MCQ Questions for Class 9 Hindi Kshitij Chapter 17 बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं with Answers

Question 1.
सुविधा और मनोरंजन के उपकरणों से बच्चे वंचित क्यों हैं?
(a) काम पर जाने के कारण
(b) गरीबी के कारण
(c) अशिक्षा के कारण
(d) अपने माता पिता के कारण

Answer

Answer: (b) गरीबी के कारण


Question 2.
बच्चों का काम पर जाना किसके समान है?
(a) पागलपन
(b) एक हादसे के
(c) एक बुराई के
(d) एक तूफान के

Answer

Answer: (b) एक हादसे के


Question 3.
बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं इसे किस तरह लिखा जाना भयानक है?
(a) विवरण की तरह
(b) गजल की तरह
(c) कविता की तरह
(d) कहानी की तरह

Answer

Answer: (a) विवरण की तरह
विवरण की तरह लिखा जाना भयावह है।


Question 4.
काम पर जा रहे बच्चों के हिस्से की गेंद कही गिर गई
(a) मैदान में
(b) अंतरिक्ष में
(c) नदी में
(d) समुद्र में

Answer

Answer: (b) अंतरिक्ष में
शायद अंतरिक्ष में।


Question 5.
उनके खिलौने कहाँ दब गए?
(a) मिट्टी के नीचे
(b) मकान के नीचे
(c) पार्क में
(d) काले पहाड़ के नीच

Answer

Answer: (d) काले पहाड़ के नीच


Question 6.
कवि के अनुसार बच्चों की किताबों को कोन खा गई?
(a) भैंस
(b) गया
(c) दीमक
(d) चिडिया

Answer

Answer: (c) दीमक
शायद दीमक खा गई।


Question 7.
बच्चे कैसी सड़क से काम पर जा रहे हैं?
(a) कच्ची सड़क
(b) पक्की सड़क
(c) कीचड़ से युक्त सड़क
(d) कोहरे से ढकी सड़क

Answer

Answer: (d) कोहरे से ढकी सड़क


Question 8.
‘बच्ने काम पर जा रहे है’ इस पंक्ति को किस प्रकार लिखा जाना चाहिए
(a) विवरण की तरह
(b) सवाल की तरह कि बच्चे काम पर क्यों जा रहे हैं
(c) आवश्यकता की तरह कि सभी को काम करना चहिए
(d) इस तरह की कर्म ही पूजा है

Answer

Answer: (b) सवाल की तरह कि बच्चे काम पर क्यों जा रहे हैं


Question 9.
लोगों को बच्चों का काम पर जाना अटपटा क्यों नहीं लगता?
(a) वे कर्म को ही पूजा मानते हैं
(b) वे संवेदना शून्य हो गए हैं
(c) उनका मानना है कि काम सभी को करना चाहिए
(d) हमारी सरकार बच्चों को कर्म योगी बनाना चाहती

Answer

Answer: (b) वे संवेदना शून्य हो गए हैं


Question 10.
राजेश जोशी का जन्म कब हुआ?
(a) सन् 1915 में
(b) सन् 1916 में
(c) सन् 1948 में
(d) सन् 1950 में

Answer

Answer: (b) सन् 1916 में


Question 11.
राजेश जोशी का जन्म कहाँ हुआ?
(a) मध्य प्रदेश के नरसिंह जिले में
(b) कटनी में
(c) मध्य प्रदेश के सतना जिले में
(d) इंदौर में

Answer

Answer: (a) मध्य प्रदेश के नरसिंह जिले में


Question 12.
निम्नलिखित में से कौन-सी रचना जोशी जी की नहीं है।
(a) एक दिन बोलेंगे पेड़
(b) मिट्टी का चेहरा
(c) नेपथ्य में हैंसी
(d) चाँद का मुँह टेढ़ा

Answer

Answer: (d) चाँद का मुँह टेढ़ा
‘चाँद का मुंह टेढ़ा है’ रचना मुक्ति बोध की है।


Question 13.
राजेश जोशी को निम्नलिखित में से किस पुरस्कार से सम्मानित किया गया?
(a) ज्ञानपीठ पुरस्कार
(b) माखनलाल चतुर्वेदी पुरस्कार
(c) पदमभूषण
(d) साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार

Answer

Answer: (d) साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार
साहित्य अकादमी पुरस्कार से।


Question 14.
कवि ने किसके काम पर जाने को भयावह माना है?
(a) बच्चों के
(b) बूटों के
(c) औरतों के
(d) बीमारों के

Answer

Answer: (a) बच्चों के
बच्चों के काम पर जाने को।


Question 15.
बच्चों की इस दयनीय स्थिति के बारे में क्या प्रश्न होना चाहिए?
(a) बच्चों से काम कराना चाहिए
(b) बच्चों को क्यों पढ़ना चाहिए
(c) आखिर बच्चे काम पर क्यों जा रहे हैं
(d) बच्चों को स्कूल में दाखिला क्यों नहीं दिया जाता

Answer

Answer: (c) आखिर बच्चे काम पर क्यों जा रहे हैं


Question 16.
कवि के अनुसार बचपन कैसा होना चाहिए?
(a) बचपन खुशियों से भरा होना चाहिए
(b) बचपन में काम करना चाहिए
(c) बचपन में पढ़ना भी चाहिए
(d) बचपन मधुर कल्पना जैसा होना चाहिए

Answer

Answer: (a) बचपन खुशियों से भरा होना चाहिए


Question 17.
कवि ने सबसे भयावह किसे माना है?
(a) अशिक्षा को
(b) गरीबी को
(c) बच्चों के काम पर जाने को
(d) प्रदूषण को

Answer

Answer: (c) बच्चों के काम पर जाने को


काव्यांश पर आधारित बहुविकल्पीय प्रश्न

कोहरे से दंकी सड़क पर बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं
सुबह सुबह
बच्चे काम पर जा रहे हैं
हमारे समय की सबसे भयानक पाकत है यह
भयानक है इमे विवरण की तरह लिखा जाना
लिखा जाना चाहिए इसे सवाल की तरह
काम पर क्यों जा रहे हैं बच्चे?
क्या अंतरिक्ष में गिर गई हैं सारी गर्दै
प्रया दोमकों ने खा लिया है।
सारी रंग बिरंगी किताबों को
क्या काले पहाड़ के नीचे दब गए है सारे खिलौने
क्या किसी भूकंप में रह गई हैं सारे मदरसों की इमारतें

Question 1.
कवि एवं कविता का नाम लिखिए।

Answer

Answer: कवि-राजेश जोशी, कविता-बच्चे काम पर जा


Question 2.
कवि ने बच्चों का काम पर जाने को भयावह माना और क्यों?

Answer

Answer: कषि ने यस्तों का काम पर जाने को भयावह माना क्योंकि जिन बच्चों को स्कूल में होना चाहिए था उनके सामने ऐसी क्या मजबूरी आ गई कि उन्हें काम करने के लिए बाध्य होना पड़ रहा है। इसके लिए दोषी


Question 3.
बच्चों को इस दयनीय स्थिति के बारे में क्या प्रश्न होना चाहिए?

Answer

Answer: बच्चों की इस भयावह और दयनीय स्थिति को देखकर वह प्रश्न हाना चाहिए आखिर बच्चे कान पर क्यों जा रहे हैं उनके सामने ऐसी क्या समस्या है? इसके लिए दोषी कौन हैं?


Question 4.
कवि के अनुसार बचपन कैसा होना चाहिए था?

Answer

Answer: कवि का कहना है कि बच्चों के हाथों में खिलौने होने चाहिए थे। उनको किताबें लेकर स्कूल में होना चाहिए था। परन्तु इन चीजों से वॉचत होकर उनका बचपन छिन गया है।


Question 5.
इस काव्यांश में कवि ने क्या भाव व्यक्त किए है।

Answer

Answer: कवि बच्चों को काम पर जाते देख बहुत आहत है। यह हमारे समाज के और हमारी सरकार के लिए कलंक की बात है। हमारे समाज का क्या कोई दायित्व नहीं हैं। यदि हमारे बच्चे काम पर जाएँ तो यह हमारे लिए धिक्कार की बात है।


मंजूषा से उपयुक्त शब्द/वाक्यांश चुनकर पंक्ति। पूरी कीजिए

(क) हमारे समय की ………….. पंक्ति है यह

Answer

Answer: सबसे भयानक


(ख) भयानक है इसे ………. लिखा जाना

Answer

Answer: विवरण की तरह


(ग) लिखा जाना चाहिए इस………….

Answer

Answer: सवाल की तरह


(घ) काम पर क्यों …………… बच्चे।

Answer

Answer: जा रहे हैं


(ङ) क्या ……………. में गिर गई हैं सारी गेंदें

Answer

Answer: अंतरिक्ष


सही कथन के सामने (✓) और गलत कथन के सामने (✗) का चिह्न लगाइए।

(क) माँ बाप की गरीबी के कारण बच्चे काम पर जाते

Answer

Answer: (✓)


(ख) सरकार को बाल मजदूरी निरोधक कानून पर सख्ती से अमल करना चाहिए।

Answer

Answer: (✓)


(ग) यदि माता-पिता बीमार हैं तो सरकार को उनकी सहायता करनी चाहिए।

Answer

Answer: (✓)


(घ) जागरूकता फैलाना सरकार का काम नहीं

Answer

Answer: (✗)
जागरूकता फैलाना सरकार का काम भी है और सामाजिक कार्यकर्ताओं का भी


(ङ) कवि ने बच्चों के काम पर जाने को भयाबह बताया

Answer

Answer: (✓)


(च) पिछड़ेपन का सबसे बड़ा कारण अशिक्षा है।)

Answer

Answer: (✓)


(छ) बचपन में बच्चों को काम करना चाहिए।

Answer

Answer: (✗)
बच्चों को पढ़ना और खेलना कूदना चाहिए।


MCQ Questions on Indian Geography Miscellaneous | GK Quiz Q&A on Miscellaneous Indian Geography

MCQ Questions on Indian Geography Miscellaneous

Practicing the Multiple Choice Questions on Indian Geography Miscellaneous is a perfect way to build general knowledge on the geography topics and attempt competitive exams with confidence. The most important questions from Miscellaneous Indian Geography are framed below to answer and test your preparation level on the topic. Give some amount of time on a regular basis for the preparation using Geography Quiz Questions and score better marks in the exams.

Miscellaneous Indian Geography MCQ Question and Answer PDF

1. Palk Strait separates India from
A. Pakistan
B. China
C. Andaman Island
D. Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Palk Strait separates India from Sri Lanka. Palk Strait, inlet of the Bay of Bengal between southeastern India and northern Sri Lanka. It is bounded on the south by Pamban Island (India), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), the Gulf of Mannar, and Mannar Island (Sri Lanka).


2. In which of the following states are the Aravalli mountains located
A. Jammu and Kashmir
B. Rajasthan
C. Himachal Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Aravalli Hills are located in the Indian state of Rajasthan. The Aravalli hills are the range of mountains that stretch diagonally from Kotra in the northeast to Khetri in the southwest direction.


3. The source of the Brahmaputra is
A. Pindari glacier
B. A glacier near the Mansarovar Lake
C. Somewhere near Tibet
D. Punjab

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The source of the Brahmaputra is a glacier near the Mansarovar Lake. The Brahmaputra River, also called Yarlung Tsangpo in Tibetan language, originates on the Angsi Glacier located on the northern side of the Himalayas in Burang County of Tibet.


