘Nine Gems of the Court of Akbar’ the one who was a reputed poet of Hindi, was
A. Abul Fazl
B. Faizi
C. Abdur Rahim Khan-i-Khana
D. Birbal

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Khanzada Mirza Khan Abdul Rahim Khan-e-Khana (17 December 1556 – 1627) also known as baba Rahim was a poet who lived during the rule of Mughal emperor Akbar. He was one of the nine important ministers (dewan) in his court, also known as the Navaratnas.


10. Which was the second capital of Akbar?
A. Delhi
B. Agra
C. Fatehpur Sikri
D. Patna

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After Akbar’s victory over Rajputanas of Chittor and Ranthambore, he shifted his capital from Agra to a new city which named ‘Fatehpur Sikri’ (the city of victory).


11. Where French established their first factory?
A. Surat
B. Masaulipatam
C. Pulicat
D. Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Jean-Baptiste Colbert founded the French East India Company in 1664. The initial attempts of the company to found a successful colony on Madagascar got failed. In 1667, under Francis Caron, the company established first factory at Surat and second factory was established at Masulipattanam a year later.


12. What do you mean by Mughal Zagir?
A. Providing rent free land
B. Zamidar’s property
C. Giving officer a right to revenue
D. Giving cash salary to Mansabdar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Zagirdari system was the system of giving an official right to collect revenue from a particular area called ‘Zagir’.


13. During the Mughal rule, the police duties in the districts were entrusted to the officials known as?
A. Faujdar
B. Mansabdar
C. Kotwal
D. Amin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : During the Mughal rule, the police duties in the districts were entrusted to the officials known as Faujdar.


14. In the Mughal administration, military recruitment had been looked after by the
A. Kotwal
B. Bakhshi
C. Wazir
D. Diwan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In the Mughal administration, military recruitment had been looked after by the Bakhshi.


15. During whose reign did William Hawkins visit the Mughal court to secure a right. to trade in Mughal ports?
A. Aurangzeb
B. Shah Jahan
C. Akbar
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : During Jahangir’s reign did William Hawkins visit the Mughal court to secure a right. to trade in Mughal ports.


16. Which of the following Mughal emperors is credited with composition of Hindi songs?
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Shahjahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mughal Emperor Jahangir had a keen interest in music. He also composed few hindi songs. Jahangir, the Mughal Emperor, is credited with the composition of many Hindi songs.


17. Sawai Raja Jai Singh was the ruler of __________
A. Amber
B. Ajmer
C. Satara
D. Kannauj

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Maharaja Sawai Jai Singh (3 November 1688 – 21 September 1743) was the Hindu Rajput ruler of the kingdom of Amber (later called Jaipur). He was born at Amber, the capital of the Kachwahas. He became ruler of Amber at the age of 11 after his father Maharaja Bishan Singh died on 31 December 1699.


18. The Mughal architecture attained unrivalled magnificence during the reign of
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mughal architecture reached its zenith during the reign of Shah Jahan, who constructed the Taj Mahal, the Jama Masjid, the Red Fort, and the Shalimar Gardens in Lahore.


19. Who got the Gita translated into Persian?
A. Shah Jahan
B. Akbar
C. Murad
D. Dara Shikoh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : So’aal o Jawaab bain-e-Laal Daas wa Dara Shikoh (also called Mukaalama-i Baba Laal Daas wa Dara Shikoh) Sirr-e-Akbar (The Great Secret, his translation of the Upanishads in Persian) Persian translations of the Yoga Vasishta and Bhagavad Gita.


20. The Mughal School of Painting was interested in portraying
A. Mughal court
B. Domestic subjects
C. Scenes from the Indian classics
D. The scenes of their motherland

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal painting remained confined to the Mughal court and did not reach the people.


21. Aurangzeb sent Mukarrab Khan against
A. Shaji Bhonsle
B. Shivaji
C. Sambaji
D. Shahu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mukarrab Khan with his large army attacked Sambhji Maharaj with an army of 4000. The 400 Maratha soldiers attacked so ferociously, that Mukarab Khan was taken by surprise. Sambhaji Maharaj along with Kavi Kalash was captured and taken as prisoner to Aurangzeb who killed him with utmost brutality.


22. Babur summoned the pupils of the famous architect Sinan from
A. Constantinople
B. Kabul
C. Syria
D. Egypt

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Babur found leisure to summon from Constantinople pupils of the famous Albanian architect, Sinan, who had designed many important buildings in the Ottoman Empire and set them to work on mosques and other architectural monuments commemorating his conquest of Hindustan.


23. Jizya was abolished by the Mughal ruler
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jizya was abolished by the third Mughal emperor Akbar, in 1564. It was finally abolished in 1579.


24. Which of the following is not true about First Anglo-Mysore War?
A. First Anglo-Mysore War fought in AD 1767-69
B. Hyder Ali defeated the English in the First Anglo-Mysore War
C. Treaty of Madras was the result of First Anglo-Mysore War
D. All of the above are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The First Anglo–Mysore War (1766–1769) was a conflict in India between the Sultanate of Mysore and the East India Company. The war was instigated in part by the machinations of Asaf Jah II, the Nizam of Hyderabad, who sought to divert the company’s resources from attempts to gain control of the Northern Circars.


25. The dead body of Babur by his own choice lies
buried in
A. Agra
B. Farghana
C. Samarqand
D. Kabul

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mughal Emperor Babur died in 1530. He was first buried at Aaram Bagh, Agra. Later his remains were moved to Bagh-e-Babur (Babur Gardevs),Kabul.


26. Under the Mughals __________ was administered as a department of the household
A. infantry
B. cavalry
C. artillery
D. navy

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Under the Mughals artillery was administered as a department of the household.


27. Which Mughal Emperor transferred the Mughal Capital from Agra to Delhi?
A. Jahangir
B. Aurangzeb
C. Shahjahan
D. Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first Mughal emperor to crown Agra as capital of mughal empire, was Akbar in the year 1526. The capital of mughal empire was changed from Agra to Delhi by Shah Jahan in the year 1638.


28. Name the Rajput General who bravely fought the Battle of Khanwa before losing to Babur
A. Rana Man Singh
B. Raja Jai Singh
C. Rana Sanga
D. Rana Pratap

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Khanwa was fought near the village of Khanwa, in Bharatpur District of Rajasthan, on March 16, 1527. It was fought between the invading forces of the first Mughal Emperor Babur and the Rajput forces led by Rana Sanga of Mewar, after the Battle of Panipat.


29. In which year (in A.D) did Babur invaded India?
A. 1530
B. 1520
C. 1526
D. 1550

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi at the First Battle of Panipat in 1526 AD and founded the Mughal empire.


30. In the battle of Panipat, Babur faced the armies of
A. Jaichand
B. Hemu
C. Daulat khan
D. Ibrahim Lodi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Babur defeated Ibrahim Lodi in the First Battle of Panipat (AD 1526). This marked the end of the Delhi Sultanate and the beginning of the Mughal Empire. This was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowderfirearms and field artillery.


31. The battle between Babur and Rana Sanga was fought at
A. Panipat
B. Chunar
C. Khanwa
D. Jaunpur

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Khanwa was fought near the village of Khanwa, in Bharatpur District of Rajasthan, on March 16, 1527. It was fought between the invading forces of the first Mughal Emperor Babur and the Rajput forces led by Rana Sanga of Mewar, after the Battle of Panipat.


32. Assertion (A): Babur won the first Battle of Panipat. ,Reason (R): Babur was the first to introduce the use of cannons in India
A. Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
B. Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
C. A is true but R is false
D. A is false but R is true

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In 1526, the First Battle of Panipat saw the introduction of massed artillery tactics to Indian warfare. Under the guidance of Ottoman gun master Ustad Ali Quli, Babur deployed cannons behind a screening row of carts.


33. Babur’s autobiography, called Tuzuk-i-Baburi or Baburnama, which is reckoned among “the most enthralling and romantic works in the literature of all times” is written in
A. Arabic
B. Persian
C. Turki
D. Urdu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Babar’s autobiography, called Tuzuk-i-Baburi or Baburnama, which is reckoned among “the most enthralling and romantic works in the literature of all times” is written in Turki.


34. Babur was originally the ruler of
A. Kabul
B. Persia
C. Fargana
D. Khandahar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Babur was born in Andijan, in the Fergana Valley, in modern Uzbekistan. He was the eldest son of Umar Sheikh Mirza, governor of Fergana and great grandson of Timur the Great.


35. Where did Babur die?
A. Agra
B. Kabul
C. Lahore
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Babur died in 1530 in Agra and was succeeded by Humayun. He was first buried in Agra but, as per his wishes, his mortal remains were moved to Kabul reburied.


36. When Chittor was captured by Akbar (1558), the Rana of Mewar was
A. Rana Udai Singh
B. Rana Pratap
C. Rana Kumbha
D. Rana Amar Singh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : When Chittor was captured by Akbar (1558), the Rana of Mewar was Rana Udai Singh.


37. When Babur invaded India in 1525, Humayun was the Governor of
A. Kabul
B. Fargana
C. Badakhshan
D. Herat

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Babar set out on his final invasion of India in November, 1525. His eldest son, Humayun, brought a contingent from Badakhshan, and Khwaja Kalan, trustiest of generals, led the troops of Ghazni.


38. Baburnama was written by
A. Humayun
B. Babur
C. Abul Fazl
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The “Memoirs of Babur” or Baburnama are the work of the great-great-great-grandson of Timur (Tamerlane), Zahiruddin Muhammad Babur (1483-1530).


39. Humayun (1530-1540 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Mughal
C. Maurya
D. Haryanka

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Nasir-ud-Din Muḥammad, better known by his regional name, Humayun, was the second emperor of the Mughal Empire, who ruled over territory in what is now Afghanistan, Pakistan, Northern India and Bangladesh from 1530–1540 and again from 1555–1556.


40. Defeated Humayun in the Battle of Kannauj (1540) also constructed the Purana Qila of New Delhi
A. Adil Shah
B. Malik Kafur
C. Bin-Kasim
D. Sher Shah Suri

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : On 26 June 1539, Sher Khan faced Humayun in the Battle of Chausa and defeated him. Assuming the title Farīd al-Dīn Shēr Shah, he defeated Humayun once again at Kannauj in May 1540 and forced him out of India. He also constructed the Purana Qila of New Delhi.


41. Humayun was born in the year
A. 1508
B. 1608
C. 1708
D. 1808

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Humayun was born on 17 March 1508, in Kabul, Mughal Empire (present-day Afghanistan), to Babur, the founder of the Mughal dynasty and his wife Maham Begum.


42. Humayun died in the year
A. 1536
B. 1546
C. 1556
D. 1566

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On the evening of 21 Jan 1556, Humayun was walking in the terrace of his library at Sher Mandal in Delhi. While descending the steps, he heard the announcement for the evening prayer. He stood still upon the occasion and sat down on the second step till the proclamation was ended. When he was going to rise, he supported himself on a staff, which unfortunately slipped upon the marble, and he fell headlong from the top to the bottom of the stair. He was taken up insensible and laid upon his bed. He died on 24 Jan, at the age of fifty-one, after a reign of twenty-five years, in Kabul and India.


43. Humayun Nama was written by
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Abul Fazl
D. Gulbadan Begum

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The History of Humayun: Humayun Nama was written by Gul-badan Begam, Humayun’ s sister. Gul-Badan Begum (1523 – 1603), was daughter of Zaheruddin Muhammad Babur of India. She wrote Humayun nama at the behest of her nephew and at the emperor of India Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar.


44. When Humayun was in exile Koh-i-noor Diamond was with
A. The Raja Bikramajid
B. Shah Tahmasp of Persia
C. Sultan of Bijapur
D. Sher Shah

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When Humayun was in exile Koh-i-noor Diamond was with Shah Tahmasp of Persia.


45. Who defeated Humayun in the battle of Chausa?
A. Muhammad Adil Shah
B. Firoz Shah Suri
C. Sikandar Shah Suri
D. Sher Shah Suri

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Battle of Chausa (25 June 1539) took place between Mughal Emperor Humayun and Sher Shah Suri (Sher Khan). In this battle Humayun got defeated.


46. Akbar’s nurse-in-chief was
A. Mumtaj
B. Hamida Begum
C. Jahanara
D. Maham Anaga

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Maham Anga was Akbar’s chief nurse prior to his enthronement at age thirteen as Mughal emperor in 1556.


47. The main outlet for foreign trade during Akbar’s reign was the port of
A. Karachi
B. Calcutta
C. Surat
D. Bombay

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : During his reign they were the most powerful at sea. Trade at Surat, the main port of Mughal India. Gujarat that emerged as the leading outlet at a given time.


48. Akbar’s teacher was
A. Abul Fazl
B. Bairam Khan
C. Abdul Latif
D. Kabir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar was very tolerant in his religious views. In his childhood he was impressed by the liberal religious ideas of his teacher, Abdul Latif.


49. The original name of Tansen, the greatest musician of the court of Akbar, was
A. Makaranda Pandey
B. Ramatanu Pande
C. Haridas
D. Lal Kalawant

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Tansen (c. 1500 – 1586), also referred to as Tan Sen or Ramtanu Pandey, was a prominent figure of North Indian (Hindustani) classical music. Born in a Hindu family, he learned and perfected his art in the northwest region of modern Madhya Pradesh.