4. The McMohan Line is a boundary between
A. India and China
B. India and Pakistan
C. India and Bangladesh
D. India and Nepal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The McMahon Line is the effective boundary between China and India.


5. Heavy water plants are generally located near
A. Major irrigation projects
B. Hydroelectric projects
C. Fertilizer plants
D. Nuclear power plants

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Heavy water plants are generally located near fertilizer plants. Heavy water is used in the production of fertilisers , so it is often seen that heavy water plants are near to the fertilisers industry. As the plants are near, the cost of transportation gets reduced and use of heavy water can be proper without any wastage.


6. Deltas are formed where the shores are free of
A. Low tide
B. Hard rocks
C. High tide
D. Trees

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Deltas are formed where the shores are free of hard rocks. When a river reaches a lake or the sea the water slows down and loses the power to carry sediment . The sediment is dropped at the mouth of the river. Some rivers drop so much sediment that waves and tides can’t carry it all away. It builds up in layers forming a delta.


7. Which of the following is a natural harbour?
A. Visakhapatnam
B. Mumbai
C. Chennai
D. Kolkata

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mumbai is a natural harbour. The Mumbai Port is located in the mainland of west Mumbai on the West coast of India with natural deep-water harbor.


8. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?
A. New Moore Island – India
B. Hurricane – China Sea
C. Doldrums – The equator
D. Trade winds – Winds which blow towards the equator

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Many of the Eastern Pacific tropical cyclones originate, at least in part, from tropical waves coming off Cape Verde in Africa. Many of these waves traverse the entire Atlantic Ocean without generating storm development until after crossing Central America and entering the warm Eastern Pacific waters.


9. Where are the Lepchas mainly to be found staying?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The lepchas mainly to be found staying in Sikkim. Lepchas are the original inhabitants of Sikkim, formerly an independent kingdom situated in the Himalayas between Nepal and Bhutan. Lepcha is the name given to this group by their Nepali neighbors and is interpreted by some as a derogatory word meaning “nonsense talkers.”


10. The National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) is located at
A. Kolkata
B. Lucknow
C. Dehradun
D. New Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) is located at Kolkata.


11. ________ is a planned city in India.
A. Varanasi
B. Srinagar
C. Pune
D. Chandigarh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Chandigarh is a planned city in India. Chandigarh is India’s first planned city and is known for its layout, which was ‘designed for the people’. Chandigarh was created just for this. The project of creating a brand new city took on great significance because of the then Prime Minister, Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru’s personal interest in it.


12. Coir, Copra, Coconut, Cashew are mainly exported from
A. Mumbai
B. Cochin
C. Tuticorin
D. Chennai

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Coir, Copra, Coconut, Cashew are mainly exported from Cochin because Kerala is the major producer of these products.


13. Which of the following is the name of very violent and serious type of winds which bring a lot of disaster?
A. Trade winds
B. Hurricane
C. Cirrus
D. Stratus

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Hurricane is the name of very violent and serious type of winds which bring a lot of disaster. A hurricane is a storm with violent winds, which forms over tropical or subtropical waters. When a storm’s maximum sustained winds reach 74 mph, it’s called a hurricane. The hurricane wind scale has a 1 to 5 rating, based on the sustained winds.


14. The Govt. of India has decided to increase the export of cashewnut. Which of the following is not a major cashewnut growing State?
A. Goa
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Kerala
D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Uttar Pradesh is not major cashewnut growing State. The major cashew nut producing states in India are Maharastra, Kerala, Andhra Pradesh, Orissa, Karnataka, Tamil Nadu, Goa and West Bengal.


15. Which of the following is grown in the cold climate of Kashmir?
A. Coconut
B. Palm
C. Saffron
D. Jute

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Saffron is grown in the cold climate of Kashmir. Saffron needs extreme heat and dryness in summer and extreme cold during winter. Maximum vegetative growth takes place during winter.


16. The great one horned Indian Rhino is round in
A. Corbett National Park
B. Kanha National Park
C. Kaziranga Game Sanctuary
D. Periyar Game Sanctuary

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The great one horned Indian Rhino is round in Kaziranga Game Sanctuary.


17. The longest of all the Indus tributaries is the
A. Ravi
B. Beas
C. Chenab
D. Jhelum

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The longest of all the Indus tributaries is the Chenab. The Chenab river is the largest tributary of Indus river. Indus River, on whose banks one of the ancient great civilization of India i.e Harrppan civilization developed is one of the major rivers of south Asia. InIndia it flows through Ladakh and then enters into Pakistan.


18. The Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain widens
A. From east to west
B. From west to east
C. At the middle
D. No where

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Ganga-Brahmaputra Plain widens from west to east. The Ganga Brahmaputra basin is situated at 10°N to 30°N in the sub-tropical region. The basin is formed as a result of the many tributaries from Ganga and Brahmaputra river.


19. What is the International Date Line?
A. An imaginary line connecting places of the same altitude
B. It is 180º Meridian from Greenwich
C. Region within 5º of the Equator
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : International Date Line is the 180º Meridian from Greenwich. The International Date Line is located halfway around the world from the prime meridian (0° longitude) or about 180° east (or west) of Greenwich, London, UK, the reference point of time zones. It is also known as the line of demarcation.


20. What is Bailadila famous for?
A. Bauxite
B. Iron ore
C. Copper
D. Coal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bailadila is famous for producing iron which is used for steel making. ‘BAILADILA’ is a hill range in Chattisgarh which is famous for the very high grade hematites which are found in bailadila.


21. The first cement factory was built in India in 1904 at
A. Ranchi
B. Hazaribagh
C. Chennai
D. Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first cement factory was built in India in 1904 at Chennai. India entered into the Cement Era in 1914, when the Indian Cement Company Ltd. started manufacturing Cement in Porbundar in Gujarat. However, even before that a small cement factory was established in Madras in 1904 by a company named South India Industrial Ltd.


22. The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is
A. Higher in elevation than Dwaraka
B. Situated further north than Dwaraka
C. Situated further east (about 30º longitude) than Dwaraka
D. Situated about 30 º east of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from west to east

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The sun rises in Arunachal Pradesh two hours before it does in Dwaraka in Gujarat. This is because the former is situated about 30 º east of Dwaraka and the earth rotates from west to east.


23. The Coromandel Coast of India receives good rains from cyclonic storms in the months of
A. February and March
B. July and August
C. November and December
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Coromandel Coast of India receives good rains from cyclonic storms in the months of November and December. These cyclones contribute to the bulk of the rainfall of the Coromandel Coast.


24. The Lakshadweep are an example of
A. Islands resulting from submarine earthquakes
B. Volcanic Islands
C. Coral Islands
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Lakshadweep are an example of Coral Islands. Lakshadweep is the tiniest Union Territory of India and is its only coral Island chain. This archipelago consists of 36 islands, 12 atolls, 3 reefs and 5 submerged banks.


25. What is the most important characteristic of the islands (Indian) located in the Arabian Sea?
A. They are all very small in size
B. They are all of coral origin
C. They have a very dry climate
D. They are extended parts of the mainland

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The most important characteristic of the islands (Indian) located in the Arabian Sea is that they are all of coral origin.


26. The States involved In the Dandakaranya Project are
A. Uttar Pradesh Maharashtra and Karnataka
B. Karnataka Andhra Pradesh and Tamil Nadu
C. Odisha Madhya Pradesh and Andhra Pradesh
D. Kerala Tamil Nadu Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The States involved In the Dandakaranya Project are Odisha, Madhya Pradesh, and Andhra Pradesh. Extending over an area of about 35,600 square miles (92,300 square km), it includes the Abujhmar Hills in the west and borders the Eastern Ghats in the east. The Dandakaranya includes parts of Chhattisgarh, Odisha, Telangana, and Andhra Pradesh states.


27. The first shore based integrated steel project in India is coming up at
A. Ernakulam
B. Tuticorin
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Mangalore

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first shore based integrated steel project in India is coming up at Visakhapatnam. Vizag Steel Plant is the only Indian shore-based, modern and integrated steel plant and is situated on 33,000 acres and is poised to expand to produce up to 20 MT in a single campus.


28. What is Gomia in Jharkhand famous for?
A. Coal fields
B. Manganese mines
C. Fertilizer plant
D. Explosives factory

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Gomia in Jharkhand famous for Explosives factory. Gomia took shape around the year 1956, when the Imperial Chemical Industries, a Britsh company, set up Indian Explosive Limited (IEL) factory here.


29. India’s land border with the neighboring countries is, in length, approximately
A. 8 thousand km
B. 15 thousand km
C. 10 thousand km
D. 16 thousand km

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : India’s land border with the neighboring countries is, in length, approximately 15 thousand km.


30. The Indo-Gangetic Plains of India are fertile due to
A. The heavy and timely rains and forests
B. Alluvial soils brought by the rivers from the mountains
C. Hard labour of the farmers over the generations
D. Better irrigation facilities

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Indo-Gangetic Plains of India are fertile due to Alluvial soils brought by the rivers from the mountains. It is bound on the north by the abruptly rising Himalayas, which feed its numerous rivers and are the source of the fertile alluvium deposited across the region by the two river systems.


31. The shape of the Himalayas is like
A. A straight line
B. An arc
C. A zigzag line
D. A spiral

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The shape of the Himalayas is like an arc. The upper parts of the Himalayas are covered with perpetual snow. The snow fields cover about 40,000 sq. kms from Kashmir to Assam. The main crust of the Himalayan ranges rises above the snow line which varies between 4,500 to 6,000 meters in the west and 4,000 to 5,800 meters in the east.


32. Naharkatiya oilfields are located in
A. Tripura
B. West Bengal
C. Assam
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Naharkatiya oilfields are located in Assam. Located in the north-east of Tipam hills in Dibrugarh district of Upper Assam, Digboi is the oldest oil field of India.


33. Which of the following combinations of riven and cities situated on their banks is wrong?
A. Lucknow – Gomati
B. Ayodhya – Saryu
C. Badrinath – Alaknanda
D. Vijayawada – Narmada

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Vijayawada lies on the banks of Krishna River, covered by hills and canals. It is 18.5 km (11.5 mi) from the state capital, Amaravati. and at an altitude of 11 m (36 ft) above sea level.


34. Throughout the Ages the maximum number of streams of people came to India via
A. The western Himalayan passes
B. Tibet
C. The sea
D. The eastern Himalayan passes

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Throughout the ages the maximum number of streams of people came to India via the western Himalayan passes.


35. The Koal Project is aimed towards
A. Irrigation
B. Drainage and power generation
C. Power generation and load control
D. Irrigation flood control and power generation

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Koal Project is aimed towards Irrigation, flood control and power generation.


36. Narmada originates from its source situated in the State of
A. Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Narmada originates from its source situated in the State of Madhya Pradesh. It forms the traditional boundary between North India and South India and flows westwards over a length of 1,312 km (815.2 mi) before draining through the Gulf of Khambhat into the Arabian Sea, 30 km (18.6 mi) west of Bharuch city of Gujarat.


37. Which of the following is not a multi-purpose project involving more than one State in India?
A. Nagarjunasagar
B. Damodar Valley Corporation
C. Bhakra Nangal
D. Chambal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Nagarjunasagar is not a multi-purpose project involving more than one State in India. Nagarjuna Sagar Dam is one of the world’s largest and tallest Masonry dams built across the Krishna river at Nagarjuna Sagar which straddles the border between Nalgonda District, Telangana State, India and Guntur district, Andhra Pradesh State, India.