50. Akbar (1556-1605 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Maurya
C. Mughal
D. Haryanka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Abu’l-Fath Jalal-ud-din Muhammad Akbar (October 1542– 27 October 1605), popularly known as Akbar I, also as Akbar the Great (Akbar-i-azam), was the third Mughal emperor, who reigned from 1556 to 1605.


51. Of the following, with whom Akbar did not come into contact?
A. Jains
B. Parsis
C. Buddhists
D. Christians

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar did not come into contact with Buddhist.


52. In the year 1582, Akbar took the momentous step of
A. Banning Sati
B. Removing Jaziya
C. Forming an army of jackals
D. Propounding a new religion Din-i-Ilahi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Dīn-i Ilāhī (lit. “Religion of God”) was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 CE, intending to merge some of the elements of the religions of his empire, and thereby reconcile the differences that divided his subjects.


53. Hemu, whom Akbar defeated In the Second Battle of Panipat (1556), was
A. Minister of Sikandar Shah Suri
B. Minister of Muhammad Adil Shah
C. Ruler of Rewari
D. Prime Minister of Rana Udai Singh of Mewar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Second Battle of Panipat was fought on November 5, 1556, between the forces of Hemu, the Hindu general and Chief Minister of Adil Shah Suri, and the army of the Mughal emperor, Akbar.


54. Mansabdari System was founded by Akbar. The Mansabdars were
A. military commanders
B. provincial governors
C. high civil and military officers
D. all of the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Appointment to the ranks of mansabdars was made by the emperor, usually on the recommendation of military leaders, provincial governors, or court officials.


55. Akbar had constructed several forts, which did not include the one of
A. Lahore
B. Agra
C. Allahabad
D. Red Fort

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The fort is called Red Fort or Lal QiIa because it is made of red sandstone. The history of forts indicates that it was built between the year 1639-1648 by the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan in old Delhi.


56. Who constructed Humayun’s tomb in Delhi?
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Haji Begum
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The tomb of Humayun was built by the orders of Humayun’s first wife and chief consort, Empress Bega Begum (also known as Haji Begum). The construction began in 1565, nine years after his death, and completed in 1572 AD at a cost of 1.5 million ruppees at the time.


57. Humayun had to run away from India after he was defeated in the battle of
A. Panipat
B. Ghagra
C. Khanwa
D. Kannauj

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Humayun was defeated in the battle of kannauj by Shershah Suri (1540). After this battle Sher Shah Suri forced him out of India.


58. I. Akbar’s Gold Mohur bore the figures of Sita and Ram,II. Akbar’s Gold Mohur bore the image of Prophet Mohammad,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct related to the Akbar reign?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Ram Siya coin issued by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1604-05. It has the image of Ram and Sita on one side with the word Ram and Siya written above in Devnagri script. Ram is shown holding a bow and arrow while Sita has lotus in both her hands.


59. Whom did Akbar defeat in the 2nd battle of Panipat in 1556?
A. Genghis Khan
B. Nadir Shah
C. Hemu Vikramaditya
D. Bajirao-I

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Second Battle of Panipat was fought on November 5, 1556, between the forces of Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, the king at Delhi and forces of Emperor Akbar.


60. Akbar suppressed the rebellion of Abdullah Khan, the Governor of
A. Mewar
B. Malwa
C. Meerut
D. Mankat

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Akbar appointed Abdullah Khan as the governor of Malwa with his headquarters at Mandu. Akbar suppressed the rebellion of Abdullah Khan, the Governor of Malwa.


61. To whom did Akbar gave the title Miyan?
A. Raja Todar Mal
B. Man Singh-I
C. Birbal
D. Tansen

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Akbar considered him as a Navaratnas (nine jewels), and gave him the title Mian, an honorific, meaning learned man. Tansen was a composer, musician and vocalist, to whom a large number of compositions have been attributed in northern regions of the Indian subcontinent.


62. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system prevalent in
A. Persia
B. Mongolia
C. Afghanistan
D. Turkey

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mansabdar implies the generic term for the military-kind grading of all royal functionaries of the Mughal Empire. The Mansabdari system introduced by Akbar was borrowed from the system followed in Mongolia.


63. The designation ‘amil’ during Akbar’s reign denoted a
A. Policeman
B. Retail trader
C. Postman
D. Revenue official

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The designation ‘amil’ during Akbar’s reign denoted a Revenue official.


64. Akbar married a bride from
A. Bikaner
B. Jaisalmer
C. Jaipur
D. Udaipur

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Akbar married a bride from Udaipur.


65. During Akbar’s reign the Mahabharat was translated into Persian and is known as
A. Iqbal Nama
B. Razm Nama
C. Akbar Nama
D. Sakinat-ul-Auliya

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The “Razmnama”(war Tab) is the persian translation of the Mahabharta. Preface of this book was written by the Akbar’s, court poet Abul Fazal.


66. Akbar founded the Din-i-Ilahi primarily to
A. Establish a national religion which would be acceptable to the Muslims and the Hindus
B. Ensure racial and communal harmony
C. Found a religious institution
D. Put an end to differences between Hindus and Muslims

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : One of Akbar’s most unusual ideas regarding religion was Din-i-Ilahi (“Godism” in English), which was an eclectic mix of Hinduism, Islam, and Christianity.


67. Akbar’a son and successor Salim, on becoming the emperor, assumed the name of
A. Jahangir
B. Jahangir Alampanah
C. Jahangir Alamgir
D. Nuruddin Muhammad Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Akbar’a son and successor Salim, on becoming the emperor, assumed the name of Nuruddin Muhammad Jahangir.


68. Akbar defeated Durgawati and captured
A. Bijapur
B. Jhansi
C. Gondwana
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1562 CE, Akbar defeated Baz Bahadur and brought the region of Malwa under Mughal dominion. Simultaneously, Asaf Khan, a Mughal general, conquered Rewa, which lay north of Rani’s kingdom. Thus, Garha-Mandla now touched the boundaries of both Rewa and Malwa, which were under the Mughals. An attack from either of them was imminent.


69. The Akbar of Kashmir who reconstructed and rehabilitated all the temples and asked Jonaraja to continue further Kalhana’s Rajatarangini was
A. Sikandar
B. Shah Mir Samsuddin
C. Zain-ul-Abidin
D. Saifuddin

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Akbar of Kashmir who reconstructed and rehabilitated all the temples and asked Jonaraja to continue further Kalhana’s Rajatarangini was Zain-ul-Abidin.


70. Hakim Mirza, the younger brother of Akbar was the viceroy of
A. Kabul
B. Herat
C. Agra
D. Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Shahzada Mirza Muhammad Hakim, sometimes known simply as Mirza Hakim, short: Mirza, was the second son of Mughal emperor Humayun. He ruled Kabul in Afghanistan, and often conflicted with his elder brother emperor Akbar. Mirza Hakim later on mended ways with Emperor Akbar. He is the son of Mah Chuchak Begum. He is known for writing Tajdar-e-Haram.


71. Which of the following forts was not built by Akbar?
A. Gwalior Fort
B. Agra Fort
C. Lahore Fort
D. Allahabad Fort

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Gwalior Fort was built by Raja Man Sing Tomar in 8th century. It consists of one defensive structure and two main palaces ( Gujrat Mahal and Man Mandir ).


72. A renowned Jain scholar who was greatly honoured by Akbar was
A. Hemachandra
B. Harivijaya
C. Vastupala
D. Bhadrabahu

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Akbar invited Bhattarak Harvijay Suri the main exponent of Jain Swetambara sect.


73. Who of the following was the biographer of Akbar?
A. Abul Fazl
B. Faizi
C. Abdul Nabi Khan
D. Birbal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Ain-i-Akbari (The constitution of Akbar) is the third volume of ‘Akbarnama’ (the book of Akbar) was written by Abul Fazal. He was the court poet of Mughal Emperor Akbar.


74. Which Rajput dynasty had not surrendered to Akbar?
A. Pratihara
B. Sisodiya
C. Rathor
D. Parmar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Sisodiya dynasty that ruled mewar did not surrender to emperor Akbar untill and unless Jahangir defeated Rana Pratap’s Son who was a weak ruler.


75. The greatest historian of the reign of Akbar, who wrote Akbarnama and Ain-i-Akbari, was
A. Nizamuddin Ahmad
B. Abdur Qadir Badauni
C. Abul Fazl
D. Abdas Khan Arwani

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Akbarnama which translates to Book of Akbar, is the official chronicle of the reign of Akbar, the third Mughal Emperor (r. 1556–1605), commissioned by Akbar himself by his court historian and biographer, Abu’l-Fazl ibn Mubarak who was one of the nine jewels in Akbar’s court. He had also written Ain-i-Akbari.


76. Akbar held his religious discussion in
A. Jodhabai’s Palace
B. Panch Mahal
C. Ibadat Khana
D. Buland Darwaza

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds so as to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders.


77. Who was the master of imperial mint at Delhi during the reign of Akbar?
A. Khwaza Abdus Samad
B. Mansur
C. Mir Sayyid Ali
D. Jehangir

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Khwaza Abdus Samad was the master of imperial mint at Delhi during the reign of Akbar.


78. The architectural raw material generally used in Akbar’s period was
A. Marble
B. Brick
C. Limestone
D. Redstone

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The architectural raw material generally used in Akbar’s period was Redstone.


79. Who was the trusted General of the Mughal emperor Akbar?
A. Raja Todar Mal
B. Man Singh I
C. Birbal
D. Tansen

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Raja Man Singh was the most trusted General of the Mughal emperor Akbar, he assisted him in many battles including the famous Battle of Haldighati (1576).


80. During Akbar’s reign who was the Finance Minister of the Mughal empire?
A. Raja Todar Mal
B. Man Singh-I
C. Birbal
D. Tansen

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Raja Todarmal was the finance minister (Mushrif-i-Diwan) of Mughal Emperor Akbar, he was one of the navratnas of Akbar’s court. He introduced land measurement system, Zabti/Dhasala system (revenue collection) and karori system.


81. Akbar had incorporated some principles of social reforms in the Din-i-illahi. Which of the following social reforms did not form part of Din-i- illahi?
A. Remarriage of widows
B. Prohibition of child marriage
C. Monogamy
D. Rejection of seclusion of women

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Rejection of seclusion of women social reforms did not form part of din-i- ilahi.


82. Which of the following statement is not related to the Akbar’s reign?
A. Religious toleration for Hindus and Sikhs
B. A syncretic religion called “divine faith” which stressed loyalty to the emperor
C. A centralized administrative structure with ministers appointed to regional provinces
D. Education and basic rights for Indian women

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Education and basic rights for Indian women is not related to the Akbar’s reign.


83. To bring Hindu-Muslim unity, Akbar
A. encouraged cow-killing
B. prohibited cow-killing
C. taxed cow-killing
D. remained silent to cow-killing

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : To bring Hindu-Muslim unity, Akbar prohibited cow-killing. He banned killing of animals. He stopped eating meat for many months.


84. Who were ‘Jagirdars’ during the reign of Akbar?
A. Large estate owners
B. Officials of state who were given jagir in place of cash pay
C. Revenue collectors
D. Autonomous rulers under Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : This feudal system of land ownership is referred to as the jagirdar system. The system was introduced by the Sultans of Delhi from the 13th century onwards, was later adopted by the Mughal Empire, and continued under the British East India Company.


85. The only Hindu noble at the court of Akbar to accept the Din-i-llahi was
A. Man Singh
B. Todar Mal
C. Birbal
D. Bhagwan Das

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Raja Birbal was the only Hindu to adopt Din-i-Ilahi, the religion founded by Akbar.


86. Which was the second capital of Akbar?
A. Delhi
B. Agra
C. Fatehpur Sikri
D. Patna

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : After Akbar’s Victory over Rajputana of Chittor and Ranthambor, he shifted his capital from Agra to a new city which he named ‘Fatehpur Sikri’ (the city of victory).


87. The innovator of the Revenue settlement during the rule of Akbar was
A. Raja Mansingh
B. Raja Bhagwan Das
C. Raja Todarmal
D. Raja Birbal

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Raja Todar Mal was the Finance Minister of the Mughal empire during Akbar’s reign. Todarmal was the chief finance minister (Diwan-e-kul) of Mughal Emperor Akbar. He introduced many land revenue reforms like land measurement reforms, Dhasala system and Karoni system.


88. Akbar saw the sea for the first time in his life at
A. Calcutta
B. Surat
C. Cambay
D. Madras

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : At Cambay, Akbar saw the sea for the first time and rode on it in a boat.


89. The medieval Hindu ruler who was a contemporary of Akbar, and took the title of Vikramaditya was
A. Rana Pratap (of Mewar)
B. Sadasiva Raya (of Vijayanagar)
C. Raja Man Singh (of Amber)
D. Hemachandra (Hemu)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The medieval Hindu ruler who was a contemporary of Akbar, and took the title of Vikramaditya was Hemachandra (Hemu). Hemu claimed royal status after defeating Akbar’s Mughal forces on 7 October 1556 in the Battle of Delhi and assumed the ancient title of Vikramaditya that had been adopted by many Hindu kings in the past. A month later, Hemu was wounded by a chance arrow and captured during the Second Battle of Panipat.


90. Akbar had got constructed the Buland Darwaza to commemorate his victory of
A. Gujarat
B. Delhi
C. Bengal
D. Odisha

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Buland Darwaza, or the “Gate of victory”, was built in 1572 A.D. by Mughal emperor Akbar to commemorate his victory over Gujarat. It is the main entrance to the palace at Fatehpur Sikri, which is 43 km from Agra, India.