38. When dew point is reached it is said that at that temperature
A. The atmosphere is said to be saturated with water vapour
B. The relative humidity of the atmosphere is 100%
C. The atmosphere can hold no more water vapour
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : When dew point is reached it is said that at that temperature the atmosphere is said to be saturated with water vapour. When that maximum amount of water vapor is reached, that is referred to as saturation. This is also known as 100 percent relative humidity. When this is achieved, the temperature of the air has reached the dew point temperature. It is also called the condensation temperature.


39. Which of the following sets of three ports is on the east coast of India?
A. Cochin Goa Mumbai
B. Mumbai Kolkata Chennai
C. Paradeep Kakinada Nagapattinam
D. Machilipatnam Kandla Aleppey

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Paradeep, Kakinada, Nagapattinam are the sets of three ports is on the east coast of India.


40. How many major ports are there on the east coast of India?
A. 7
B. 4
C. 3
D. 5

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : There are seven major port located on the east coast of India i.e. Tuticorin (Tamil Nadu), Chennai (Tamil Nadu), Ennore (Tamil Nadu), Visakhapatnam (Andhra Pradesh), Paradip (Odisha), Haldia & Kolkata (West Bengal), and Port Blair (Andaman & Nicobar Island).


41. Where in India is the rift valley to be found?
A. Brahmaputra Valley
B. Godavari Valley
C. Cauvery Valley
D. Narmada Valley

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Narmada flows westwards through a rift valley between the Vindhyan Range on the north and the Satpura Range on the south. The Narmada, also called the Rewa, is a river in central India and the sixth longest river in the Indian subcontinent.


42. To which kind of rock does marble belong?
A. Metamorphic rock
B. Sedimentary rock
C. Igneous rock
D. Volcanic rock

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Marble is a metamorphic rock that forms when limestone is subjected to the heat and pressure of metamorphism. Under the conditions of metamorphism, the calcite in the limestone recrystallizes to form a rock that is a mass of interlocking calcite crystals.


43. Which of the following have almost the same point of beginning?
A. Ganga and Indus
B. Ganga and Brahmaputra
C. Beas and Tapi
D. Indus and Brahmaputra

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Indus and Brahmaputra have almost the same point of beginning. Brahmaputra and Indus rivers have almost the same point of emerging. The Indus originates in the northern slopes of the Kailash range in Tibet near Lake Manasarovar. The Brahmaputra originates in the Mansarovar lake, also the source of the Indus and the Satluj.


44. Tin Bigha Corridor is an issue, between India and
A. Pakistan
B. Nepal
C. Myanmar
D. Bangladesh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tin Bigha Corridor is an issue, between India and Bangladesh. Tinbigha is a strip of land lying in the south-east of Mekhliganj Block of Cooch Behar District of West Bengal State in India. Geographically it lies surrounded by Fulkadabri Gram Panchayat (in the north) & Kuchlibari Gram Panchayat (in the south), both belonging to India, and by Dahagram (in the west) & Panbari Mouza (in the east), both belonging to Bangladesh respectively.


45. Where is Arvi earth station for satellite communication?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Maharashtra
D. Gujarat

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Arvi earth station for satellite communication is in Gujarat. This station works to the Indian Ocean satellite, which is located over the equator at a nominal longitude of 61.4″E.


46. The multipurpose project irrigating maximum area in India is
A. Beas
B. Bhakra Nangal
C. Damodar Valley
D. Hirakud

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The multipurpose project irrigating maximum area in india is Hirakud. Hirakud Dam is built across the Mahanadi River, about 15km from Sambalpur in the state of Orissa in India. The Hirakud Dam was built in 1957. This dam is one of the longest man made dams in the world and one of the world’s longest earthen dams. The length of the dam is about 16 mi (26 km) and 55 km long. Hirakud Dam is the first major multipurpose river valley project that started after the India’s Independence.


47. Passenger and merchant ships are constructed at
A. Mazagaon Docks
B. Hindustan Shipyard at Visakhapatnam
C. No place; the Indian docks only make navy ships
D. Goa shipyard

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Passenger and merchant ships are constructed at Hindustan Shipyard at Visakhapatnam. Hindustan Shipyard Ltd., strategically located on the East Coast of the Indian peninsula, at Visakhapatnam, Andhra Pradesh, is the nation’s premier shipbuilding organization catering to the needs of shipbuilding, ship repairs, submarine construction and refits as well as design and construction of sophisticated state-of-the-art offshore and onshore structures.


48. The Nilgiris are part of the
A. Eastern Ghats
B. Western Ghats
C. Vindhyachal
D. Tamil Nadu Hills

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Nilgiris are part of the Western Ghats. The Nilgiri Mountains form part of the Western Ghats in western Tamil Nadu of Southern India. At least 24 of the Nilgiri Mountains’ peaks are above 2,000 metres (6,600 ft), the highest peak being Doddabetta, at 2,637 metres (8,652 ft).


49. Rayalaseema is a region of which one of the following States?
A. Karnataka
B. Maharashtra
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Rayalaseema is a geographic region in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It comprises four southern districts of the state namely, Anantapur, Chittoor, Kadapa and Kurnool.


50. “Konkan” is a region of which one of the following States?
A. Karnataka
B. Maharashtra
C. West Bengal
D. Kerala

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : “Konkan” is a region of Maharashtra. Konkan division is one of the six administrative divisions of Maharashtra state in India. It comprises the Konkan region, which occupies the entire west coast of Maharashtra. The two districts in the state capital Mumbai also fall in Konkan division.


51. Which one of the following is not conducive to the formation of deltas?
A. Currents and Tides
B. Calm winds
C. Absence of large lakes along the course of the river
D. Sheltered coastline

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Currents and Tides is not conducive to the formation of deltas. When a river reaches a lake or the sea the water slows down and loses the power to carry sediment . The sediment is dropped at the mouth of the river. Some rivers drop so much sediment that waves and tides can’t carry it all away. It builds up in layers forming a delta.


52. Through which of the following States the Ganga does not pass?
A. Madhya Pradesh
B. Bihar
C. West Bengal
D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : It does not pass through Madhya Pradesh. The Ganges passes through the states of Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Jharkhand, and West Bengal. The Ganges drainage area with its productive land is helpful for the agrarian economies of Bangladesh and India.


53. In ancient times the name Ratnakar denote
A. Arabian Sea
B. Bay of Bengal
C. Indian Ocean
D. Confluence of Ganga Yamuna and Saraswati

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In ancient Indian historical geography, the Indian Ocean has been named as “Ratnakara”- a place where gems and jewels are found. India is encircled by water on 3 sides. The distance of the Indian Coastline is 7516 Kms. The Indian coastline extends from ‘Bay of Bengal’ in the east to ‘Indian Ocean’ in the south to the ‘Arabian Sea’ in the west.


54. The right Ganga tributaries of the plain do not include
A. Alakananda
B. Yamuna
C. Son
D. Tons

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The right Ganga tributaries of the plain do not include Alakananda. The Alaknanda is a Himalayan river in the Indian state of Uttarakhand and one of the two headstreams of the Ganges, the major river of Northern India and the holy river of Hinduism.


55. “They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes, high chick bones, spare hair and medium height,” The reference here is to
A. Nordic Aryans
B. Austrics
C. Negroids
D. Mongoloids

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : They are people of yellow complexion, oblique eyes, high chick bones, spare hair and medium height,” The reference here is to Mongoloids. Mongoloid, a term from physical anthropology, refers to the skull shape typically found among East Asians and many American Indians. Skull shape figured.


56. The Bhutia group of languages does not include
A. Laddakhi
B. Tibetan
C. Lepcha
D. Sherpa

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Bhutia group of languages does not include Lepcha. The ancestors of the Bhutia migrated from Tibet to north eastern Nepal, Sikkim, Darjeeling, Kalimpong, and other parts of modern-day Nepal, India and Bhutan. They migrated through the different passes (“La” in Tibetan means “hill”) in the Himalayas.


57. Arable lands refer to
A. Pasture land
B. Fallow land
C. Woodland
D. Cultivable land

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Arable lands refer to Cultivable land. It was traditionally contrasted with pasturable land such as heaths which could be used for sheep-rearing but not farmland.


58. According to historical geography Bharata Varaha is a part of
A. Pushkharadweepa
B. Jambudweep
C. Kraunchidweepa
D. Kushadweepa

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : According to historical geography Bharata Varaha is a part of Jambudweep. According to our Indian geography in the ancient times, the entire landmass in the northern hemisphere was encircled by ocean in all the directions. This giant land mass on earth was called Jambudvipa. In Sanskrit language dwipa means an Island. Jambudveepa consisted of modern Asia, Europe, Africa and North America.


59. The edible oil commonly used in India for preparation of toilet soap is
A. Linseed oil
B. Mustard oil
C. Soyabean oil
D. Coconut oil

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The edible oil commonly used in India for preparation of toilet soap is Coconut oil. Coconut oil is used as a cooking fat, hair oil, body oil, and industrial oil. Refined coconut oil is prepared exclusively for industrial purposes and is widely used in the manufacture of biscuits, chocolates, icecreams, margarine, and confectionery items. It is also used for the manufacture of paints and pharmaceutical agents.


60. Which one of the following racial groups is popularly known as the Aryans?
A. The Proto-Australoids
B. The Mediterraneans
C. The Brachycephals
D. The Nordics

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Nordics racial groups is popularly known as the Aryans. The Nordic race was one of the putative sub-races into which some late-19th to mid-20th century anthropologists divided the Caucasian race.


61. Which of the weathering agents is almost peculiar to the Indian Himalayas?
A. Wind
B. Glaciers
C. Snowfall
D. Running water

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The weathering agents glaciers is almost peculiar to the Indian Himalayas.


62. Rajasthan receives very little rain because
A. It is too hot
B. There is no water available and thus the winds remain dry
C. The monsoons fail to reach this area
D. The winds do not come across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the winds

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Rajasthan receives very little rain because the winds do not come across any barrier to cause the necessary uplift to cool the winds.


63. A rain shadow zone is present in India
A. Along western flanks of the Aravallis
B. Along the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats
C. Along the western slopes of the Eastern Ghats
D. Along the northern flanks of the Vindhyas

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : A rain shadow zone is present in India along the eastern slopes of the Western Ghats. The eastern region of the Western Ghats which lie in the rain shadow, receive far less rainfall of about 100 centimetres.


64. Blue Mountain (peak) is located in ________.
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Kerala
C. Mizoram
D. Kamataka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Blue Mountain (peak) is located in Mizoram. The highest peak in Mizoram, Phawngpui or the Blue Mountain is situated near the state’s south-eastern border overlooking the bend of the mighty Chhimtuipui River and the hill ranges of Myanmar.


65. The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in
A. Sundarbans
B. Chilka Lake
C. Gulf of Kachchh
D. Lakshadweep

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first marine sanctuary in India, having within its bounds coral reefs, mollusca, dolphins, tortoises and various kinds of sea birds, has been established in Chilka Lake.


66. India’s indigenous pigs generally give birth to ________ young ones at a time.
A. 10 to 12
B. 8 to 10
C. 4 to 6
D. 2 to 4

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : India’s indigenous pigs generally give birth to 4 to 6 young ones at a time. Pig farming is very important component in North East India.


67. The Himalayas are considered as ________ type of mountains.
A. Relief
B. Submarine
C. Volcanic
D. Tectonic

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Himalayas are considered as Tectonic type of mountains. Himalayas are a type of young fold mountains. Fold mountains are formed due to collision of tectonic plates. When two tectonic plates collide they get compressed resulting in upliftment of Earth’s crust.


68. Mekong Ganga Co-operation Project is
A. An irrigation project involving India and Myanmar
B. A joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries
C. A hydroelectric power project involving India Bangladesh and Myanmar
D. A defence and security agreement of India with its eastern neighbours

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mekong Ganga Co-operation Project is a joint tourism initiative of some Asian countries. It comprises six member countries, namely India (Look-East connectivity projects), Thailand, Myanmar, Cambodia, Laos and Vietnam. The four areas of cooperation are tourism, culture, education, and transportation. The organization takes its name from the Ganga and the Mekong, two large rivers in the region.


69. A rainshadow region gets
A. Large quantity of rainfall
B. Rainfall six months in a year
C. Rainfall all through the year
D. Scanty or no rainfall

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : A rainshadow region gets Scanty or no rainfall. An area having relatively little precipitation due to the effect of a topographic barrier, especially a mountain range, that causes the prevailing winds to lose their moisture on the windward side, causing the leeward side to be dry.


70. Rain shadows are associated with
A. Convectional rainfall
B. Orographic rainfall
C. Cyclonic rainfall
D. Orographic cyolonic rainfall

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Rain shadows are associated with Orographic rainfall. A rain shadow is a patch of land that has been forced to become a desert because mountain ranges blocked all plant-growing, rainy weather.


71. Which of the following states does not share the drainage basin of the Cauvery?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Karnataka
C. Kerala
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Andhra Pradesh state does not share the drainage basin of the Cauvery. The sharing of waters of the Kaveri River (also spelled as Cauvery) has been the source of a serious conflict between the two states of Tamil Nadu and Karnataka.


72. Which of the following States does not share the drainage basin of the Krishna?
A. Maharashtra
B. Karnataka
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tamil Nadu does not share the drainage basin of the Krishna. It is one of the major sources for Maharashtra, Karnataka, Telangana and Andhra Pradesh.


73. The minimum fore at cover necessary to maintain ecological balance is
A. 50% of the total land area
B. 40% of the total land area
C. 33% of the total land area
D. 25% of the total land area

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The minimum for a cover necessary to maintain ecological balance is 33% of the total land area. At least 33% of the land area of a country should be under the forest. This is the ideal balance for maintaining ecological balance in the environment. Unless the balance is maintained there is high chance of suffering from natural calamities like irregular rain, drought, flood, and loss of flora and fauna, etc. This forest maintenance policy is the herald of the Green Movement in India.


74. Which one of the following regions of India is now regarded as an ‘ecological hot spot’?
A. Western Himalayas
B. Eastern Himalayas
C. Western Ghats
D. Eastern Ghats

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Western Ghats of India is now regarded as an ‘ecological hot spot’ by the Wild Life Act of 1972 of Indian Constitution.


75. Which of the following is not an international airport?
A. Palam
B. Dum Dum
C. Meenambakkam
D. Ahmedabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Ahmedabad is not an international airport.


76. Which one of the following Indian towns has the longest sea beach?
A. Kolkata
B. Mumbai
C. Chennai
D. Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Chennai has the longest sea beach. Marina Beach is one of the most renowned beaches of Tamil Nadu. Besides this, it is the longest beach in India and also the second longest beach in the world, which stretches to a length of 13 km. It lies on the eastern side of the city, bordering the Bay of Bengal.


77. Oil refinery located near the off field is
A. Nunamati
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Mathura
D. Koyali

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Oil refinery located near the off field is Nunamati. Oil refinery is located close to the oil fields so that crude oil can be brought to the refineries easily. Since two third of the petroleum is imported, the refineries are located near the coastal areas.


78. Which one among the following states is smallest in area?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Gujarat
C. Karnataka
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tamil Nadu states is smallest in area. In all, Tamil Nadu has 32 districts and out of them, Chennai – the capital of the state is the smallest district (by area). Chennai has an area of 426 square km and is one of the original 13 districts of Tamil Nadu. Despite being the smallest district, it is the most densely populated one.


79. The places Alwaye, Koyna and Korba have
A. Aluminium Industries
B. Thermal Power Plants
C. Oil Refineries
D. Nuclear Power Plants

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The places Alwaye, Koyna and Korba have Aluminium Industries. Aluminium Industry is the second most important metallurgical industry in India. Aluminium Industry is one of the leading metal industry in the Indian economy.


80. Bauxite is the ore of
A. Aluminium
B. Copper
C. Zinc
D. Mica

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Bauxite is the ore of Aluminium. Bauxite ore is the world’s main source of aluminum. Bauxite is a rock formed from a reddish clay material called laterite soil and is most commonly found in tropical or subtropical regions. Bauxite is primarily comprised of aluminum oxide compounds (alumina), silica, iron oxides and titanium dioxide.


81. Bhim Tal is a
A. River in West Bengal
B. Lake around Nainital
C. Strike valley
D. Pass in Kashmir

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Bhim tal is a Strike valley. Strike valley – a valley parallel to the strike of the underlying rocks of a region, found between almost two parallel mountain chain in young fold systems.


82. The Gobindsagar Reservoir is in
A. Mettur Dam
B. Bhakra Dam
C. Ranjit Sagar Dam
D. Rajasthan Canal

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Gobindsagar Reservoir is in Bhakra Dam. Gobindsagar is an important reservoir for more than one reason. The Bhakra-Nangal project was launched at the dawn of independence, signifying the beginning of an era of large developmental projects in India and the project was considered as an icon of the young nation’s pride, aptly described by Jawaharlal Nehru as one of the temples of modern India.


83. ‘Black Gold’ refers to
A. Coal
B. Petroleum
C. Gold
D. Diamond

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : ‘Black Gold’ refers to Petroleum. Petroleum is also known as Black Gold – because when crude oil is extracted from the land it is black in color. People call it gold because of its oils and value . It is very difficult to find.


84. The Indian States which have common borders with Pakistan are
A. Gujarat Himachal Pradesh Haryana and Jammu ; Kashmir
B. Gujarat Jammu ; Kashmir Punjab and Rajasthan
C. Jammu ; Kashmir Haryana Rajasthan and Punjab
D. Jammu ; Kashmir Himachal Pradesh Punjab and Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Indian States which have common borders with Pakistan are Gujarat, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab and Rajasthan. Jammu and Kashmir has longest border with Pakistan, having a length of 1222 km, followed by Rajasthan with 1179 km. Gujarat has 506 km, while Punjab has 425 km.


85. Which of the following do not have a common boundary with Bangladesh?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram
C. Tripura
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Arunachal Pradesh do not have a common boundary with Bangladesh. Bangladesh and India share a 4,096-kilometer (2,545-mile) long international border, the fifth-longest land border in the world. West Bengal with 2,217 km share longest border with Bangladesh. Other states include 262 km in Assam, 856 km in Tripura, 180 km in Mizoram, 443 km in Meghalaya, and 2,217 km in West Bengal.


86. HBJ pipe line is being laid for a distance of 1730 km in order to
A. Provide cooking gas for villages
B. Provide employment for rural population
C. Provide feedstock for six large fertilisers
D. Serve the power requirements of many states

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : HBJ pipe line is being laid for a distance of 1730 km in order to provide feedstock for six large fertilisers.


87. The National Institute of Oceanography is located at
A. Kandla
B. Mumbai
C. Cochin
D. Goa

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The National Institute of Oceanography is located at Goa. It is an autonomous research organization in India to undertake scientific research and studies of special oceanographic features of the Northern Indian Ocean. Headquartered in Goa, it has regional centres in Kochi, Mumbai and Vizag.


88. The Manchester of South India is
A. Chennai
B. Coimbatore
C. Bengaluru
D. Madurai

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Manchester of South India is Coimbatore. Coimbatore is known as Manchester of the South India or Textile Capital of South India. It is known as such because of the presence of more than 25,000 small, medium, large sale industries and textile mills.


89. Which one of the following gives the two largest Union Territories of India (in terms of geographical area) in the correct descending order?
A. Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Delhi
B. Chandigarh Lakshadweep
C. Delhi Puducherry
D. Delhi Chandigarh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Andaman and Nicobar Islands and Delhi gives the two largest Union Territories of India (in terms of geographical area) in the correct descending order.


90. Which one of the following lives the three largest states of India (in terms of geographical area) in the correct descending order?
A. Rajasthan Madhya Pradesh Maharashtra
B. Uttar Pradesh Madhya Pradesh Andhra Pradesh
C. Madhya Pradesh Maharashtra Andhra Pradesh
D. Madhya Pradesh Uttar Pradesh Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Rajasthan, Madhya Pradesh and Maharashtra lives the three largest states of India (in terms of geographical area) in the correct descending order.


91. Which of these is/are endangered species animals of India? ,1. Crocodile ,2. Elephant
A. Only 1
B. Only 2
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Crocodile and Elephant both are endangered species animals of India.


92. Which of the following projects is administered by more than one State?
A. Nagarjunasagar
B. Kosi
C. Hirakud
D. Tungabhadra

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tungabhadra project is administered by more than one State. The Tungabhadra Dam also known as Pampa Sagar is constructed across the Tungabhadra River, a tributary of the Krishna River. The dam is in Munirabad, Koppal district of Karnataka. It is a multipurpose dam serving irrigation, electricity generation, flood control, etc.


93. Which of the following States is called the “Garden of Spices”?
A. Karnataka
B. Kerala
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Kerala is called the “Garden of Spices”. It is often called as the ‘spice garden of India’ because of the variety of spices it delivers to the nation. Located between the Lakshadweep Sea and Western Ghats, Kerala is considered to be one of the peaceful and the cleanest states of India.


94. Narmada and Tapi flow into the
A. Gulf of Khambat
B. Palk Strait
C. Bay of Bengal
D. Gulf of Kachchh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Narmada and Tapi flow into the Gulf of Khambat. The gulf receives many rivers, including the Sabarmati, Mahi, Narmada (Narbada), and Tapti. Its shape and its orientation in relation to the southwest monsoon winds account for its high tidal range (40 feet [12 metres]) and the high velocity of the entering tides.


95. The advantage of micro-hydel projects is that they
A. Make use of water of the perennial hill streams and irrigation canals
B. Prevent flash floods
C. Save water
D. Involve less cost

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The advantage of micro-hydel projects is that they involve less cost. Micro-hydro power plants convert the energy of flowing water into electrical energy. The energy produced by them is renewable & the process does not emit polluting gasses.


96. The boundary between India and China is known as
A. Radcliffe Line
B. Durand Line
C. McMahan Line
D. Maginot Line

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The boundary between India and China is known as McMahan Line. It is currently the effective boundary between China and India, although its legal status is disputed by the Chinese government. The line is named after Henry McMahon, foreign secretary of British India and the chief negotiator of the convention at Simla.


97. The Chennai – Bengaluru – Coimbatore – Madurai region is ________.
A. A major industrial region
B. A major agricultural region
C. Mangrove forest region
D. Dry Mountainous (Hilly) region

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Chennai – Bengaluru – Coimbatore – Madurai region is A major industrial region.


98. The Bhils and the Kols live
A. Along the Vindhya ranges
B. In the Nilgiris
C. In the North-East frontiers of India
D. All over India

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Bhils and the Kols live along the Vindhya ranges, a range which bifurcates North and South India.


99. Which of the following is incorrect?
A. Red soils are rich in iron
B. Black soils are rich in phosphorus nitrogen and organic matter
C. Alluvial soils are rich in potash but poor in phosphorus
D. Red soils are suitable for cultivation of pulses and coarse grains

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Chemically, the black soils are rich in lime, iron, magnesia and alumina. They also contain potash. But they lack in phosphorous, nitrogen and organic matter.