91. In 1542 Akbar was born at
A. Agra
B. Herat
C. Umarkot
D. Kabul

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar (Abu’l-Fath Jalal ud-din Muhammad Akbar, 15 October 1542 – 1605) was the 3rd Mughal Emperor. He was born in Umerkot,(now Pakistan). He was the son of 2nd Mughal Emperor Humayun. Akbar became the king in 1556 at the age of 13 when his father died.


92. Which of the following was built by Akbar to commemorate his conquest of Khandesh in Gujarat?
A. Bada Imambara
B. Buland Darwaza
C. Jama Masjid
D. Siddi Bashir

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Buland Darwaza (The Gate of Magnificience) was built by Mughal Emperor Akbar in 1601 at Fatehpur Sikri (U.P.). It was built by Akbar to commemorate his victory over Khandesh in Gujarat.


93. Who was the regent of Akbar in his early days?
A. Abul Fazl
B. Bairam Khan
C. Tansen
D. Todarmal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bairam Khan also Bayram Khan ( c. 18 January 1501 – c. 31 January 1561) was an important military commander, later commander-in-chief of the Mughal army, a powerful statesman and regent at the court of the Mughal Emperors, Humayun and Akbar.


94. Which of the following writers has called Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi as a monument of his folly, not of wisdom?
A. Badayuni
B. Vincent Smith
C. Barni
D. W.Haig

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Vincent Arthur Smith was a British Indologist and art historian, who stated that Akbar’s Din-i-Ilahi was a monument of his folly, not of wisdom”.


95. What was the age of Akbar at the time of his coronation at Kalanaur?
A. Thirteen
B. Fifteen
C. Eighteen
D. Twenty

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal Emperor Akbar aseended the throne at the age of thirteen in the year 1556 A.D.


96. Two women who, while conducting the affairs of their states faced Akbar’s wars of conquest were Rani Durgawati and Chand Bibi (or Sultana), respectively of
A. Jaisalmer and Khandesh
B. Malwa and Gujarat
C. Gondwana and Ahmadnagar
D. Ranathambhor and Khandesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Two women who, while conducting the affairs of their states faced Akbar’s wars of conquest were Rani Durgawati and Chand Bibi (or Sultana), respectively of Gondwana and Ahmadnagar.


97. Akbar’s concept of Sulh-i-kul (or Qul) means
A. friendship and goodwill to all
B. common brotherhood
C. fraternity and friendship
D. harmony and peace to all

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sulh-i kul is an Arabic term literally meaning “peace with all,” “universal peace,” or “absolute peace,” drawn from a Sufi mystic principle. As applied by the third Mughal Emperor of India, Akbar (who reigned 1556-1605), it described a peaceful and harmonious relationship among different religions.


98. Which of the following buildings at Fatehpur Sikri is known as Ibadatkhana where Akbar used to hold religious discussions?
A. Diwan-i-Aam
B. Diwan-i-Khas
C. Panch Mahal
D. Jami Masjid

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Diwan-i-Khas, or Hall of Private Audiences, in the Red Fort of Delhi built in 1571 was the place where the Mughal emperor Akbar received courtiers and state guests. It was also known as the Shah Mahal.


99. Hemu was captured and brought before Akbar by__________
A. Bairam Khan
B. Salim
C. Shah Qulihan Mehran
D. Farid

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Hemu was captured and brought before Akbar by Shah Qulihan Mehran.


100. Baz Bahadur was a . . . . . . in the court of Akbar
A. Musician
B. Painter
C. Architect
D. Soldier

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Baz Bahadur famous musician of Akbar’s time, was made Manashba of 2000 by Akbar, the ruler of Malva. Abul Fazl wrote about him – “he was the best person of his time in music and Hindi songs.”


101. In Akbar’s regime,__________ was the military head
A. Sultan Ahmed Fawad
B. Suri Moja
C. Mir Khaas
D. Mir Bakshi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The head of the military was called the mir bakshi, appointed from among the leading nobles of the court. The mir bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering, and also made recommendations to the emperor for military appointments and promotions.


102. The fortress of Asirgarh was under the rule of __________ when Akbar besieged it
A. Mansingh
B. Raja Bhagvan Das
C. Bahadur Shah
D. Hemu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar occupied Burhanpur and besieged Asirgarh Fort in 1599, and took it on 17 January 1601, when Miran Bahadur Shah refused to submit Khandesh.


103. Who wrote Akbarnama?
A. Akbar
B. Birbal
C. Abul Fazal
D. Bhagavan Das

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Abdul Fazal was one of the navratnas at Akbar’s court. He wrote ‘Akbamama’ which is the official history of Akbar’s reign.


104. What was the name of the Hall of Worship constructed by Akbar?
A. Diwan-e-khas
B. Diwan-e-Aam
C. Ibadat Khana
D. Buland Darwaza

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds so as to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders.


105. Who was appointed by Akbar as his Court Musician?
A. Abul Fazal
B. Miyan Tansen
C. Raja Birbal
D. Raja Todar Mal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Akbar considered Miyan Tansen as a Navaratnas (nine jewels), and gave him the title Mian, an honorific, meaning learned man. Tansen was a composer, musician and vocalist, to whom a large number of compositions have been attributed in northern regions of the Indian subcontinent.


106. Arab merchant, Suleiman, came to India in 9th century in the kingdom of
A. Vijaysena of Sena dynasty
B. Mihira Bhoja of Prathihara dynasty
C. Gopala of the Pala dynasty
D. Dantidurga of Rashtrakuta dynasty

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Arab merchant, Suleiman, came to India in 9th century in the kingdom was Mihira Bhoja of Prathihara dynasty.


107. The famous Peacock Throne of Shah Jahan was taken away in 1739 by
A. Afghan invader Ahmed Shah Abdali
B. Persian invader Nadir Shah
C. Mongol invader Chengiz Khan
D. British East India Company

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1739, Persian invader Nadir Shah plundered and looted Delhi,and the Peacock throne was taken away along with other spoils. It was believed that after Nadir Shah’s death the Peacock throne was broken down and damaged.


108. Which of these is not correctly matched regarding the reign of Shahjahan?
A. Chintamani – Hindi poet
B. Jagannath Pandit – Poet laureate
C. Asaf Khan – Wazir
D. Sunder Das – Singer

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sunder Das was a poet.


109. Consider the following statement (s) related to the Zeb-un-nisa,I. Zeb-un-nisa chose to live voluntarily with Shah Jahan and later was awarded great honour by Aurangzeb,II. Zeb-un-nisa was the sister of Shah Jahan
A. Both I and II are correct
B. Both I and II are incorrect
C. Only I is correct
D. Only II is correct

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Zeb-un-nisa was a Mughal princess, the eldest child of Emperor Aurangzeb and his chief consort Dilras Banu Begum. Zeb-un-nisa chose to live voluntarily with Shah Jahan and later was awarded great honour by Aurangzeb.


110. Bahadur Shah was the
A. Last ruler of the Lodis
B. Successor of Sher Shah Suri
C. Last Mughal ruler
D. Successor of the Maratha ruler Shivaji

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mirza Abu Zafar Siraj-ud-din Muhammad Bahadur Shah Zafar was the last Mughal emperor. He was the second son of and became the successor to his father, Akbar II, upon his death on 28 September 1837.


111. Sher Shah defeated Humayun and captured Gaur in the battle of
A. Ghaghra is 1529
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : On 26 June 1539, Sher Khan faced Humayun in the Battle of Chausa and defeated him. The Mughal Army was defeated in the battle.


112. Sher Shah defeated Humayan and captured Gaur in the battle of
A. Ghaghra is 1529
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The battle of chausa (1539) was fought between Mughal Emperor Humanyun and Sher Shah Suri. The Mughal Army was defeated in the battle.


113. At the time, when Nadir Shah attacked Delhi, the Mughal Emperor was
A. Ahmad Shah
B. Muhammad Shah
C. Bahadur Shah
D. Shah Alam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : At the Battle of Karnal on 24 February 1739, Nader led his army to victory over the Mughals. Muhammad Shah surrendered and both entered Delhi together. The keys to the capital of Delhi were surrendered to Nader. He entered the city on 20 March 1739 and occupied Shah Jehan’s imperial suite in the Red Fort.


114. Battle of Kannauj in 1540 was fought between Sher Shah and__________
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Battle of Kanauj was fought between Sher Shah and Humayun. Humayun was defeated. Humayun, became a fugitive and Sher Khan became the master of Agra and Delhi. This battle was fought in 1540.


115. The later Mughal King, popularly known as Shah-i-Bekhabar (the Heedless King), was
A. Bahadur Shah
B. Jahandar Shah
C. Muhammad Shah
D. Shah Alam I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Bahadur Shah I. Bahadur Shah (14 October 1643 – 27 February 1712), also known as Muhammad Muazzam and Shah Alam was the seventh Mughal emperor of India, ruled from 1707 until his death in 1712.


116. The most important political gain to the Mughals during the reign of Shah Jahan was
A. annexation of Ahmadnagar
B. treaties with Bijapur and Golcunda
C. both (a) and (b) above
D. expulsion of the Portuguese from Hughli

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jahangir gave the title of Shah Jahan to prince Khurram at that very time. But it was, in fact, no remarkable success of the Mughals. Ahmadnagar was not prepared to accept the sovereignty of the Mughals and started fighting against them again. However, peace was again signed between the two in 1621 A.D. by which Ahmadnagar surrendered a part of its territory to the Mughals and also paid rupees eighteen lakhs in cash. Bijapur and Golkunda which had helped Ahmadnagar also paid rupees twelve lakhs and rupees twenty lakhs respectively to the Mughals. Thus, during the reign of Jahangir, Ahmadnagar was weakened and the states of Bijapur and Golkunda were pressurised.


117. Sher Shah defeated Humayun at
A. Gaur
B. Chunar
C. Chausa
D. Agra

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Chausa was a notable military engagement between the Mughal emperor, Humayun, and the Afghan, Sher Shah Suri. It was fought on 26 June 1539 at Chausa, 10 miles southwest of Buxar in modern-day Bihar, India. Sher Shah was victorious and crowned himself Farīd al-Dīn Shēr Shah.


118. Humayun lost the Mughal Empire to Sher Shah Suri finally in the battle of
A. Chunar
B. Chausa
C. Ghagra
D. Kannauj

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : On 26 June 1539, Sher Khan faced Humayun in the Battle of Chausa and defeated him. Assuming the title Farīd al-Dīn Shēr Shah, he defeated Humayun once again at Kannauj in May 1540 and forced him out of India.


119. Which of the following are correct regarding Shahjahan?,I. Ousted the Portuguese from Hugli,II. Created the office of Amin for assessment of revenue,III. Kahabat Khan was appointed governor of Lahore,IV. Ali Mardan Khan surrendered Kandhar to Mughals
A. I II and III
B. I II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shahjahan ousted the Portuguese from Hugli. He created the office of Amin for assessment of revenue. Ali Mardan Khan surrendered Kandhar to Mughals.


120. Consider the following statement (s) related to the Dara Shikoh,I. Dara Shikoh was the youngest son of Shahjahan,II. Dara Shikoh was the devotee of Qadiri Silsila
A. Both I and II are correct
B. Both I and II are incorrect
C. Only I is correct
D. Only II is correct

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Dara Shukoh was a follower of the Persian “perennialist” mystic Sarmad Kashani, as well as Lahore’s famous Qadiri Sufi saint Hazrat Mian Mir, whom he was introduced to by Mullah Shah Badakhshi (Mian Mir’s spiritual disciple and successor).


121. Bahadur Shah (First) was born in the year
A. 1543
B. 1643
C. 1743
D. 1843

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bahadur Shah-I was the seventh Mughal Emperor. He was the third son of the Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb and Nawab Bai. He was born on Oct 14,1643.


122. Shah Jahan built the Moti Masjid at
A. Delhi
B. Jaipur
C. Agra
D. Amarkot

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Moti Masjid in Agra was built by Shah Jahan. During the rule of Shah Jahan the Mughal emperor, numerous architectural wonders were built, the most famous of them being the Taj Mahal. Moti Masjid earned the epithet Pearl Mosque for it shone like a pearl.


123. Shah Jahan was kept in prison by Aurangzeb at
A. Ajmer
B. Agra
C. Delhi
D. Daulatabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shah Jahan recovered from his illness, but Aurangzeb put his father under house arrest in Agra Fort from July 1658 until his death in January 1666.


124. The Mughal ruler, Bahadur Shah II had been exiled by the British and sent to
A. Andman and Nicobar
B. Fatehpur Sikri
C. Mandalay
D. Rangoon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Bahadur Shah II’s involvement in the Indian Rebellion of 1857, the British exiled him to Rangoon in British-controlled Burma (now in Myanmar), after convicting him on conspiracy charges.


125. Who called Muazzam as Shahi-i- Bekhabar?
A. Kafi Khan
B. Zulfikar khan
C. Kam Baksh
D. Nur Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Kafi Khan called Muazzam as Shahi-i- Bekhabar.


126. When Aurangzeb proceeded against Golcunda it was ruled by
A. Sikandar
B. Durga Devi
C. Abul Hasan
D. Afzal Khan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Siege of Golconda occurred in January 1687, when Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb led his forces to besiege the Qutb Shahi dynasty at Golconda Fort (also known as the Diamond Capital of its time) and was home to the Kollur Mine. The ruler of Golconda was the well entrenched Abul Hasan Qutb Shah.


127. Assuming the title of Alamgir, Aurangzeb crowned himself as Emperor on July 21, 1658 at
A. Agra
B. Aurangabad
C. Fatehpur Sikri
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : When Shah Jahan fell ill in September 1657, Aurangzeb challenged Dara, defeated him, imprisoned their father, and assumed imperial authority on July 21, 1658. After liquidating his three brothers, he crowned himself emperor of India, assuming the title Alamgir (Conqueror of the World) at Delhi on June 5, 1659.


128. Aurangzeb (1658-1707 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Mughal
C. Maurya
D. Haryanka

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The last of the great Mughals was Aurangzeb (r. 1658-1707), who seized the throne by killing all his brothers and imprisoning his own father. Aurangzeb was the third son of the Mughal emperor Shah Jahan; his mother was Mumtaz Mahal, who is buried in the Taj Mahal.


129. Aurangzeb died in the year
A. 1760
B. 1764
C. 1707
D. 1700

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Aurangzeb died in the year 3 March 1707 (aged 88) Ahmednagar, India.


130. Aurangzeb was the son of
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Aurangzeb was born on 3 November 1618, in Dahod, Gujarat. He was the third son and sixth child of Shah Jahan and Mumtaz Mahal.


131. Aurangzeb, in his attempt to annex Marwar to the Mughal empire, was involved in a 30-year war. During these long years the most valiant struggle from the side of Marwar was fought by
A. Ajit Singh
B. Durgadas
C. Hadas of Bundi
D. Indra Singh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Aurangzeb, in his attempt to annex Marwar to the Mughal empire, was involved in a 30-year war. During these long years the most valiant struggle from the side of Marwar was fought by Durgadas Rathore.


132. I. Mussaman Burj is situated inside the Fatehpur Sikri Fort,II. Aurangzeb built Moti Masjid inside Agra Fort,Which of the following option is correct related to the Mughal Architecture?
A. Both I and II are correct
B. Both I and II are incorrect
C. Only I is correct
D. Only II is correct

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Musamman Burj also known as the Saman Burj or the Shah-burj, is an octagonal tower standing close to the Shah Jahan’s private hall Diwan-e-Khas in Agra Fort. The Moti Masjid (translation: Pearl Mosque) in Agra was built by Shah Jahan.


133. Aurangzeb appointed his uncle Shayista Khan as Governor of
A. Kashmir
B. Bengal
C. Punjab
D. Deccan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : In 1660 Aurangzeb appointed Shayista Khan, his maternal uncle and a veteran general, viceroy of the Deccan, with instructions to suppress the activities of Shivaji.


134. Which of these is not one of the titles adopted by Aurangzeb?
A. Alamgir
B. Padshah
C. Sultan Sulaiman
D. Ghazi

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Suleiman I, commonly known as Suleiman the Magnificent in the West and Kanunî Sultan Süleyman in his realm, was the tenth and longest-reigning Sultan of the Ottoman Empire from 1520 until his death in 1566.


135. Who amongst the following succeeded Aurangzeb?
A. Azam shah
B. Kam Baksh
C. Akbar-II
D. Mauzzam

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Abu’l Faaiz Qutb-ud-Din Muhammad Azam (28 June 1653 – 8 June 1707), commonly known as Azam Shah (“King Azam”), was a titular Mughal emperor, who reigned from 14 March 1707 to 8 June 1707. He was the eldest son of the sixth Mughal emperor Aurangzeb (also known as Alamgir) and his chief consort Dilras Banu Begum.


136. Who had succeeded Mir Jumla as governor of Bengal in the reign of Aurangzeb?
A. Siphr Sukoh
B. Izid Bakhsh
C. Shaista Khan
D. Shah Shuja

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Shaista Khan succeeded Mir Jumla as the governor of Bengal after his death. He gave personal attention to the problem of south Bengal, where the Magh (Arakanese) pirates, in conjunction with Portuguese pirates, had been terrorizing the area up to Dacca (capital of Bengal) from their headquarters at Chittagong.


137. During the reign of Aurangzeb, Rajaram was a
A. Jat Leader
B. Mughal Leader
C. Maratha Leader
D. Sikh Leader

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Rajaram Raje Bhosale (24 February 1670 – 3 March 1700 Sinhagad) was the younger son of Maratha ruler Chhatrapati Shivaji Maharaj, and half-brother of Sambhaji Maharaj. He took over the Maratha Empire as its third Chhatrapati after his brother’s death at the hands of the Mughal emperor, Aurangzeb in 1689.


138. On behalf of Aurangzeb Cooch Behar was seized by
A. Mir Jumla
B. Prince Akbar
C. Shayista Khan
D. Jai Singh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On behalf of Aurangzeb Cooch Behar was seized by Mir Jumla.


139. Aurangzeb put his father under house arrest in Agra Fort
A. Humayun
B. Shah Jahan
C. Akbar
D. Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Shah Jahan recovered from his illness, but Aurangzeb put his father under house arrest in Agra Fort from July 1658 until his death in January 1666.


140. Of the following who did not revolt against Aurangzeb?
A. Jats
B. Satnamis
C. Prince Akbar
D. Shayista Khan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Shayista Khan did not revolt against Aurangzeb.


141. In the war of succession who had supported Aurangzeb?
A. Jahanara
B. Zebunisha
C. Jintunisha
D. Roshanara

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Roshanara’s rise to power began when she successfully foiled a plot by her father and Dara Shikoh to kill Aurangzeb. According to history, Shah Jahan sent a letter of invitation to Aurangzeb to visit Delhi, in order to peacefully resolve the family crisis. In truth, however, Shah Jahan planned to capture, imprison and kill Aurangazeb in prison as he viewed his third son as a serious threat to the throne. When Roshanara got wind of her father’s plots, she sent a messenger to Aurangzeb, outlining their father’s true intentions, and warning Aurangazeb to stay away from Delhi. Aurangzeb was extremely grateful to Roshanara for her timely warning. When the war of succession was resolved in favour of Aurangzeb, she quickly became a powerful figure at court.


142. During Aurangzeb’s reign, which of the following were not included in his government?
A. Rajputs
B. Marathas
C. Pathans
D. All of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During his reign, the Mughal Empire extended from the Himalayas to Karnataka and Gujarat to Bengal. However he faced lot of rebels from the Jat, Maratha as well as Sikh community. Marathas were not included in Aurangzeb’s government.


143. I. Aurangzeb abolished Rahdari, Pandari and Pilgrim tax ,II. Aurangzeb discontinued the practice of inscribing the Kalima on the coins,Which of the above statements is/are correct related to Aurangzeb?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Formerly Kalima used to be embossed on the coins. This practice was abandoned by Aurangzeb as it was un-Islamic.


144. The most decisive battle between the forces of Dara and Aurangzeb (in the war of Succession) was fought at
A. Dharmat
B. Samugarh
C. Deorai
D. Khajwa

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Battle of Samugarh, Jang-e-Samugarh, (May 29, 1658), was a decisive battle in the struggle for the throne during the Mughal war of succession (1658–1659) between the sons of the Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan after the emperor’s serious illness in September 1657.


145. Bibi Ka Maqbara was erected by __________ at Aurangabad and is a replica of the Taj Mahal
A. Jahangir
B. Bahadur Shah Zafar
C. Aurangzeb
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Bibi Ka Maqbara (English:”Tomb of the Lady”) is a tomb located in Aurangabad, Maharashtra, India. It was built by Mughal emperor Aurangzeb’s son Azam Shah in the memory of his mother (posthumously known as Rabia-ud-Daurani).


146. During the last 25 years of his reign, Aurangzeb was mainly involved in long-drawn wars against
A. Bijapur
B. Golcunda
C. Marathas
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : During the last 25 years of his reign, Aurangzeb was mainly involved in long-drawn wars against Marathas.


147. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Aurangzeb?,I. He forbade the cultivation of Bhang,II. Forbade singing at court,III. A proficient player of Veena,IV. His tomb is at Tughlaqabad
A. I II and III
B. I II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Aurangzeb forbaded the cultivation of Bhang. He forbaded singing at court and a proficient player of Veena.


148. Koh-i-noor diamond was presented to Aurangzeb by
A. Mirkasim
B. Mir Jumla
C. Shivaji
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mir Jumla (1591-1663) a nobleman in the service of the State of Golkonda in the Deccan plateau of Central India was the first owner of what was later known as the Kohinoor then the largest diamond in the world. Mir Jumla was a Persian born near Isfahan in Iran. He was the son of an oil merchant. Koh-i-noor diamond was presented to Aurangzeb by him.


149. Where did Aurangzeb die?
A. Pune
B. Aurangabad
C. Ahmednagar
D. Mumbai

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mughal Emperor Aurangzeb died at the age of 88 in Ahmednagar in 1707. He died due to terminal illness.


150. Aurangzeb came to power after winning the war of succession and by defeating his three brothers
A. Dara
B. Shuja
C. Askari
D. Murad

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Aurangzeb came to power after winning the war of succession and by defeating his three brothers Askari.


151. Aurangzeb sent Mukarrab Khan against
A. Shaji Bhonsle
B. Shivaji
C. Sambaji
D. Shahu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mukarrab Khan with his large army attacked Sambhji Maharaj with an army of 4000. The 400 Maratha soldiers attacked so ferociously, that Mukarab Khan was taken by surprise. Sambhaji Maharaj along with Kavi Kalash was captured and taken as prisoner to Aurangzeb who killed him with utmost brutality.


152. Jizya was abolished by the Mughal ruler
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jizya was abolished by the third Mughal emperor Akbar, in 1564. It was finally abolished in 1579.


153. Which of the following is not true about First Anglo-Mysore War?
A. First Anglo-Mysore War fought in AD 1767-69
B. Hyder Ali defeated the English in the First Anglo-Mysore War
C. Treaty of Madras was the result of First Anglo-Mysore War
D. All of the above are incorrect

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The First Anglo–Mysore War (1766–1769) was a conflict in India between the Sultanate of Mysore and the East India Company. The war was instigated in part by the machinations of Asaf Jah II, the Nizam of Hyderabad, who sought to divert the company’s resources from attempts to gain control of the Northern Circars.


154. Under the Mughals __________ was administered as a department of the household
A. infantry
B. cavalry
C. artillery
D. navy

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Under the Mughals artillery was administered as a department of the household.


155. Which Mughal Emperor transferred the Mughal Capital from Agra to Delhi?
A. Jahangir
B. Aurangzeb
C. Shahjahan
D. Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first Mughal emperor to crown Agra as capital of mughal empire, was Akbar in the year 1526. The capital of mughal empire was changed from Agra to Delhi by Shah Jahan in the year 1638.


156. The stone railing which Aurangzeb ordered to remove was presented to Keshav Rai Temple by
A. Shah Jahan
B. Shivaji
C. Dara Shikoh
D. Dadaji

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : By order of Aurangzeb he had also forcibly removed, in 1666, the stone railing presented to the Keshav Rai temple by Dara Shikoh.


157. What is the full name of Aurangzeb?
A. Muin-ud-din Mohammed Aurangzeb
B. Nuruddin Mohammed Aurangzeb
C. Jalal-ud-din Mohammed Aurangzeb
D. Nasiruddin Mohammed Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Muhi-ud-Din Muhammad also known as Aurangzeb or by his title Alamgir was the sixth emperor of the Mughal Empire. He ruled over most of the Indian subcontinent. His reign lasted for 49 years from 1658 until his death in 1707.


158. Which of the following temples were destroyed by Aurangzeb?,I. Somnath temple,II. Vishwanath temple,III. Keshavrai temple,IV. Meenakshi temple
A. I II and III
B. I II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Temples that were destroyed by Aurangzeb are Somnath temple, Vishwanath temple and Keshavrai temple.


159. Which of the following statement is related to the Mughal emperor Aurangzeb?
A. Replaced many Hindu temples with mosques
B. Promoted religious toleration
C. Converted to Hinduism
D. Presided over an era of religious harmony

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal emperor Aurangzeb replaced many Hindu temples with mosques. The original Kashi Vishwanath Temple was demolished by Aurangzeb, the sixth Mughal emperor who constructed the Gyanvapi Mosque atop the original Hindu temple. Kashi Vishwanath was among the most renowned Hindu temples of India. Even today the pillars and the structure of the original temple can be clearly seen.


160. Which Sikh guru was executed by Aurangzeb?
A. Tegh Bahadur
B. Arjun Dev
C. Hargobind
D. Gobind Singh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Guru was summoned to Delhi by Aurangzeb on a pretext, but when he arrived, he was offered, “to abandon his faith, and convert to Islam”. Guru Tegh Bahadur refused, and he and his associates were arrested. He was executed on 11 November 1675 in public in Chandni Chowk, Delhi.


161. The Mughal empire reached its maximum territorial extent during the reign of
A. Akbar
B. Shah Jahan
C. Aurangzeb
D. Bahadur Shah I

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Aurangzeb ruled 1658-1707 and expanded the empire to its greatest extent, shown by the heavy red line on the map.


162. Who of the following became a member of the “Din-i-Ilahi”?
A. Todarmal
B. Raja Birbal
C. Raja Man Singh
D. Tansen

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The theory of Din-i-Ilahi was introduced by Mughal Emperor Akbar. It is based on Monotheism(believe in one God).(Chief priest : Abul Fazal).The first initiated disciples of Din-i-ilahi during emperor Akbar the Great’s time included Birbal, Prince Salim and Abul-Fazl ibn Mubarak.