100. The Ganga plain widens from
A. South to north
B. West to east
C. North to south
D. East to west

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Ganga plain widens from East to West.


101. The part of India receives maximum insolation.
A. Northern
B. Eastern
C. Western
D. Southern

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Southern part of India receives maximum insolation. The southern region is closest to equator and thus receives sunlight for longer duration than any other part of India.


102. In which of the following areas is Konkani spoken as the local language?
A. Kerala and Karnataka
B. Maharashtra and Goa
C. Odisha and West Bengal
D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In Maharashtra and Goa Konkani is spoken as the local language. Konkani is mainly spoken in Goa . It is the official language of Goa and is spoken along the South Western Coast of India. It is a minority language in Karnataka, Maharashtra, Kerala, Dadra, Nagar Haveli, Daman and Diu.


103. The bridge of sand and rock in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka is
A. Palk Isthmus
B. Sri Lanka Bridge
C. Adam’s Bridge
D. Pamban Bridge

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The bridge of sand and rock in the Palk Strait between India and Sri Lanka is Adam’s Bridge. The bridge is 30 miles (48 km) long and separates the Gulf of Mannar (southwest) from the Palk Strait (northeast).


104. The Indian river of the Indus Basin are
A. Sutlej Beas and Ravi
B. Ganga Beas and Sutlej
C. Betwa Sone and Kosi
D. Gomati Kosi Gandak

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Indian river of the Indus Basin are Sutlej, Beas and Ravi. The Indus system comprises of main Indus River, Jhelum, Chenab, Ravi, Beas and Sutlej. The basin is mainly shared by India and Pakistan with a small share for China and Afghanistan.


105. The famous Amarnath and Vaishnodevi shrines are located in the State of
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Jammu and Kashmir

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The famous Amarnath and Vaishnodevi shrines are located in the State of Jammu and Kashmir. Amarnath cave is a Hindu shrine located in Jammu and Kashmir, India. The cave is situated at an altitude of 3,888 m, about 141 km from Srinagar. Katra or Katra Vaishno Devi, as it is popularly known, is a small town in Reasi district in the state of Jammu and Kashmir, India, situated in the foothills of the Trikuta Mountains, where the holy shrine of Vaishno Devi is located. It is located 42 km from the city of Jammu.


106. Which of the following is associated with the recent discovery of tungsten by the Geological Surveyor India?
A. Agucha in Rajasthan
B. Thar Desert in Rajasthan
C. Tuensang in Nagaland
D. Sirohi in Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sirohi in Rajasthan is associated with the recent discovery of tungsten by the Geological Survey of India.


107. Consider the following statements:,1. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing,2. High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely,3. Tide prevents siltation in the harbours,4. Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports Which of these statements are correct?
A. 1 and 4
B. 2 3 and 4
C. 1 2 and 3
D. 1 2 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : All the statements are correct. Tides are of great help in navigation and fishing, High tide enables big ships to enter or leave the harbour safely, Tide prevents siltation in the harbours and Kandla and Diamond Harbour are tidal ports.


108. The Sunderbans are found in
A. The Luni Basin
B. Godavari Delta
C. Ganga Delta
D. Mahanadi Delta

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Sunderbans are found in Ganga Delta. The Ganges-Brahmaputra Delta (also known as the Brahmaputra Delta, the Sundarbans Delta or the Bengal Delta) is a river delta in the Bengal region of the Indian subcontinent, consisting of Bangladesh and the Indian state of West Bengal.


109. What is the standard time of India with reference to Greenwich Mean Time?
A. 5.5 hours slow
B. 11 hours fast
C. 5.5 hours fast
D. 11 hours slow

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : India Standard Time is 5.5 hours (5 hours 30 minutes) ahead of Greenwich Mean Time (GMT+5.5).


110. The Peninsular Plateau of India extends upto
A. Mizo Hills
B. Himachal Himalayas
C. Assam Valley
D. Maghalaya Hills

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Peninsular Plateau of India extends upto Maghalaya Hills. The peninsular plateau extends further east beyond the Rajmahal hills to from Meghalaya or the Shillong plateau. Garo-Rajmahal Gap separates this plateau from the main block.


111. ‘October Heat’ is caused due to
A. The absence of rain
B. Combination of high temperature and excessive humidity
C. Dry hot weather
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : ‘October Heat’ is caused due to the absence of rain. The weather in the month of October in the Indian sub-continent is called ‘October heat’. During October and November, with the apparent movement of the sun towards the south, the monsoon trough or the low-pressure trough over the northern plains becomes weaker. This is gradually replaced by a high-pressure system.


112. In India the yield per hectare is very low in
A. Intensive farming
B. Extensive farming
C. Commercial cultivation
D. Plantation agriculture

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In India the yield per hectare is very low in Extensive farming. Extensive agriculture is practiced on a large land hence lesser number of crops are grown per hectare but since there is a large area being cultivated the total yield is large.


113. Which multipurpose project was taken up first of all after independence?
A. Bhakra Nangal Project
B. Damodar Valley Project
C. Kosi Project
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Damodar Valley Project is the first multipurpose river valley project of the independent India. Damodar Valley Corporation was established in 1948 to develop the Damodar river Valley spread in Jharkhand and West Bengal.


114. What is the most important geographic use of the Himalayas to India?
A. Prevention of invasions
B. Valuable source of timber
C. They prevent the monsoons from crossing to the north and also serve as a reservoir of water from which our perennial rivers flow
D. They protect India from the icy cold north winds

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The most important geographic use of the Himalayas to India is that they prevent the monsoons from crossing to the north and also serve as a reservoir of water from which our perennial rivers flow.


115. The Jog Falls are situated on the
A. Tapi river
B. Saravathi river
C. Cauvery river
D. Bhima river

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Jog Falls are situated on the Saravathi river. Jog Fall located at southern state of Karnataka is India’s highest waterfall. Its height is 830 feet and is located on Sharavati River.


116. How do the Central Asian highlands affect the Indian climate?
A. The low pressure in these areas intensifies the cold during the winter
B. The atmospheric pressure in this region has an effect on the Indian atmosphere in summer
C. Dry continental air is blowing towards India throughout
D. The atmospheric pressure in this region has an impact on the onset of monsoon in India

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Central Asian highlands affect the Indian climate because of the atmospheric pressure in this region that has an impact on the onset of monsoon in India.


117. The first cotton mill was set up at Fort Gloaster in Kolkata in
A. 1919
B. 1926
C. 1818
D. 1854

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The first Indian cotton cloth mill was established in 1818 at Fort Gloaster near Kolkata, albeit this mill was a failure.


118. What is the correct sequence of the river Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths?
A. Godavari – Mahanadi – Narmada – Tapi
B. Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi
C. Narmada – Godavari – Tapi – Mahanadi
D. Narmada – Tapi – Godavari – Mahanadi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Yhe correct sequence of the river Godavari, Mahanadi, Narmada and Tapi in the descending order of their lengths are Godavari – Narmada – Mahanadi – Tapi.


119. The Grand Trunk road between Mumbai and Chennai passes through ________ and ________.
A. Pune and Bengaluru
B. Sholapur and Hubli
C. Ahmednagar and Hyderabad
D. Barsi and Guntur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Grand Trunk road between Mumbai and Chennai passes through Pune and Bengaluru.


120. Which one of the following statements is not true?
A. Ghaggar’s water is utilized in the Indira Gandhi Canal
B. Narmada raised from Amarkantak region
C. Nizatn Sagar is situtated on the Manjra river
D. Penganga is a tributary of the Godavai

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Indira Gandhi Canal originated from Harike barrage at Sultanpur on Sutlej but Ghaggar is a tributary of river Saraswati, which ends in the Thar desert.


121. India has the world’s highest road which connects
A. Leh and Srinagar
B. Leh and Manali
C. Srinagar and Jammu
D. Sikkim and Darjeeling

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Leh-Manali Highway is one of the highest roads in the world. Running between the Indian cities of Leh and Manali, it opens up an inhospitable part of the Himalaya Mountains. Be well prepared before you start, as you will cross several high mountain passes up to 5,325 m (17,470 ft).


122. Which of the following physiographic features of India is ‘geologically the oldest’?
A. Himalayan Mountain Chain
B. Indus-Ganga Brahmaputra Plain
C. The Peninsular Plateau
D. The Coastal Plains

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Peninsular Plateau of India is ‘geologically the oldest’. The Peninsular plateau is considered the oldest land mass as it was formed due to the drifting of the Gondwana land. The plateau consists of broad and shallow valleys and rounded hills. The triangular shaped Peninsular Plateau of India extends from the south of Indo-Ganga Plain to the Cape Comorin (now Kanyakumari).


123. ICF (Integral Coach Factory) is at
A. Alwaye
B. Coimbatore
C. Chennai
D. Bhadravati

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : ICF (Integral Coach Factory) is at Chennai. The Integral Coach Factory is one of the earliest production units of independent India.


124. Which of the following is not one of the reasons why the northern mountains are of great importance to India
A. They protect the country from invasion
B. They influence the climate
C. They provide water to the plains
D. They possess valuable vegetation and animal life

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The northern mountains are of great importance to India because they don’t protect the country from invasion.


125. Gypsum is found in
A. Rajasthan
B. Odisha
C. Assam
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Gypsum found in Rajasthan. Rajasthan is the sole producer of lead & zinc conc., calcite, selenite and wollastonite and almost all the production of ochre, silver, steatite and gypsum.


126. Foot and mouth disease is common among
A. Birds
B. Goats and sheep only
C. Cattle only
D. Cattle goats sheep and other hoofed animals

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Foot and mouth disease is common among Cattle, goats, sheep and other hoofed animals. Foot-and-mouth disease (FMD) is a highly contagious virus disease of animals. It is one of the most serious livestock diseases. It affects cloven-hoofed animals (those with divided hoofs), including cattle, buffalo, camels, sheep, goats, deer and pigs.


127. The National Geophysical Research Institute is located in
A. Pilani
B. Goa
C. Lucknow
D. Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The National Geophysical Research Institute is located in Hyderabad. The National Geophysical Research Institute is a geoscientific research organization established in 1961 under the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research, India’s largest Research and Development organization.


128. Hampi is in
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Karnataka
D. Sri Lanka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Hampi is in Karnataka. Hampi is located in the central part of the state of Karnataka, in the southern part of India.


129. Hazaribagh district in Jharkhand has rich deposits of
A. Gold
B. Mica
C. Gypsum
D. Lead

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Hazaribagh district in Jharkhand has rich deposits of Mica. It ranks first in the production of coal, mica, Kyanite and copper in India.


130. Which of the following states is the “Sugar Bowl” of India?
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Himachal Pradesh
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Uttar Pradesh is called as the sugar bowl of India. It is the largest producer of sugarcane in India. Sugarcane produced by them are of special unique quality and has a difference in taste other than that of the once produced by other groups in markets. Being the most famous and the top in class producers, it provides the best quality to other states also.


131. The Water Fall with the highest fall in India is the
A. Jog Falls Karnataka
B. Courtallam Falls Tamil Nadu
C. Beraghat Falls Madhya Pradesh
D. Ettipotala Falls Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Water Fall with the highest fall in India is the Jog Falls, Karnataka. Jog Fall located at southern state of Karnataka is India’s highest waterfall. Its height is 830 feet and is located on Sharavati River.