163. Where is Muslim mosque situated where a hair of pagamber Mohammad Sahed has been preserved
A. Ajmer
B. Ahmedabad
C. Srinagar
D. Mecca

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Hazratbal Shrine (Urdu, Kashmiri: literally “Majestic Place”), is a Muslim shrine in Hazratbal, Srinagar, Jammu & Kashmir, India. It contains a relic, the Moi-e-Muqqadas, believed by many Muslims of Kashmir to be a hair of the Islamic prophet Muhammad.


164. Under the Mughals the Commander-in-Chief of the Army was
A. The crown prince
B. Mansabdar
C. Emperor
D. Zamindar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Commander-in-Chief, Mughal emperor. The Army of the Mughal Empire was the force by which the Mughal emperors established their empire in the 15th century and expanded it to its greatest extent at the beginning of the 18th century.


165. The Persian ruler who besieged Qandhar in Jahangir’s reign was
A. Shah Muhammad
B. Shah Parvez
C. Shah Abbas
D. Shah Raza

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Persian ruler who besieged Qandhar in Jahangir’s reign was Shah Abbas.


166. The Mughal aubdued the Pathans by following the policy of
A. Annexation
B. Association
C. Divide and rule
D. Co-existence

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : By 1675 A.D. Mughal authority was reestablished in the north-western frontier. The Pathan tribes were finally subdued by the policy of divide and rule.


167. Who was the Mughal Prince who was well-versed in Arabic, Persian and Sanakrit?
A. Prince Akbar
B. Prince Salim
C. Prince Sulaiman Shukoh
D. Prince Dara Shukoh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Prince Dara Shukoh was the Mughal Prince who was well-versed in Arabic, Persian and Sanskrit.


168. In 1739, who defeated the Mughal army at the Battle of Karnal?
A. Nader Shah
B. Genghis Khan
C. Hemu Vikramaclitya
D. Bajirao-I

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Emperor Nader Shah, the Shah of Persia (1736–47) and the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Persia, invaded the Mughal Empire, eventually attacking Delhi in March 1739. His army had easily defeated the Mughals at the battle at Karnal and would eventually capture the Mughal capital in the aftermath of the battle.


169. Who introduced the Subsidiary Alliance System in India?
A. Lord Dalhousie
B. Lord Ripan
C. Lord Wellesley
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The doctrine of subsidiary alliance was introduced by Lord Wellesley, British Governor-General in India from 1798 to 1805. Early in his governorship Wellesley adopted a policy of non-intervention in the princely states, but he later adopted the policy of forming subsidiary alliances.


170. Vasco da Gama a sailor belongs to __________
A. Portuguese
B. American
C. German
D. South American

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Vasco da Gama (1469 or 1469-December 24, 1524) was a Portuguese sailor. He was the first European who went to India through the Cape of Good Hope, the southern end of Africa in Cape Town. He went to India three times by ship. He was born in Sines, Portugal.


171. Birbal was an advisor in the court of?
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Aurangzeb
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Birbal is a famous historical character and he was a court jester in the court of Mughal Emperor Jalaluddin Mohammed Akbar. He was one among the nine jewels or ‘Nav Ratnas’ in the court of Akbar. He was in the inner council of advisors of Akbar’s administration.


172. Which Mughal emperor was a great musician, a great patron of Hindustani Music and was popularly known as Rangila?
A. Bahdur Shah I
B. Bahadur Shah II
C. Muhammad Shah
D. Ahmad Shah

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Muhammad Shah was a great patron of the arts, including musical, cultural and administrative developments. His pen-name was Sada Rangila (“ever joyous”) and he is often referred to as “Muhammad Shah Rangila”, also sometimes as “Bahadur Shah Rangila” after his grand father Bahadur Shah I.


173. When was the battle of Buxar fought?
A. October 1764
B. October 1754
C. Sept. 1564
D. Jan. 1824

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the forces under the command of the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1763; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II.


174. Which European power was the last who reached India?
A. Portuguese
B. Germans
C. The French
D. The Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : France was the last of the major European maritime powers of the 17th century to enter the East India trade.


175. “Din-i-Ilhai” was the new religion started by
A. Humayun
B. Jahangir
C. Akbar
D. Shahjahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Dīn-i Ilāhī (lit. “Religion of God”) was a syncretic religion propounded by the Mughal emperor Akbar in 1582 CE, intending to merge some of the elements of the religions of his empire, and thereby reconcile the differences that divided his subjects.


176. Jahangir (1605-1627 AD) was the ruler of which dynasty?
A. Nanda
B. Haryanka
C. Maurya
D. Mughal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mirza Nur-ud-din Beig Muhammad Khan Salim, known by his imperial name Jahangir (31 August 1569 – 28 October 1627), was the fourth Mughal Emperor who ruled from 1605 until his death in 1627.


177. Which of the following statement (s) is/are correct related to Mughal Emperor Jahangir?,I. Jahangir claimed that he could distinguish the work of different artists in a single picture.,II. Painting was at its climax during his reign.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jahangir claimed that he could distinguish the work of different artists in a single picture. Painting was at its climax during his reign.


178. Which of the undermentioned facts about Taj Mahal in not correct?
A. It is a magnificent Mausoleum
B. It was built by Shah Jahan
C. It is situated outside Agra Fort
D. The names of artisans who builtd it are engraved on it

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The names of artisans who build it are not engraved on it.


179. The Ibadat Khana was a meeting house built by which Mughal Emperor?
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Ibadat Khana (House of Worship) was a meeting house built in 1575 CE by the Mughal Emperor Akbar (r. 1556–1605) at Fatehpur Sikri to gather spiritual leaders of different religious grounds so as to conduct a discussion on the teachings of the respective religious leaders.


180. The first invasion of India by Sultan Mahmud Ghazni was in
A. 1004 (AD)
B. 1001 (AD)
C. 1000 (AD)
D. 999 (AD)

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mahmud of Ghazni first invaded modern Afghanistan and Pakistan in 1000 AD. He defeated Hindu shahi kingdom ruler Jaya Pala, who killed himself later, and his son Ananda Pala became his successor. 1006 : Ghazni invaded Multan.


181. Find out the correct match of the following
A. Asaf Khan – Akbar
B. Adam Khan – Akbar
C. Bairam Khan – Akbar
D. Shaista Khan – Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Bairam Khan was the most prominet military commander-in-chief of the Mughal Army. He was the Guardian, mentor and the teacher of emperor Arkbar.


182. Under the Mughals the cotton goods were exported to
A. Africa
B. Sumatra
C. Japan
D. England

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under the Mughals the main markets was of cotton goods, India’s chief export product exported to Africa.


183. Who discovered a direct sea route to India?
A. Portuguese
B. Germans
C. The French
D. The Dutch

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The discovery of the sea route to India is the description sometimes used in Europe and among the Portuguese for the first recorded trip made directly from Europe to India via the Atlantic Ocean. It was undertaken under the command of Portuguese explorer Vasco da Gama during the reign of King Manuel I in 1497–1499.


184. Slaves who were in great demand under the Mughals were
A. Abyssinians
B. Persians
C. Africans
D. Afghans

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : An extensive demand for slaves was created within India, the demand coming from Mughals. The considerable imports of Abyssinian slaves were in great demand.


185. Who are credited to a large extent for ending the Mughal rule in India?
A. Mauryas
B. Cholas
C. Guptas
D. Marathas

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Marathas especially the great maratha rulers Chattrapati Shivaji, Sambhaji, Tarabai and Peshwa Bajirao-I are credited to a large extent for ending the Mughal rule in India.


186. Who is the only women historian to have written a historical account of Mughal Period?
A. Noorjahan Begum
B. Zebun-nissa Begum
C. Gulbadan Begum
D. Jahanara Begum

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gulbadan Begum (1523-1603) was a Perso-Turkic Princess, the daughter of Emperor Babur. She is most known as the author of Humayun Nama, the account of the life of her brother, Humayun.


187. Under the Mughals, in urban area the judicial powers were exercised by
A. Kazis
B. Faujdar
C. Kotwal
D. Wazir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Most of king’s powers in urban areas were exercised by the kotwal, a secular functionary of the police, responsible under the Mughals for the peace of cities and towns.


188. Chand Bibi was the ruler of
A. Ahmednagar
B. Bijapur
C. Satara
D. Golconda

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Chand Bibi (1550–1599 CE), was an Indian Muslim regent and warrior. She acted as the Regent of Bijapur (1580–90) and Regent of Ahmednagar (in current day Maharashtra) (1596–99). Chand Bibi is best known for defending Ahmednagar against the Mughal forces of Emperor Akbar in 1595.


189. Which Mughal emperor is credited with having composed secular Hindi songs?
A. Jahangir
B. Shah Jahan
C. Humayun
D. Babur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal emperor Jahangir is credited with having composed secular Hindi songs.


190. Who got construced ‘Grand Trunk Road’?
A. Akbar
B. Ashoka
C. Shershah Suri
D. Samudra Gupta

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Grand Trunk Road, built by Sher Shah Suri, a ruler of the Indian sub continent in the 16th century AD, starts in Kabul, Afghanistan. The road continues to Pakistan near Peshawar through the famous Khyber Pass.


191. The East India Company was founded in India during the reign of
A. Shah Jahan
B. Jahangir
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1612, James I instructed Sir Thomas Roe to visit the Mughal Emperor Nur-ud-din Salim Jahangir (r. 1605–1627) to arrange for a commercial treaty that would give the company exclusive rights to reside and establish factories in Surat and other areas.


192. The Mughal Emperor who caused the murder of Guru Arjan was
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Shah Jahan
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Guru Arjan was arrested under the orders of the Mughal Emperor Jahangir and asked to convert to Islam. He refused, was tortured and executed in 1606 CE. Historical records and the Sikh tradition are unclear whether Guru Arjan was executed by drowning or died during torture.


193. Which Mughal Ruler’s gave permission for collecting Chauth and Sardesh Mukhi on Maratha land to Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath?
A. Farrukhsiyar
B. Rafi-ud-Darajat
C. Rafi-ud-Daula
D. Muhammed Shah

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Farrukhsiyar gave permission for collecting Chauth and Sardesh Mukhi on Maratha land to Peshwa Balaji Vishwanath.


194. Two major crops introduced in India during the Mughal period were
A. Millet and Groundnut
B. Potato and Mustard
C. Tobacco and Maize
D. Indigo and Maize

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Two major crops introduced in India during the Mughal period were Tobacco and Maize.


195. When was the battle of Haldighati fought?
A. 1776
B. 1676
C. 1576
D. 1476

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.


196. When was the second Anglo-Mysore War fought?
A. 1780-84
B. 1788-89
C. 1784-88
D. 1770-74

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Second Anglo–Mysore War was a conflict between the Kingdom of Mysore and the British East India Company from 1780 to 1784.


197. I. His reign saw beginning of a new intercourse between Europe of India,II. Attempted to prohibit traffic in eunuchs,III. Started practices of inter-caste marriages between the families of government officers,IV. Ordered the abolition of inhuman corporal punishments,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct related to Jahangir?
A. I II and III
B. I II and IV
C. II III and IV
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : His reign saw beginning of a new intercourse between Europe of India. He attempted to prohibit traffic in eunuchs. He ordered the abolition of inhuman corporal punishments.


198. I. Jahangir had set up his court at Allahabad, assumed royal titles and struck coins in his name,II. He banned slaughter of animals on two days in every week viz – Sunday & Thursday.,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct related to Jahangir?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jahangir had set up his court at Allahabad, assumed royal titles and struck coins in his name. He banned slaughter of animals on two days in every week viz – Sunday & Thursday.


199. I. The full name of Jahangir was Nuruddin Md. Jahangir,II. Jahangir had ended a long drawn out struggle with Mewar,III. Mahabat Khan revolted against Jahangir and captured Jahangir and his wife Nurjahan at Lahore,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct related to Jahangir?
A. Only I
B. I and II
C. II and III
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The full name of Jahangir was Nuruddin Md. Jahangir. Jahangir had ended a long drawn out struggle with Mewar. Mahabat Khan revolted against Jahangir and captured Jahangir and his wife Nurjahan at Lahore.


200. Who was the architect who designed “Taj Mahal” ?
A. Muhammad Hussain
B. Ustad Ahmed Lahori
C. Shah Isa
D. Ismail

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Ustad Ahmad Lahori, also spelled as ‘Ahmad Lahori’ was an Iranian architect. He is said to have been chief architect of the Taj Mahal in Agra, India, built between 1632 and 1648 during the ruling period of Mughal emperor Shah Jahan.


201. Who introduced Mansabdari system in India?
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mansabdari system was the administrative system introduced by Akbar in Mughal Empire during 1571. The word ‘Mansab’ is of Arabic origin meaning rank or position. Hence, Mansabdari was a system of ranking the government officials and determined their civil & military duties, along with their renumerations.


202. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
A. Abul Fazal Chief -Advisor
B. Faizi – Poet
C. Birbal – Finance Minister
D. All are correct

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Birbal was one of the nine Jews in the court of Akbar, he was not the finance minister. Todarmal was the finance minister of Akbar.


203. Who among the following was an illiterate?
A. Jahagir
B. Shah Jahan
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Akbar remained illiterate and uneducated all his life. He had to occupy the throne at the early age of 13 years after the untimely death of his father Humayun. The responsibilities of the Great Mughal Empire never allowed him the time to educate himself.