132. The Outer Himalayas correspond with
A. The Karakoram range
B. The Shiwalik range
C. The Kailas range
D. The Hindukush range

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Outer Himalayas correspond with The Shiwalik range. Siwalik Range, also called Siwalik Hills or Outer Himalayas, Siwalik also spelled Shiwalik, sub-Himalayan range of the northern Indian subcontinent. It extends west-northwestward for more than 1,000 miles (1,600 km) from the Tista River in Sikkim state, northeastern India, through Nepal, across northwestern India, and into northern Pakistan.


133. Which one of the following shipyards makes warships for the Indian Navy?
A. Cochin Shipyard Cochin
B. Hindustan Shipyard Visakhapatnam
C. Mazagaon Dock Mumbai
D. Garden Reach Workshop Kolkata

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mazagaon Dock, Mumbai makes warships for the Indian Navy. It manufactures warships and submarines for the Indian Navy and offshore platforms and associated support vessels for offshore oil drilling.


134. Which sanctuary has been selected as an alternative home for the Indian lion?
A. Bandipur Sanctuary (Karnataka)
B. Ghana Sanctuary (Bihar)
C. Periyar Sanctuary (Kerala)
D. Chandra Prabha Sanctuary (UP)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Chandra Prabha Sanctuary (UP) has been selected as an alternative home for the Indian lion.


135. The roadways linking Mumbai and Agra passes through
A. Nasik and Gwalior
B. Pune and Bhopal
C. Badodara and Jhansi
D. Jaipur and Kanpur

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The roadways linking Mumbai and Agra passes through Nasik and Gwalior. Roadway accessibility of Gwalior to other parts of India is excellent. National Highway (NH) 3 connecting Agra and Mumbai, and NH 75 connecting Gwalior and Parsora in Odhisa are the main interstate highways of this city. NH 3 originates in Agra and passes through Dhaulpur, Gwalior, Indore, Nasik, and Thane befor terminating in Mumbai. NH 75 begins from Gwalior and stretches upto Parsora via Jhansi, Panna, Satna, Daltonganj, Ranchi, Chakradharpur, and Chaibasa.


136. ________ State has the biggest area in India.
A. Maharashtra
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Rajasthan
D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Rajasthan is the largest state in India in terms of area followed by Madhya Pradesh and then Maharashtra and Uttar Pradesh. List of states (top 4) with decreasing in land area: Rajasthan – 3,42, 239 square kilometres. Madhya Pradesh – 3,08, 245 square kilometres.


137. The land-locked natural harbour along the east coast of India is
A. Visakhapatnam
B. Chennai
C. Kolkata
D. Paradeep

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Vishakhapatnam port located in Andhra Pradesh is the deepest landlocked and the safest port in India.


138. The HBJ pipe line serves the fertilizer plant(s) at
A. Hazira (Gujarat)
B. Bijaipur (Madhya Pradesh)
C. Jagdishpur (Uttar Pradesh)
D. All the three

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The HBJ pipe line serves the fertilizer plants at Hazira (Gujarat), Bijaipur (Madhya Pradesh) and Jagdishpur (Uttar Pradesh).


139. The Indian peninusula as compared to the north Indian plains is
A. Rich in mineral
B. More stable
C. At a higher level
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Indian peninusula as compared to the north Indian plains is Rich in mineral, More stable and At a higher level.


140. Where is the Black Pogoda?
A. Konark
B. Khajuraho
C. Madurai
D. Egypt

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Black Pogoda is in Konark. The Sun Temple, a magnificent pagoda, is located 2 km from the sea but, in olden times, it was much closer. So, the temple was used as a navigational point by European sailors.


141. The chief competitor of India in the field of lac is
A. Thailand
B. The United States of America
C. Japan
D. China

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The chief competitor of India in the field of lac is Thailand. India held virtual monopoly of lac until 1950 and accounted for about 85% of the world’s production of sticklac. After 1950, Thailand became the main competitor of India.


142. In India, diamonds are found at
A. Panna (MP)
B. Golkonda (AP)
C. Khetri (Rajasthan)
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In India, diamonds are found at Panna (MP). Mines is situated in the interior of Panna district. Diamond mines in Panna are managed under the Diamond Mining Project of National Mineral Development Corporation (NMDC Ltd) of Government of India.


143. What is the official language of Nagaland?
A. Nagali
B. English
C. Assamese
D. Chinese

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : English is the official language of Nagaland. In 1967, the Nagaland Assembly proclaimed English as the official language of Nagaland and it is the medium for education in Nagaland.


144. By what name is India’s eastern coast known?
A. Coromandel Coast
B. Bay of Bengal
C. Eastern Ghat Coast
D. Kolkata Chennai Coast

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The eastern coast of India is also known as Coromandel Coast. It lies between the Eastern Ghats and the Bay of Bengal.


145. On account of which one of the following reasons, we can say that Asia and Australia at one time were joined together?
A. Fossils of Marsupials are found in Asia
B. Culture of both places has many similarities
C. Climate is quite similar
D. The big green fields found in Australia are very much like those in Asia

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : We can say that Asia and Australia at one time were joined together because Fossils of Marsupials are found in Asia.


146. The Periyar Game Sanctuary in Kerala is renowned for
A. Tiger
B. Lion
C. Wild elephant
D. Spotted deer

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Periyar Game Sanctuary in Kerala is renowned for Wild elephant. It is notable as an elephant reserve and a tiger reserve.


147. What is Pimpri, a place in Maharashtra, known for
A. Leather goods
B. Soaps
C. Electric goods
D. Penicillin

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Pimpri, a place in Maharashtra is known for Penicillin. It is an industrial centre in Maharashtra is known for penicillin factory.


148. Which of the following is not one of the important steps in processing tea leaves?
A. Withering
B. Rolling
C. Fermenting
D. Drying

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Fermenting is not one of the important steps in processing tea leaves. Fermentation, chemical process by which molecules such as glucose are broken down anaerobically.


149. India lies
A. Mainly in the northern hemisphere
B. Entirely in the northern hemisphere
C. On the Equator
D. More in the southern hemisphere

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : India lies entirely in the northern hemisphere. India is divided into almost two equal parts by the Tropic of Cancer (23° 30′N). To the southeast and southwest of the mainland, lie the Andaman and Nicobar islands and the Lakshadweep islands in Bay of Bengal and Arabian Sea respectively.


150. The paleomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian landmass has moved
A. Northward
B. Southward
C. Eastward
D. Westward

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The paleomagnetic results obtained from India indicate that in the past, the Indian landmass has moved Northward. The palaeomagnetic results indicates that, the Indian land mass has moved to the north breaking from Africa.


151. The McMohan Line is a boundary between
A. India and China
B. India and Pakistan
C. India and Bangladesh
D. India and Nepal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The McMahon Line is the effective boundary between China and India.


152. Which of the following is a natural harbour?
A. Visakhapatnam
B. Mumbai
C. Chennai
D. Kolkata

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mumbai is a natural harbour. The Mumbai Port is located in the mainland of west Mumbai on the West coast of India with natural deep-water harbor.


153. Which one of the following pairs is not correct?
A. New Moore Island – India
B. Hurricane – China Sea
C. Doldrums – The equator
D. Trade winds – Winds which blow towards the equator

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Many of the Eastern Pacific tropical cyclones originate, at least in part, from tropical waves coming off Cape Verde in Africa. Many of these waves traverse the entire Atlantic Ocean without generating storm development until after crossing Central America and entering the warm Eastern Pacific waters.


154. Where are the Lepchas mainly to be found staying?
A. Meghalaya
B. Mizoram
C. Sikkim
D. Arunachal Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The lepchas mainly to be found staying in Sikkim. Lepchas are the original inhabitants of Sikkim, formerly an independent kingdom situated in the Himalayas between Nepal and Bhutan. Lepcha is the name given to this group by their Nepali neighbors and is interpreted by some as a derogatory word meaning “nonsense talkers.”


155. The National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) is located at
A. Kolkata
B. Lucknow
C. Dehradun
D. New Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The National Atlas and Thematic Mapping Organisation (NATMO) is located at Kolkata.


156. The satellite construction centre in India is at
A. Peenya
B. Sriharikota
C. Thumba
D. Bengaluru

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The satellite construction centre in India is at Peenya. Peenya is an industrial area of the Bengaluru city in India. and it is one of the biggest industrial areas in Asia.


157. In which one of the following cities can one never have the sunshine directly overhead at noon?
A. Bengaluru
B. Mumbai
C. Visakhapatnam
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Delhi can never have the sunshine directly overhead at noon. Any city north of the Tropic of Cancer will never have the sun directly overhead.


158. Which is the best irrigated State in India?
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Punjab
D. Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Punjab is the best irrigated State in India. Punjab leads the country’s States and UT s in terms of land under irrigation, with 98.8 per cent of its crop land under irrigation.


159. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched?
A. Teak : Jammu and Kashmir
B. Deodar : Madhya Pradesh
C. Sandalwood : Kerala
D. Sundari : West Bengal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sundari trees are found in the Sunderbans delta formed by the rivers Ganga and Brahmaputra in West Bengal. It belongs to the Mangrove type of forests.


160. India conducted its first nuclear explosion at
A. Apsara
B. Pokharan
C. Koyana
D. Kalpakkam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : India conducted its first nuclear explosion at Pokharan. The Indian government conducted its first nuclear test in the deserts of Pokhran, Rajasthan making it a peaceful nuclear explosion.


161. The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant which is managed by a State Government. Which is that State Government?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Odisha
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Karnataka

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Bhadravati Steel Plant is the only plant at Karnataka.


162. Which of the following is a distributary of the Ganga?
A. Yamuna
B. Son
C. Chambal
D. Hugli

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Hugli is a distributary of the Ganga. The Hooghly River, traditionally called ‘Ganga’, and also called Kati-Ganga, is an approximately 260-kilometre-long (160 mi) distributary of the Ganges River in West Bengal, India.


163. Mahi Project will greatly benefit
A. Maharashtra
B. Punjab
C. Gujarat
D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mahi Project will greatly benefit Gujarat. The Mahi is a river in western India. It rises in Madhya Pradesh and, after flowing through the Vagad region of Rajasthan, enters Gujarat and flows into the Arabian Sea.


164. What is Bandipur Sanctuary situated in Karnataka particularly noted for
A. Wild Elephant
B. Indian Bison
C. Rhinoceros
D. Spotted Deer

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Bandipur Sanctuary, situated in Karnataka, is particularly noted for its fine herd of spotted deer.


165. The general physical relief is likely to be the boldest in
A. The Himalayan Mountain Complex
B. The Indus Ganga Plain
C. The Deccan Plateau
D. The Central Indian Plateau

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The general physical relief is likely to be the boldest in The Himalayan Mountain Complex.


166. Where was India’s rocket launching station set up?
A. Sriharikota
B. Arvi
C. Thumba
D. Port Blair

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : India’s rocket launching station was set up in Thumba. The Thumba Equatorial Rocket Launching Station (TERLS) is an Indian spaceport operated by the Indian Space Research Organisation.


167. Which is common to Guwahati, Barauni, Koyali, Haldia, Digboi and Mathura?
A. Public sector refineries owned by the Indian oil corporation are located in these places
B. They are prominent game sanctuaries
C. They are hill stations
D. Oil and natural gas commission has its units in all these places

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In Guwahati, Barauni, Koyali, Haldia, Digboi and Mathura, public sector refineries, owned by the Indian oil corporation are located in these places.