204. Which one of the following was the cause of disintegration of the Mughal Empire?
A. War of succession among sons of Aurangzeb
B. Attacks of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali
C. Revolts of various communities like Jats Sikhs Rajputs etc.
D. All of the above mentioned factors contributed to the downfall of the Mughal Empire.

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : War of succession among sons of Aurangzeb. 9Attacks of Nadir Shah and Ahmad Shah Abdali. Revolts of various communities like Jats, Sikhs, Rajputs etc. All of the above mentioned factors contributed to the downfall of the Mughal Empire.


205. The well-known painting showing the arrival at the Mughal Court of the great singer Tansen exhibits
A. The Persian Style
B. Gandhara Style
C. Hindu Style
D. The fusion of the Mughal and Hindu Styles

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The well-known painting of the arrival of Tansen, the legendary singer at the court of Akbar, shows the fusion of this Persian and Hindu styles of art.


206. Rana Pratap Singh of Mewar was defeated by the Mughal army in the battle of
A. Mewar
B. Chittor
C. Haldighati
D. Udaipur

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber. After a fierce battle lasting more than three hours, Pratap found himself wounded and the day lost.


207. The Mughals imported fruits from
A. Samarkand
B. Arabia
C. Kabul
D. Portugal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Babur, the first Mughal emperor, was raised on a Central Asian diet that placed tremendous emphasis on the many fruits that passed through the region. In the markets of Samarkand one could purchase sweet apples, lush melons, and a bounty of other fruits from the region’s orchards.


208. The Mughal emperor who had died owing to a sudden fall from the staircase was
A. Babur
B. Shah Jahan
C. Humayun
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mughal Emperor Humayun died after a sudden fall from the stairs of his library in his fort at Delhi in 1556 AD.


209. Permission to the British to establish their trading centre at Surat had been given by the Mughal emperor
A. Babur
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sir Thomas Roe from company reached the court of the Mughal Emperor, Jahangir, as the emissary of King James I in 1615, and gained for the British the right to establish a factory at Surat.


210. Name the Pala ruler who was the first to plunge into the tripartite struggle
A. Devapala
B. Mahipala
C. Dharmapala
D. Gopala

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Gopala of the Pala dynasty was the first to plunge into the tripartite struggle.


211. Which of the following Mughal King reign during the large scale famine in Gujarat and Deccan?
A. Aurangzeb
B. Jahangir
C. Akbar
D. Shahjahan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : On the one hand we hear of several famines which caused untold sufferings and on the other hand we hear the Golden Age of Shah Jahan.


212. The reputed musician duo, Tansen and Baiju Bawra, flourished during the reign of
A. Jahangir
B. Bahadur Shah Zafar
C. Akbar
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Baiju Bawra (Baijnath Mishra) he was the drupadh singer of Medieval period. Miyan Tansen was the Mystical court singer of Mughal emperor Akbar.


213. During the Mughal rule the finance minister was known as
A. Vakil
B. Diwan
C. Kotwal
D. Amin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During the Mughal rule, the status of Diwan in the province was equal to the status of a modern day finance minister. His main responsibilities were collection of taxes on behalf of the emperor.


214. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
A. Sena dynasty —Founded by Vijaya Sena
B. Pala dynasty —Founded by Gopala
C. Prathihara dynasty —Founded by Bhoja
D. Rastrakuta dynasty —Founded by Amogavarsha

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Dantidurga (735–756 CE), also known as Dantivarman or Dantidurga II was the founder of the Rashtrakuta Empire of Manyakheta.


215. Battle for Delhi was fought in the year __________
A. 1764
B. 1526
C. 1556
D. 1857

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Delhi also known as the battle of Tughlaqabad was fought between Hemu (the General of Adil Shah Suri) and the Mughal forces led by Tardi Beg Khan in the year 1556. Hemu won the battle and over took Delhi.


216. Who said the given statement – “I came alone and I am going alone. I have not done well to the country and the people, and of the future there is no hope”
A. Mir Jumla
B. Dara Shikoh
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Aurangzeb said the given statement – “I came alone and I am going alone. I have not done well to the country and the people, and of the future there is no hope”.


217. Name the Indian king who warmly received the Portuguese traveller Vasco da Gama when he landed at Calicut
A. Asaf Jah Ismail Mulk
B. Devaraya
C. Zamorin
D. Krishnadevaraya

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The king of Calicut, Zamorin welcomed Vasco-da-gama when he landed at calicut in 1498.


218. Who among the following attacked the Somnath temple?
A. Mahmud of Ghazni
B. Muhammad Ghori
C. Iltutmish
D. Qutb-ud-din Aibak

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The prominent Turkic ruler Mahmud of Ghazni raided Gujarat, plundering the Somnath temple and breaking its jyotirlinga despite pleas by Brahmins not to break it. He took away a booty of 20 million dinars.


219. Name the language that was designted as the ‘Camp Language’ during the Medieval Period
A. Sanskrit
B. Pali
C. Hindi
D. Urdu

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Urdu was designated the camp language of Medieval India. The word Urdu is a Turkish word that means military camp ‘a Lashkar’. Urdu language was developed due to contact of Hindu, Turkish and Afghan soldiers.


220. Who among the following Mughal Emperors was half Rajput?
A. Shah Jahan ; Aurangzeb
B. Akbar Jahan ; Jahangir
C. Shah Jahan ; Jahangir
D. Jahangir ; Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jahangir was half-Rajput and quarter-Persian, and Shah Jahan was three-quarters Rajput.


221. Which of the following state was not the victim of “The Subsidiary Alliance System”?
A. Mysore
B. Satara
C. Awadh
D. Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Satara state was not the victim of “The Subsidiary Alliance System”.


222. Which state was the first victim of “The Subsidiary Alliance System”?
A. Satara
B. Mysore
C. Hyderabad
D. Awadh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : ‘The Nizam of Hyderabad’ was the first victim of this policy. In AD 1798 it detached the Nizam from the French and also forbade having alliances with Maratha without British consent.


223. The Battle of Haldighati (1576) was a fight between Rajput and Mughal forces. Who led the Mughal forces?
A. Man Singh
B. Jai Singh
C. Khurram
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.


224. Which Pratihara ruler had the famous poet, Rajasekhara, at his court?
A. Vatsaraja
B. Mahipala
C. Nagahhatta-II
D. Mihira Bhoja

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The famous poet Rajasekhara lived in his court, and subsequently in the court of his son Mahipala. He was the author of Kavyamimansa, which contains a wealth of geographical data. Mahipala was the last important ruler of the Pratihara dynasty.


225. Painting reached its highest level of development during the reign of
A. Akbar
B. Aurangzeb
C. Jahangir
D. Shahjahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mughal Paintings reached its Zenith during the reign of Mughal Emperor Jahangir. He patronised many great painters including Mansoou, Abul Hasan, Daswant and Basawan.


226. The Battle of Haldighati was fought between
A. Akbar and Rana Sangram Singh
B. Akbar and Medini Rai
C. Akbar and Rana Pratap Singh
D. Akbar and Uday Singh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.


227. Who among the following had shifted the capital of the Mughal empire from Agra to Delhi?
A. Shah Jahan
B. Aurangzeb
C. Jahangir
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The first Mughal emperor to crown Agra as capital of mughal empire, was Akbar in the year 1526. The capital of mughal empire was changed from Agra to Delhi by Shah Jahan in the year 1638.


228. In whose reign did the Mughal painting reach its zenith?
A. Jahangir
B. Akbar
C. Shah Jahan
D. Humayun

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In Jahangir’s reign did the Mughal painting reach its zenith.


229. Which of the following was defended by Chand Bibi against the Mughals?
A. Bijapur
B. Berar
C. Ahmednagar
D. Bedar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Chand Bibi is best known for defending Ahmednagar against the Mughal forces of Emperor Akbar in 1595.


230. A hearty welcome was extended to the English captain Hawkins by the Mughal Emperor
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : A hearty welcome was extended to the English captain Hawkins by the Mughal Emperor Jahangir, and on this the Portuguese got angry.


231. Under the Mughal rule the Chief Minister was known as
A. Diwan
B. Vakil
C. Kazi
D. Mansabdar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Diwan: The Diwan was the finance minister responsible for a collection of revenue and remittance of it to the imperial treasury. The office was sometimes combined the that of Vizier. The Diwani (revenue office) was conferred on the East India Company by Shah Alam in 1765. This greatly enhanced the power of the British in India. In later years the term Diwan was also used for the prime minister of a princely state.

Vakil: The Vakil was the royal deputy. It was a post filled only twice under the seven great Mughal emperors. Other ranks were in descending order:

Kazi: The Chief Kazi was an Islamic scholar & judge and the expounder of canon law.

Mansabdar: The Mansabdar (lit. rank holder) was the lowest grade of an official. They were divided into three functions: military, clerical and theological.


232. Name the king who invaded Delhi and plundered the Kohinoor diamond __________
A. Nadir Shah
B. Firuz Shah
C. Mohammed Shah
D. Mohammed Ghori

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Nadir Shah of Iran invaded India in 1739 and took with him famous Mughal peacock throne and kohinoor diamond in the battle of Karnal.


233. During the Mughal period Polaj was the
A. land annually cultivated
B. land left fallow
C. land uncultivated
D. barren land

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Polaj was the ideal and best type of land throughout the empire. This land was cultivated always and was never allowed to lie fallow.


234. What was the original name of Nur Jahan?
A. Zeb-un-Nissa
B. Fatima Begum
C. Mehr-un-Nissa
D. Jahanara

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Nur Jahan (born Mehr-un-Nissa) (31 May 1577 – 17 December 1645) was the twentieth (and last) wife of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.


235. The Mughals have been made immortal by their achievements in the field
A. Political
B. Architectural
C. Military
D. Social

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mughal architecture flourished in the Indian subcontinent from the 16th until the early 18th century when the Mughal Empire was at its height. The architectural style which is a unique blend of Islamic, Indian and Persian styles reached its golden age under Shah Jahan (ruled 1628-1658) who built the spectacular Taj Mahal and some other equally impressive monuments.


236. Treaty of Lahore taken place on __________
A. 1836
B.
C.
D.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Treaty of Lahore was signed on 9 March 1846 after the First Sikh War.


237. Who was Nur Jahan’s son-in-law?
A. Khurram
B. Nazim
C. Abdul
D. Shahryar

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Shahryar Mirza (16 January 1605 – 23 January 1628) was the fifth and youngest son of the Mughal emperor Jahangir. After Jahangir’s death, Shahryar made an attempt to become emperor and was successful with the help of his powerful stepmother Nur Jahan, who was also his mother-in-law.


238. Tansen, a great musician of his times, was in the Court of
A. Jahangir
B. Akbar
C. Shahjahan
D. Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In 1562, about the age of 60, the Vaishnava musician Tansen joined the Akbar court, and his performances became a subject of many court historians.


239. Jahangir was born in the year
A. 1569
B. 1669
C. 1769
D. 1869

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Prince Salim, later Jahangir, was born on 31 August 1569, in Fatehpur Sikri, to Akbar and Mariam-uz-Zamani. Akbar’s previous children had died in infancy and he had sought the help of holy men to produce a son.


240. Jahangir was the son of
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Prince Salim, later Jahangir, was born on 31 August 1569, in Fatehpur Sikri, to Akbar and Mariam-uz-Zamani. Akbar’s previous children had died in infancy and he had sought the help of holy men to produce a son. Salim was named for one such man, Shaikh Salim, though Akbar always called him Shekhu Baba. Jahangir was the fourth Mughal Emperor who ruled from 1605 until his death in 1627.


241. Who of the following was sent as an ambassador to the royal court of Jahangir by James I, the king of England?
A. John Hawkins
B. Willia Todd
C. Sir Thomas Roe
D. Sir Walter Raleigh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In 1614, Roe was elected Member of Parliament for Tamworth. From 1615 to 1618, he was ambassador to the court at Agra, India, of the Great Mughal Ruler, Jahangir. His journal was a valuable source of information for the reign of Jahangir.


242. Under the Mughal rule the judicial service was formed by
A. Vakil
B. Diwan
C. Kazis
D. Mansabdars

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Under the Mughal rule the judicial service was formed by Kazis.


243. The city of Dhillika (Delhi) was founded by the
A. Chauhans
B. Tomars
C. Pawars
D. Pariharas

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Delhi has a long history and is known to be the city called Indraprastha during the epic times. But historically Delhi’s name is associated with a Tomar King named Anangpal, who founded the Red Fort (Lal Kot) in the middle of the 11th century.


244. Consider the following statements about Sudarshan Lake. Which of them is correct?
A. It was constructed by Pushyagupta the Governor of Saurashtra region during Chandragupta Maurya
B. Tushaap constructed a darn on the lake during Ashoka Maurya
C. First reconstruction was undertaken by Governor Suvishakh during Saka satrap Rudradaman and 2nd by Chakrapalit during the reign of Skandgupta
D. All of the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sudarshan Lake was constructed by Pushyagupta, the Governor of Saurashtra region during Chandragupta Maurya. Tushaap constructed a darn on the lake during Ashoka Maurya. First reconstruction was undertaken by Governor Suvishakh during Saka satrap Rudradaman and 2nd by Chakrapalit during the reign of Skandgupta.


245. Which among the following fort was known as the ‘Key of Deccan’?
A. Kalinjar
B. Ajaygarh
C. Asirgarh
D. Gulbarga

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Asirgarh fort was built by Muslim emperor Asa Ahir in the peak of the Satpura Ranges, Madhya Pradesh. It is also known as ‘Babe Deccan’ which means “Key to the Deccan’ and also ‘Door to South India”.