168. The glacier of the Nubra Valley the longest one with a length of over 72 km is called the ________ glacier.
A. Hispar
B. Siachen
C. Biafo
D. Baltaro

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The glacier of the Nubra Valley is the longest one with a length of over 72 km is called the Siachen glacier. At 76 km (47 mi) long, it is the longest glacier in the Karakoram and second-longest in the world’s non-polar areas.


169. The first fertilizer plant was set up at
A. Nangal (Punjab)
B. Sindri (Bihar)
C. Alwaye (Kerala)
D. Trombay (Maharashtra)

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The first fertilizer plant was set up at Sindri (Bihar). Sindri is a neighbourhood in Dhanbad in Jharkhand state, India.


170. Which of the following is an ore of iron?
A. Bauxite
B. Haematite
C. Dolomite
D. Alunite

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Haematite is an ore of iron. It is an iron oxide with a chemical composition of Fe2O3. It is a common rock-forming mineral found in sedimentary, metamorphic, and igneous rocks at locations throughout the world.


171. Mayurakshi Project is an undertaking of the Government of
A. Maharashtra
B. West Bengal
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mayurakshi Project is an undertaking of the Government of West Bengal. Mayurakshi Reservoir Project was taken up for execution in 1951. This Project has been completed in all respects in the year 1985. The irrigation potential created through completion of this project comes to 2,50,860 ha. in the districts of Birbhum, Murshidabad and Burdwan.


172. The original home of the gypsies was
A. Egypt
B. Russia
C. India
D. Persia

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The original home of the gypsies was India. Gypsies have long believed they have origins in India, citing common Sanskrit words in their languages and photographs of darker-skinned ancestors in South Asian clothes, while earlier research has offered some scientific support for their suspicions.


173. Which of the following is not one of the traditional Indian seasons (ritus)?
A. Vasant
B. Grishma
C. Margsheersha
D. Sharad

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Margsheersha is not one of the traditional Indian seasons (ritus). As per the traditional Hindu calendar, Hemant Ritu prevails during the ‘Margashirsha’ and ‘Pausa’ masa.


174. The National Metallurgical Laboratory of India is at
A. Jamshedpur
B. Dhanbad
C. Roorkee
D. Ranchi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The National Metallurgical Laboratory of India is at Jamshedpur. National Metallurgical Laboratory is an Indian research center that functions under the aegis of Council of Scientific and Industrial Research.


175. Lac is secreted by
A. Trees like rubber
B. Certain kinds of birds
C. Some animals
D. A certain type of insect which feeds on the saps of trees such as Palas Ber and Kusum

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lac is secreted by A certain type of insect which feeds on the saps of trees such as Palas, Ber and Kusum. Lac is a natural resin of animal origin. It is secreted by an insect, known as lac-insect In order to obtain lac, these insects are cultured and the technique is called lac-culture. It involves proper care of host plants, regular pruning of host plants, propagation, collection and processing of lac.


176. Beas flows through the State of
A. Punjab Haryana and Rajasthan
B. Punjab Haryana and Jammu
C. Punjab and Himachal Pradesh
D. Punjab and Haryana

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Beas river rises in the Himalayas in central Himachal Pradesh, India, and flows for some 470 kilometres (290 mi) to the Sutlej River in the Indian state of Punjab.


177. The State having the maximum number of oil wells on its land portion is
A. Gujarat
B. Maharashtra
C. Assam
D. Bihar

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The State having the maximum number of oil wells on its land portion is Gujarat. For the state-run Oil and Natural Gas Corporation (ONGC) the district is the most prized onshore oil asset in India, producing about 40,000 barrels crude oil a day.


178. Lucerene is a
A. Cereal crop
B. Cash crop
C. Foliage crop
D. Fibre crop

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Lucerene is a Foliage crop. Lucerene also known as “alfalfa” or “rijka” in northen India is a protein rich fodder and considered as ” queen of fodder crop”.


179. “Mulching” is the term used for the process of
A. Covering the roots of plants with loose material dung etc. in order to protect them from soil erosion etc.
B. Breaking down big pieces of soil into small ones
C. Transplanting of paddy seedlings
D. Nitrogen fixation of soil by use of fertilizers

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : “Mulching” is the term used for the process of Covering the roots of plants with loose material, dung, etc. in order to protect them from soil erosion etc.


180. Jute fibre is obtained from which part of the Jute?
A. Root
B. Stem
C. Leaf
D. Fruit

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The jute fiber comes from the stem and ribbon (outer skin) of the jute plant. The fibers are first extracted by retting.


181. Which one of the following is the most important port of Gujarat?
A. Porbandar
B. Surat
C. Kandla
D. Diu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Kandla is the most important port of Gujarat. Kandla Port is hub for major imports like petroleum, chemicals and iron also export grains, salt and textiles. Port of Kandla is one of the highest earning ports of India, another port in Gujarat is Mundra Port,India’s largest private port.


182. Mumbai High refers to the
A. Greater Mumbai area
B. Highest place in Mumbai
C. Slopes of Western Ghats
D. Oil field below seabed off Mumbai island

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mumbai High refers to the Oil field below seabed off Mumbai island. It is India’s largest offshore oil field. Situated some 161 km north of the Mumbai coast, Bombay High has a string of oil and gas rigs in the sea that pumps oil to the coast. It produces 14 per cent of India’s oil requirements and accounts for 38 per cent of all domestic production.


183. The Duncan Pass is located between
A. Afghanistan and India
B. Pakistan and Afghanistan
C. South Andaman and Little Andaman
D. Shivalik and Karakoram

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Duncan Pass is located between South Andaman and Little Andaman. Duncan Passage is a strait in the Indian Ocean. It is about 48 km (30 mi) wide; it separates Rutland Island (part of Great Andaman) to the north, and Little Andaman to the south. West of Duncan Passage is the Bay of Bengal; east is the Andaman Sea.


184. ________ is not situated on the banks of the Ganga.
A. Agra
B. Kanpur
C. Allahabad
D. Varanasi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Agra is not situated on the banks of the Ganga. Agra is situated on the bank of Yamuna river.It originating from ‘ yamunotri’ glacier in the uppermost region of lower Himalaya in Uttarakhand. It also a longest tributory of Ganga river .


185. Which of the following cities/towns does not lie on the banks of the Ganga?
A. Kanpur
B. Fatehpur
C. Ghazipur
D. Farrukhabad

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Fatehpur does not lie on the banks of the Ganga. The District Fatehpur is lying in between two big holy rivers of India Ganga and Yamuna.


186. Ganges, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Cauvery, Narmada, Godavari and Krishna are extensive areas of
A. Inland fisheries
B. Estuarine fisheries
C. Coastal fisheries
D. Deep sea fisheries

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Ganges, Brahmaputra, Mahanadi, Cauvery, Narmada, Godavari and Krishna are extensive areas of Inland fisheries. Inland fisheries are “any activity conducted to extract fish and other aquatic organisms from inland waters”.


187. What is the main attraction of Kaziranga Sanctuary located in Assam?
A. Tiger
B. Spotted deer
C. Nilgai
D. One horned Rhinoceros

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Kaziranga National Park is the name to exemplify the most popular conservation efforts to save the endangered species like one-horned rhinoceros in India. Located in the Golaghat and Nagaon district of Assam, this most notable wildlife sanctuary is being declared as a World Heritage Site by UNESCO in the year 1985.


188. Anjuna, Baga, Colva, Majorda, and Miramar are beaches in
A. Chennai
B. Goa
C. Mumbai
D. Visakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Anjuna, Baga, Colva, Majorda, and Miramar are beaches in Goa. Baga Beach – The Best Beach Of Goa. Candolim Beach – Known For Its Scrubbed Sand Dunes. Calangute Beach – Indulge In Authentic Seafood. Sinquerim Beach – Try Water Sports. Vagator Beach – Clean And Serene. Anjuna Beach – Known For Its Rock Formations. Arambol Beach – For Families And Budget Vacations.


189. Which of the following mountains are the oldest according to geological history?
A. Nilgiris
B. Satpura Range
C. Vindhyas
D. Aravalli

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Aravalli mountains are the oldest according to geological history. It is 8 billion years old. At this time there would have been a fold mountain range made up of crumpled up Aravalli Supergroup rocks. Subsequently, beginning around 1.7 billion years ago, another basin developed in the north and west of the older Aravalli basin.


190. The four important ports of the West Coast of India, from South to North, in that order, are
A. Kandla Mumbai Goa Cochin
B. Goa Mumbai Cochin Kandla
C. Mumbai Kandla Goa Cochin
D. Cochin Goa Mumbai Kandla

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The four important ports of the West Coast of India, from South to North, in that order, are Cochin, Goa, Mumbai and Kandla.


191. Which of the following is not a seed borne disease?
A. Redrot of sugarcane
B. Potato mosaic
C. Brown leaf spot of rice
D. Black gram of cotton

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Potato mosaic is not a seed borne disease. Mosaic virus of potatoes is one such disease that actually has multiple strains. Potato mosaic virus is divided into three categories. Symptoms of the different mosaic virus of potatoes may be similar, so the actual type usually can’t be identified by symptoms alone and is often just referred to as mosaic virus in potatoes.


192. Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary is located in ________ State.
A. Andhra Pradesh
B. Tamil Nadu
C. Kerala
D. Karnataka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Periyar Wild Life Sanctuary is located in Kerala State. Periyar National Park and wildlife sanctuary is located in the Indian state of Kerala. The national park covers an area of 925 sq kilometers with a core zone of around 325 sq kilometers.


193. Which of the following fertilizer plants is not in the public sector?
A. Bhatinda
B. Nangal
C. Kota
D. Gorakhpur

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Kota fertilizer plants is not in the public sector.


194. Which of the following is known as the ‘Pearl City’?
A. Kandla
B. Tuticorin
C. Kochi
D. Hyderabad

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Hyderabad is known as the pearl city Of India. Hyderabad is the capital of Telangana in southern India, located on the banks of the Musi River and on the Deccan Plateau.


195. Which one of the following provides the correct sequence of occurrence of four towns/cities as one proceeds from west to east?
A. Rajkot Baroda Kharagpur Bilaspur
B. Bikaner Aligarh Darbhanga Nowgong
C. Indore Rourkela Agartala Jamshedpur
D. Nasik Aurangabad Berhampur Nanded

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Bikaner, Aligarh, Darbhanga and Nowgong provides the correct sequence of occurrence of four towns/cities as one proceeds from west to east.


196. The Indian sub-continent was originally part of a huge landmass called
A. Jurassic landmass
B. Aryavarta
C. Indiana
D. Gondwana continent

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Indian sub-continent was originally part of a huge landmass called Gondwana continent. Gondwana was an ancient supercontinent that broke up about 180 million years ago. The continent eventually split into landmasses we recognize today: Africa, South America, Australia, Antarctica, the Indian subcontinent and the Arabian Peninsula.


197. Why is the Delta of the Indus small compared to the Delta of the Ganga?
A. The Indus traverses a shorter distance than the Ganga
B. The Indus is not as broad as the Ganga
C. The path of the Indus is through arid area whereas the Ganga collects more water alone its path of the sea
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Delta of the Indus small compared to the Delta of the Ganga because the path of the Indus is through arid area, whereas the Ganga collects more water alone its path of the sea.


198. In which part of India is Dogri spoken?
A. West Bengal
B. Assam
C. Jammu and Kashmir
D. Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Dogri is spoken in Jammu and Kashmir. It is an Indo-Aryan language spoken by about five million people in India and Pakistan, chiefly in the Jammu region of Jammu and Kashmir and Himachal Pradesh, but also in northern Punjab, other parts of Jammu and Kashmir, and elsewhere.