246. The art of painting in the Mughal age was __________ in origin
A. Persian
B. Hindu
C. French
D. Afghan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Mughal painting is that particular style of South Asian painting which generally confines miniatures either as book illustrations or as single works to be kept in albums, which emerged from Persian miniature painting (itself largely of Chinese origin), with Indian Muslim, Hindu, Jain, and Buddhist influences, and developed largely in the court of the Mughal Empire of the 16th to 18th centuries.


247. Under the Mughals one of the main imports was
A. pepper
B. raw silk
C. cotton
D. opium

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Under the Mughals one of the main imports was raw silk.


248. Who built Imambara and Rumi Darwaza?
A. Wajid Ali Shah
B. Asaf-ud-daula
C. Shuja-ud-daula
D. Adbdul Mansur

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Rumi Darwaza was built by the fourth Nawab of Lucknow, Nawab Asaf-ud-Daula and is believed to be identical to an old gate in Istanbul called Bab-i-Hümayun, and so is also sometimes referred to as Turkish Gate. The 60 feet high gate is now considered an architectural marvel, but it built for a noble purpose.


249. Which one of the following Mughal buildings is said to possess the unique feature of being exactly equal in length and beadth?
A. Agra Fort
B. Red Fort
C. Taj Mahal
D. Buland Darwaza

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Taj Mahal was built by Mughal Emperor Shahjahan in memory of his beloved wife Noor Jahan. It was designed by Ustad Ahmad Lahauri. The dome of Taj Mahal has exactly same height and the lenght of base i.e. 35 metres.


250. Historian Abdul Hamid Lahori was in the court of
A. Aurangzeb
B. Akbar
C. Shahjahan
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Abdul Hamid Lahori (died 1654) was a traveller and historian during the period of Shah Jahan who later became a court historian of Shah Jahan.


251. Which Mughal ruler’s reign has been described as the golden age of medieval art and architecture?
A. Jahangir’s
B. Babur’s
C. Humayun’s
D. Shah Jahan’s

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The age of Shah Jahan(January 1628-July 1658) is considered to be the golden age in Mughal Empire because during his reign there was peace in the country.There were no foreign threats. He did a lot of work for the welfare of people like he constructed roads,canals,sarais etc.


252. Which one of the following traders first came to India during the Mughal period?
A. Portuguese
B. Dutch
C. Danish
D. Britis

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Portuguese traders first came to India during the Mughal period.


253. Who among the following Mughal Emperor became the first pensioner of the East India Company?
A. Ahmed Shah
B. Akbar II
C. Bahadur Shah
D. Muhammed Shah

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Akbar II (22 April 1760 – 28 September 1837), also known as Akbar Shah II, was the penultimate Mughal emperor of India. He reigned from 1806 to 1837.


254. The famous Mughal General who conquered Assam, Chittagong, etc. in the north-east was
A. Shaista Khan
B. Mir Jumla
C. Mirza Raja Jai Singh
D. Jaswant Singh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The famous Mughal General who conquered Assam, Chittagong, etc. in the north-east was Mir Jumla.


255. The Mughal government can be described as an/a
A. Autocracy
B. Liberal monarchy
C. Centralised despotism
D. Absolute monarchy

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mughal government was a centralized despotism. In such a system everything depended upon the personality and character of the monarch.


256. The first Mughal Garden in India had been laid out by
A. Babur
B. Shah Jahan
C. Akbar
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The founder of the Mughal empire, Babur, described his favourite type of garden as a charbagh. They use the term bāgh, baug, bageecha or bagicha for garden.


257. Under the Mughal rule the main occupation of the people was
A. Sea faring
B. Agriculture
C. Working in mines
D. Service in the army

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Indian agricultural production increased under the Mughal Empire. A variety of crops were grown, including food crops such as wheat, rice, and barley, and non-food cash crops such as cotton, indigo and opium.


258. Which of the following statement is not correct about Portuguese?
A. They brought tobacco cultivation in India
B. They spread Catholicism in western and eastern coast of India
C. They established first printing press in India at Goa in AD 1556
D. The Indian Medicinal Plants was the first scientific work which was published at Andhra Pradesh in 1563

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Portuguese were the first Europeans to write scientifically on plants and especially on medicinal plants. Garcia da Orta who published his work Coloquios dos Simples e Drogas da India in 1563 from Goa is considered the pioneer in this field.


259. The Upanishads were translated by Dara Shikoh in Persian under the title of
A. Mayma-ul-Bahrain
B. Sirr-i-Akbar
C. Al-Fihrist
D. Kitabul Bayan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : So’aal o Jawaab bain-e-Laal Daas wa Dara Shikoh (also called Mukaalama-i Baba Laal Daas wa Dara Shikoh) Sirr-e-Akbar (The Great Secret, his translation of the Upanishads in Persian) Persian translations of the Yoga Vasishta and Bhagavad Gita.


260. Which statement (s) is/are correct related to Mughal’s decline?,I. Mughal’s noble were well known for their loyalty but war of successor degenerated the nobility led to the decline of Mughal.,II. Mughal Empire declined due to over decentralization of administration.
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I and II

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Prolong war of succession fractured the administrative unit of Mughal’s. Weakness of the Nobility: Mughal’s noble were well known for their loyalty but war of successor degenerated the nobility. The mighty Mughal Empire began to decline after the death of Aurangzeb. The declining prospect of Mughal rule was knelled by quick succession and also war of succession.


261. Who among the following was the first to make use of artillery in warfare in medieval India?
A. Babur
B. Ibrahim Lodi
C. Sher Shah Suri
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Babur was the first to make use of artillery and gunpowder fire arms in warfare during the first Battle of Panipat in 1526.


262. During the Mughal rule in India tobacco was first cultivated in
A. Madras
B. Gujarat
C. Delhi
D. Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Tobacco manufacture can scarcely have started in India during Akbar’s reign. Firstly in the province of Gujarat, where the leaf was obtainable in the 1613.


263. The second Battle of Panipat was fought between
A. Akbar and Hemu
B. Rajputs and Mughals
C. Babur and Ibrahim Lodi
D. Sikander and Adilshah

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Second Battle of Panipat was fought between the forces of Samrat Hem Chandra Vikramaditya, popularly called Hemu, the Hindu king who was ruling North India from Delhi, and the army of Akbar, on November 5, 1556. It was a decisive victory for Akbar’s generals Khan Zaman I and Bairam Khan.


264. The most important feature of the Mughal building was the
A. Dome
B. Arch
C. The narrow columns
D. Corbel brackets

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The most important features of the Mughal monuments in India are the bulbous domes with constricted necks, the slender minarets with cupolas at the four corners, large halls, massive vaulted gateways and delicate ornamentation. Red Sandstone was amply used in Mughal monuments.


265. During Mughal rule, excellent cotton goods were woven in which one of the following centres?
A. Agra
B. Surat
C. Delhi
D. Calcutta

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : During Mughal rule, excellent cotton goods were woven in Agra. The manufacture of cotton cloth was the principal industry.


266. Which of the following Mughal monarchs has vividly described Indian flora & fauna, seasons, fruits etc. in his diary?
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Babur
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Both Mughal Emperor Babur and Emperor Jahangir (tuzuk-e-jahangiri) have visibly described Indian flora, fauna and season & fruit in his dairy. But option ‘C’ is more accurate.


267. Under the Mughals the Governor was popularly known as
A. Subahdar
B. Wazir
C. Vakil
D. Faujdar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The principal officer was the governor, called sipah salar under Akbar and nazim under his successors, but popularly known as subahdar and later only as subah.


268. Who was the last Mughal emperor?
A. Babur
B. Noor Jehan
C. Akbar
D. Bahadur Shah

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Abu Zafar Sirajuddin Muhammad Bahadur Shah Zafar, also known as Bahadur Shah or Bahadur Shah II (October 1775 – 7 November 1862) was the last of the Mughal emperors in India, as well as the last ruler of the Timurid Dynasty. He was the son of Akbar Shah II and Lalbai, who was a Hindu Rajput.


269. Who among the following rulers abolished Jiziya?
A. Aurangzeb
B. Balban
C. Akbar
D. Jahangir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jizya was abolished by the third Mughal emperor Akbar, in 1564. It was finally abolished in 1579.


270. What is the correct order (first to last) of states annexed under the policy of “Doctrine of Lapse”?
A. Satara > Jaipur > Sambhalpur> Bahat
B. Jaipur > Satara > Sambhalpur> Bahat
C. Bahat >Satara > Jaipur > Sambhalpur
D. Satara > Jaipur > Bahat> Sambhalpur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The company took over the princely states of Satara (1848), Jaitpur and Sambalpur (1849), Nagpur and Jhansi (1854), Tore and Arcot (1855) and Udaipur (Chhattisgarh) under the terms of the doctrine of lapse. Oudh (1856) is widely believed to have under the Doctrine of Lapse.


271. What was the policy of “doctrine of lapse”?
A. States were allowed to adopt son as an heir
B. States were not allowed to adopt son as an heir
C. According to this system every ruler in India had to accept to pay a subsidy to the British for the maintenance of British army
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : This doctrine was based on the idea that in case a ruler of dependent state died childless, the right of ruling over the State reverted or ‘lapsed’ to the sovereign.


272. Which of the following are the four Agnikula classes of Rajputs?
A. Tomars Pariharas Chauhans Pawars
B. Chandellas Tornars Solankis Chauhans
C. Chandellas Pariharas Chauhans Pawars
D. Pariharas Chauhans Pawars Solankis

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Clans that are included in the agnikula rajputs are Pariharas, Chauhans, Pawars, Solankis.


273. During the Mughal rule in the field of agriculture Parauti was the land
A. annually cultivated
B. left fallow
C. uncultivated
D. barren land

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Parauti was the land which had to be left fallow for one or two years to recoup the fertility.


274. Two Sayid brothers Sayid Abdullah Khan and Sayid Hussan Ali Khan (who rose to become the king makers during the later Mughal period) met their downfall during the reign of
A. Farrukhsiyar
B. Rafi-ud-DaIjat
C. Rafi-ud-Daula
D. Muhammad Shah

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Two Sayyid brothers Sayyid Abdullah Khan and Shahid Hassan Ali Khan (who rose to become the king makers during the later Mughal period) met their downfall during the reign of Muhammad Shah.


275. I. Hawkins was the first Englishman to visit Jahangir’s court,II. Hawkins was called by the name of English Khan, by Jahangir,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct related to Hawkins?
A. Both I and II are correct
B. Both I and II are incorrect
C. Only I is correct
D. Only II is correct

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Hawkins was the first Englishman to visit Jahangir’s court. Hawkins was called by the name of English Khan, by Jahangir. This English Khan was able to persuade the emperor to grant a commission for an English factory at Surat but under the Pressure of the Portuguese Viceroy, the grant was withdrawn.


276. Mughal presence in the Red fort was ceased by
A. Robert Clive
B. Lord hording
C. Heuroz
D. John Nicholsan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mughal presence in the Red fort was ceased by East India Company under Commander John Nicholsan with the fall of Bahadur Shah Zafar during the Revolt of 1857.


277. Which of the following statement is not true about “Doctrine of Lapse”?
A. It was started by Lord Dalhousie
B. It was in operations between 1848 and 1856
C. Nagpur was the first state annexed under this rule
D. Satara jaipur Jhansi and Nagpur states were annexed under this rule

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Satara was the first state annexed under this rule.


278. The Mughal Emperor who discouraged ‘Sati’ was
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Jehangir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sati were supposed to be voluntary. Since it was offensive to the sentiments of the Mughals, its rulers such as Akbar the Great explicitly banned involuntary sati. On a superficial level, therefore, most these women were not resistant to committing sati at all.


279. Which of the following Mughal Emperors wrote their own autobigraphies?
A. Shah Alam and Farukh Siyar
B. Babur and Jahangir
C. Jahangir and Shah Jahan
D. Akbr and Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mughal Emperor Babur wrote his autobiography Baburnama. (Tuzk-e-Babri) in Chapatai Language and Mughal Emperor Jahangir wrote autobiography Tuzuk-e-Jahangiri which is written in Persian Language.


280. “Mansabdars” in Mughal period were
A. Landlords and zamindars
B. Officials of the state
C. Those who had to give revenue
D. Revenue collectors

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : “Mansabdars” in Mughal period were Landlords and zamindars.


281. Which of the following is not true about Tipu Sultan?
A. He was a Great admirer of Jagadguru Sankracharya of Sringeri
B. His autobiography was Tarikh-i-Khudai
C. He died during the fourth Anglo-Mysore war
D. He laid the foundation of Krishnaraj Sagar Dam on Cauvery

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In the Fourth Anglo-Mysore War, the imperial forces of the British East India Company were supported by the Nizam of Hyderabad and Marathas. They defeated Tipu, and he was killed on 4 May 1799 while defending his fort of Srirangapatna.


282. The huge wealth of the Mughals Cell into the hands of __________ after the capture of Delhi in 1739
A. Nadir Shah
B. The English
C. The French
D. The Portuguese

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Emperor Nader Shah, the Shah of Persia (1736–47) and the founder of the Afsharid dynasty of Persia, invaded the Mughal Empire, eventually attacking Delhi in March 1739. His army had easily defeated the Mughals at the battle at Karnal and would eventually capture the Mughal capital in the aftermath of the battle.


283. The court language of the Mughals was
A. Urdu
B. Hindi
C. Arabic
D. Persian

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Humayun’s exile in Persia established diplomatic ties between the Safavid and Mughal Courts, and led to increasing Persian cultural influence in the Mughal Empire.


284. During the Mughal period the main source of Imperial revenue was
A. Agriculture
B. Customs duties
C. Industry
D. Foreign trade

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Indian agricultural production increased under the Mughal Empire. A variety of crops were grown, including food crops such as wheat, rice, and barley, and non-food cash crops such as cotton, indigo and opium.


285. I. Jahangir promulgated twelve edicts for the general welfare and better government to mark his coronation,II. Jahangir composed verses in Persian and sang Hindi lyrics,Which of the above statement (s) is/are correct?
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Both I and II
D. Neither I nor II

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jahangir promulgated twelve edicts for the general welfare and better government to mark his coronation. Jahangir composed verses in Persian and sang Hindi lyrics.


286. Where is the Bara Imambara located?
A. Agra
B. Lucknow
C. Patna
D. Allahabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bara Imambara, also known as Asafi Imambara is an imambara complex in Lucknow, India built by Asaf-ud-Daula, Nawab of Awadh in 1784. Bara means big.


287. Under the Mughals the jizya was collected from
A. Persians
B. Muhammadans
C. Hindus
D. Foreign visitors

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jizya tax was protection money. Muslims have been charging it not only from hindus in the past but from any non-muslim citizens in a territory they rule.


288. The first Mughal emperor of India was
A. Shahjahan
B. Humayun
C. Babur
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mughal Empire was founded by Babur (reigned 1526–1530), a Central Asian ruler who was descended from the Turco-Mongol conqueror Timur (the founder of the Timurid Empire) on his father’s side and from Chagatai, the second son of the Mongol ruler Genghis Khan, on his mother’s side.


289. The peacock throne was constructed by the Mughal Emperor
A. Akbar
B. Shah Jahan
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Peacock Throne was a jewelled throne built by Emperor Shah Jahan in the early 17th century. It was kept in the Diwan- e- Khas of the Red Fort in Delhi.


290. The writer of Ram Charit Manas, Tulsidas, was related to which ruler?
A. Chandragupta Maurya
B. Nawab Vajib Ali Sah
C. Harsha
D. Akbar

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Ram Charit Manas is considered by national and International scholars as one of the greatest pieces of literature ever written in the world. Tulsidas was a contemporary of Mughal emperor Akbar. But Hindutva forces have generally pitted Tulsidas against Akbar.


291. Who had completed the annexation of Ahmednagar?
A. Jahangir
B. Shahjahan
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Khan Jahan Lodi had sold off Balaghat to Ahmadnagar just before the accession of Shah Jahan on the throne. When he revolted, he found shelter in Ahmadnagar. Shah Jahan sent a strong force against Khan Jahan and Ahmadnagar in 1629 A.D. Ahmadnagar, withdrew its support to Khan Jahan but refused to submit itself. The Mughuls could succeed only partially against it.


292. Which Mughal Emperor fought the battle of Panipat in 1526?
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Akbar
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The First Battle of Panipat was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire, which took place on 21 April 1526 in North India. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire.


293. Which of the following statement is not correct about The French East India Company?
A. The French East India Company took hold of Yanam in 1723 AD Mahe on Malabar Coast in 1725 AD and Karaikal in 1739
B.
C.
D. The French East India Company was formed during the reign of King Louis XIV

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : French East India Company (French name is “Compagnie française pour le commerce des Indes orientales”) was a commercial enterprise formed in 1664 AD, established by Jean-Baptiste Colbert for the purpose of trading in the Eastern Hemisphere. The company was resulted from the fusion of three earlier french companies.


294. Where does Dutch founded their first factory in India?
A. Nagapatam
B. Masaulipatam
C. Pulicat
D. Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Dutch East India Company was created in 1602 as “United East India Company” and its first permanent trading post was in Indonesia. In India, they established the first factory in Masulipattanam in 1605, followed by Pulicat in 1610, Surat in 1616, Bimilipatam in 1641 and Chinsura in 1653.


295. Which of the following war decided the English as the ultimate rulers of India?
A. Revolt of 1857
B. Battle of Buxar
C. Third Battle of Panipat
D. First battle of Mysore

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Battle of Buxar was fought on 22 October 1764 between the forces under the command of the British East India Company, led by Hector Munro, and the combined armies of Mir Qasim, Nawab of Bengal till 1763; the Nawab of Awadh; and the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II. The battle was fought at Buxar, a “small fortified town” within the territory of Bihar, located on the banks of the Ganges river about 130 kilometres (81 mi) west of Patna; it was a decisive victory for the British East India Company.


296. The French East India Company was founded in
A. 1600
B. 1620
C. 1664
D. 1604

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Jean-Baptiste Colbert founded the French East India Company in 1664.


297. __________was the first Mughal Emperor to acquire Koh-i-noor diamond
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Akbar was the first Mughal Emperor to acquire Koh-i-noor diamond.


298. The foreign traveller who visited Indian during the Mughal Period and who left us and
expert’s description of the Peacock Throne, was
A. Geronimo Verroneo
B. Omrah’ Danishmand khan
C. Travernier
D. Austinof Bordeaux

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A foreign traveller who visited India during the Mughal period, was a jeweller and has left us an expert’s description of the Peacock Throne, was Travernier.


299. The treaty of Allahabad took place between __________
A. Shuja-ud-daulah Robert Clive and Shah Alam II
B. Shuja-ud-daulah Mir jafar and Shah Alam II
C. Shuja-ud-daulah Wajid Ali Shah and Shah Alam II
D. None of the Above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Treaty of Allahabad was signed on 12 August 1765, between the Mughal Emperor Shah Alam II, son of the late Emperor Alamgir II, and Robert Clive, of the East India Company, as a result of the Battle of Buxar of 22 October 1764.


300. During the Mughal period there was continuous emigration of the __________ to places ruled by Hindu Rajas
A. Nobles
B. Poor
C. Middle Class
D. Foreign residents

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During the Mughal period there was continuous emigration of the poor to places ruled by Hindu Rajas.


301. The Mughal queen, whose name was inscribed on the coins and on all royal farmans as well as attached to the imperial signature was
A. Jodha Bai
B. Nur Jahan
C. Mumtaz Mahal
D. Ladli Begum

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Mughal queen, whose name was inscribed on the coins and on all royal farmans as well as attached to the imperial signature was Nur Jahan.


302. The Mughal troops were largely drawn from
A. The Rajput Chiefs
B. Tributary Chiefs
C. Mansabdars
D. Central Contingents

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mansabdar was a military unit within the administrative system of the Mughal Empire introduced by Akbar. The word mansab is of Arabic origin meaning rank or position. The system, hence, determined the rank of a government official and also other military generals. Every civil and military officer was given a ‘mansab’ and different which could be increased by ten were used for ranking officers.


303. The Mughal painting reaches its/zenith during the reign of
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Akbar-II

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Mughal paintings reached its zenith during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. He patronized many great painters like Mansoon, Abul Hasan, Daswant and Basawan.


304. Mughal painting reached its zenith during the reign of
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Both (a) and (b) above
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Mughal paintings reached its zenith during the reign of Emperor Jahangir. He patronized many great painters like Mansoon, Abul Hasan, Daswant and Basawan.


305. Who among the following Mughal emperors, brought about the fall of Sayyid Brothers?
A. Bahadur Shah-I
B. Rafi-ud-daulah
C. Shah Jahan-II
D. Muhammad Shah

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sayyid Brothers Abdulla Khan (Wazir) and Hussain Ali Khan (Mir Bakshi) were the generals in Mughal army. They became very influential after the death of Emperor Aurangzeb. When Mughal Emperor Muhammad Shah ascended the throne, he took even the full control and got the killed. They also known as “King Makers”.


306. In the Mughal period the registers of the agricultural lands were maintained by
A. Kotwal
B. Qanungo
C. Amin
D. Krori

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In the Mughal period the registers of the agricultural lands were maintained by Qanungo.


307. The Mir Bakshi of the Mughal Emperors was the head of
A. Intelligence
B. Foreign affairs
C. Army organisation
D. Finance

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The head of the military was called the mir bakshi, appointed from among the leading nobles of the court. The mir bakshi was in charge of intelligence gathering, and also made recommendations to the emperor for military appointments and promotions.


308. In the Battle of Haldighati the Mughal troops were commanded by
A. Asaf khan
B. Raja Man Singh of Amber
C. Qazi Khan
D. Todar Mal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Battle of Haldighati was a battle fought on 18 June 1576 between cavalry and archers supporting the Rana of Mewar, Maharana Pratap; and the Mughal emperor Akbar’s forces, led by Man Singh I of Amber.


309. Second battle of Panipat was fought between which two armies?
A. Babur and Lodi Empire
B. Babur and Rana Sanga
C. Akbar and Hemu
D. Akbar and Rana of Mewar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Second Battle of Panipat was fought between Akbar & Hemu in 1556 in which Hemu was defeated. The original name of Hemu was Hemchand he was also known as ‘Vikramaditya’ & he was the 14th ruler who took the title of Vikramaditya.


310. Which Pala ruler founded the famous Vikramashila University for the Buddhists’?
A. Mahipala
B. Devapala
C. Gopala
D. Dharmapala

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Vikramashila was founded by Pāla king Dharmapala in the late 8th or early 9th century. It prospered for about four centuries before it was destroyed by Bakhtiyar Khilji along with the other major centres of Buddhism in India around 1193.


311. Under the Mughals, the Police duties in urban areas were entrusted to the officers known as
A. Kotwal
B. Kazi
C. Vakil
D. Amin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Under the Mughals, all police duties in the cities and towns were entrusted to the ‘Kotwal’. He was essentially an urban officer, being chief on the city police.


312. Which of the following Mughal ruler who tried to create affinity between Sikh and Maratha by granted the right to collect Sardesh Mukhi of Deccan but not Chauth to the Marathas?
A. Jahander Shah
B. Muazzam
C. Akbar
D. Farukhsiyar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Muazzam tried to create affinity between Sikh and Maratha. He granted the right to collect Sardesh Mukhi of Deccan but not Chauth to the Marathas.


313. The Battle of Buxar fought between __________
A. The English the Nawab of Bengal and the French
B. Mir Kasim the Nawab of Bengal Nawab of Oudh and Shah Alam II The Mughal Emperor
C. Akbar II the Nawab of Bengal and Nawab of Oudh
D. Akbar II the Nawab of Bengal and the Marathas

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Battle of Buxar was fought in 1764, between the British and the armies of Mir Qasim, Mughal Emperor Shah Alam-II and Shuja-ud-Daulah , Nawab of Awadh in Buxar(in Bihar). The battle was won by forces of British East India company. The British won this battle under the command of Hector Munro.


314. First Anglo Sikh War fought between __________
A. The English ; French
B. The English ; Portuguese
C. The English ; king Dalip Singh
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The First Anglo-Sikh War was fought between the Sikh Empire and the East India Company between 1845 and 1846. It resulted in partial subjugation of the Sikh kingdom and cession of Jammu and Kashmir as a separate princely state under British suzerainty.


315. Who among the following was also known as ‘Zinda Pir’?
A. Akbar
B. Jahangir
C. Shahjahan
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Aurangzeb was called “Zinda Pir”or “Living Saint ” in Mughal India. He banned on Nauroj festival, Tuladan, Jharokha etc, he restarted Jizya Tax.


316. The Inam land was one which was assigned to
A. Scholars and religious persons
B. Mansabdars
C. Hereditary revenue collectors
D. Nobles

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : During Nizam Rub, the ruler used to give ‘inam’ (gift of land or land revenue) to scholar and religions person who served them.


317. All the early Mughal Emperors except __________ were great builders
A. Babur
B. Humayun
C. Jahangir
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : All the early Mughal Emperors except Aurangzeb were great builders.


318. Noor Jahan was wife of which Mughal Emperor?
A. Akbar
B. Aurangzeb
C. Jahangir
D. Shah Jahan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Nur Jahan (born Mehr-un-Nissa) (31 May 1577 – 17 December 1645) was the twentieth (and last) wife of the Mughal emperor Jahangir.


319. What does Jahangir mean?
A. National Monarach
B. The Grand Monarch
C. Conqueror of the world
D. Hero of hundred battles

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mughal Prince Salim was the eldest son of Emperor, Akbar. He took the imperial (reign) name ‘Jahangir’ which means conqueror of the world.


320. Who built Red Fort?
A. Humayun
B. Akbar
C. Shah Jahan
D. Aurangzeb

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Constructed in 1639 by the fifth Mughal Emperor Shah Jahan as the palace of his fortified capital Shahjahanabad, the Red Fort is named for its massive enclosing walls of red sandstone and is adjacent to the older Salimgarh Fort, built by Islam Shah Suri in 1546 AD.


321. Who had built the ‘Amber Fort’?
A. Akbar
B. Raja Man Singh
C. Uday Singh-II
D. Maharana Pratap

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Amber fort was built by Raja Man Singh in the 16th century and was completed by Sawai Jai Singh in the 18th Century.


322. In which of the following towns is “Moti Masjid” situated?
A. Agra
B. Jaipur
C. Lahore
D. Ahmedabad

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Moti Masjid (translation: Pearl Mosque) in Agra was built by Shah Jahan. During the rule of Shah Jahan the Mughal emperor, numerous architectural wonders were built, the most famous of them being the Taj Mahal.


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