199. The southern most point of Indian territory is in
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Lakshadweep
C. Trivandrum
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The southern most point of Indian territory is in Andaman and Nicobar Islands. It is situated on Great Nicobar Island in the Nicobar Islands, which are located in the eastern Indian Ocean at 6°45’10″N and 93°49’36″E. This is not on the Indian mainland, but within the Union Territory of Andaman and Nicobar Islands.


200. To check the expansion of Thar desert which one of the following methods is expected to yield the best results?
A. Artificial rain
B. Construction of canals
C. Afforestation
D. Construction of Dams

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : To check the expansion of Thar desert afforestation methods is expected to yield the best results. It reduces the pollution level. It minimizes the effect of drought and Global Warming. It helps the factories to have a proper use of plant items without leaving a bad effect in the society and environment. It minimizes the effect of soil erosion.


201. Which of the following is not one of the reasons for concentration of jute mills in Kolkata?
A. Cheap and abundant power supply
B. Availability of coal
C. A large supply of cheap labour and water required for industry
D. The port of Kolkata can easily export all the jute goods

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Cheap and abundant power supply is not one of the reasons for concentration of jute mills in Kolkata.


202. ‘Blight’ the disease of potato can be cured by
A. Dionine
B. Bordeaux mixture
C. Diathane
D. DDT

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : ‘Blight’ the disease of potato can be cured by Bordeaux mixture. There are a range of chemical treatments available, but the one Paraic recommends is Bayer Garden Blight Control. This is a great preventative treatment which is effective against early stages of Phytophthora Infestans.


203. Belt of Doldrums exists in which of the following regions?
A. Polar region
B. Equatorial region
C. Sub-Polar region
D. Sub-Tropical region

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Belt of Doldrums exists in Equatorial region. Doldrums, also called equatorial calms, equatorial regions of light ocean currents and winds within the intertropical convergence zone (ITCZ), a belt of converging winds and rising air encircling Earth near the Equator.


204. The total area of the Republic of India is of the order of ________.
A. 2.3 million sq km
B. 3.3 million sq km
C. 4.3 million sq km
D. 5.3 million sq km

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The total area of the Republic of India is of the order of 3.3 million sq km.


205. Who prepares topographical maps of India?
A. Geological Survey of India
B. Archaeological Survey of India
C. Survey of India
D. Geographical Survey of India

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Survey of India prepares topographical maps of India. The Survey of India is India’s central engineering agency in charge of mapping and surveying. Its members are from Survey of India Service cadre of Civil Services of India. It is headed by the Surveyor General of India.


206. Which of the following represents the southernmost geographical unit of India?
A. Cape Comorin (Kanyakumari)
B. Rameshwaram
C. Lakshadweep
D. Great Nicobar Island

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Great Nicobar Island represents the southernmost geographical unit of India. The southernmost point of the Indian territory is Indira Point in the Andaman & Nicobar Islands.


207. The Institute of Petroleum Reservoir Studies is located in
A. Ahmedabad
B. Badodara
C. Kolkata
D. Lucknow

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Institute of Petroleum Reservoir Studies is located in Ahmedabad. Institute of Reservoir Studies (IRS), set up in May 1978 in Ahmedabad, is the nodal agency for formulating the development schemes of oil and gas fields of ONGC. The emphasis is on Integrated Reservoir Management combining seismic, geological, well logging, reservoir and production data.


208. For the study of climate which of the following is not relevant?
A. Flash point
B. Steenson screen
C. Dew point
D. Hygrogram

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Flash point is not relevant for the study of climate. The flash point is the lowest temperature at which a volatile substance evaporates to form an ignitable mixture with air in the presence of an igneous source and continues burning after the trigger source is removed.


209. Which of the following places does not lie on the banks of Godavari?
A. Nanded
B. Bhadrachalam
C. Rajhamundry
D. Kakinada

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Kakinada does not lie on the banks of Godavari. Kakinada is one of the largest cities and the district headquarters of East Godavari district in the Indian state of Andhra Pradesh. It is the second most populated city of East Godavari district after Rajahmundry.


210. Which one of the following towns is not situated along the Grand Trunk Road?
A. Allahabad
B. Lucknow
C. Agra
D. Kanpur

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Lucknow is not situated along the Grand Trunk Road. Grand Trunk Road is one of largest and oldest national highway of about 2700 km long and it connects major North Indian cities like Kolkata, Kanpur, Allahbad, Aligarh, Agra, Delhi, Amristar, etc. It runs through countries of Bangladesh, Pakistan and Afghanistan as well.


211. The Mopplah are to be found in
A. Manipur
B. Assam
C. Kerala
D. Andhra Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Mopplah are to be found in Kerala. Mappilas are but one among the many communities that forms the Muslim population of Kerala. Sometimes the whole Muslim community in former Malabar District, or even in Kerala, is known by the term “Mappila”.


212. Prince, Victoria and Alexandria are the three important and busy docks at
A. Cochin
B. Visakhapatnam
C. Chennai
D. Mumbai

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Prince, Victoria and Alexandria are the three important and busy docks at Mumbai.


213. In which area are Zoroastrians concentrated?
A. Tamil Nadu
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Maharashtra
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Zoroastrians are concentrated in Maharashtra. Most of the Parsis (Zoroastrians) live in Maharashtra (mainly in Mumbai) and the rest in Gujarat. Zoroastrians or Parsis are mainly the descendants of the tenth-century immigrants from Persia.


214. ________ is known as the Queen of the Arabian Sea.
A. Cochin
B. Mumbai
C. Mangalore
D. Surat

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Cochin is known as the Queen of the Arabian Sea. Kochi – Queen of the Arabian Sea Kochi (earlier known as Cochin) is a cosmopolitan city in Kerala with a bustling commercial port.


215. What will be the difference in time of two cities situated on the same longitude but one in northern and the other in southern hemisphere?
A. No difference
B. Four hours difference
C. Four minutes difference
D. There are no such cities

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : There will be no difference in time of two cities situated on the same longitude but one in northern and the other in southern hemisphere.


216. Which of the following is wrongly matched?
A. Shompens – Andaman and Nicobar
B. Minicoy – Lakshadweep
C. Khasi – Mizoram
D. Garo – Chhatisgarh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Garo Hills are part of the Garo-Khasi range in Meghalaya, India.


217. Which of the following is not a part of the Great Plains?
A. Indo-Gangetic Divide
B. Ganga Delta
C. Assam Valley
D. Kerala Coastal Plain

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Kerala Coastal Plain is not a part of the Great Plains. Kerala Plains, narrow strip of coastland, southwestern India, fronting the Arabian Sea to the west and constituting almost all of Kerala state and most of the Malabar Coast.


218. The largest area under plantation in India is in
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Assam

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The largest area under plantation in India is in Assam. Assam produces the largest volume of tea from India. It’s renowned for its strong, malty black teas.


219. Which sugar is obtained from grapes
A. Lactose
B. Maltose
C. Glucose
D. Sucrose

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Glucose is obtained from grapes. Glucose is known as Grape sugar which is a monosaccharide because it cannot be hydrolyzed to a simpler sugar; it is a hexose because it contains six carbon atoms per molecule.


220. Kalbaisakhis or Norwesters originate in
A. Chhota Nagpur Plateau
B. Karnataka Coast
C. Coromandal Coast
D. Malwa Plateau

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Kalbaisakhis or Norwesters originate in Chhota Nagpur Plateau. Violent thunderstorms in the Gangetic plains of India are locally known as KalBaisakhi or Non’westers. These localised events are generally associated with thunderstorms accompanied by strong squally winds and torrential rainfall.


221. The earliest arrivals in India are believed to be Negritos. At which one of the following places are they mainly found now?
A. Punjab
B. Rajasthan
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Andaman Islands

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The earliest arrivals in India are believed to be Negritos. At Andaman Islands they are mainly found now. The Andaman Islands are home to four ‘Negrito’ tribes – the Great Andamanese, Onge, Jarawa and Sentinelese. The Nicobar Islands are home to two ‘Mongoloid’ tribes – the Shompen and Nicobarese. The ‘Negrito’ tribes are believed to have arrived in the islands from Africa up to 60,000 years ago.


222. The first nuclear reactor of India is named
A. Urvashi
B. Apsara
C. Kamini
D. Rohini

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Apsara is the oldest of India’s research reactors. The reactor was designed by the Bhabha Atomic Research Center (BARC) and built with assistance from the United Kingdom (which also provided the initial fuel supply consisting of 80 percent enriched uranium). Apsara first went critical on 4 August 1956.


223. The Sahyadris commence in ________.
A. Maharashtra
B. Kerala
C. Karnataka
D. Delhi

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Sahyadris commence in Maharashtra. The Sahyadri starts from the border of Gujarat and Maharashtra, south of the Tapti River, and runs approximately 1,600 km through the states of Maharashtra, Goa, Karnataka, Kerala and Tamil Nadu ending at Kanyakumari, at the southern tip of India.


224. The main difference between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats is the matter of
A. Continuity
B. Proximity of coast
C. Ending in Nilgiris
D. Height

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The main difference between the Eastern Ghats and the Western Ghats is the matter of Continuity.


225. Tobacco was introduced into India by the
A. Chinese
B. Portuguese
C. English
D. French

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Tobacco was introduced into India by the Portuguese. Tobacco was first brought to India by Portuguese merchants 400 years ago. Although there were already some strains of locally-grown tobacco in India these were outclassed by the new imported varieties from Brazil.


226. The deepest land locked and protected port in India is
A. Marmugoa
B. Visakhaptanam
C. Mumbai
D. Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The deepest land locked and protected port in India is Visakhaptanam. There is no landlocked port in India. However, if you meant which is the deepest port in India, it is Vishakapatnam, which is naturally deep and hence, called a natural harbour.


227. India has one land-locked and protected port which is at
A. Paradeep
B. Chennai
C. Kolkata
D. Visakhapatnam

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Deepset landlocked port in India is Vishakhapatnam,AP. The port which is encircled by land from all sides with a water passage towards sea or ocean is termed as land-locked port.


228. The airport of Mumbai is called
A. Dum Dum
B. Sahar
C. Palam
D. Meenambakkam

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The airport of Mumbai is called Sahar. The original location of the airport is the Sahar village area of Mumbai. Hence it was initially referred to as Sahar Airport.


229. The territorial waters of India extends up to
A. 5 nautical miles
B. 12 nautical miles
C. 15 nautical miles
D. 2 nautical miles

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The territorial waters of India extends up to 12 nautical miles. The territorial jurisdiction extends to territorial water up to 12 nautical miles from the nearest point of the baseline; beyond territorial waters is the Contiguous Zone extending up to 24 nautical miles; and beyond that up to 200 nautical miles is the Exclusive Economic Zone of India.


230. Mudumalai Sanctuary famous for elephants and deer is situated in
A. Assam
B. Gujarat
C. Tamil Nadu
D. Karnataka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Mudumalai Sanctuary famous for elephants and deer is situated in Tamil Nadu. Mudumalai (Masinagudi) is famous for elephant safari and much more.


231. India’s latitudinal and longitudinal extent measured in degrees are almost the same, but its north-south extent measured in km is greater than its east-west extent. This is due to the fact that
A. Longitudes are not parallel lines
B. The distance between latitudes remains the same but the distance between longitudes is greatest at the Equator and nil at the poles where all longitudes join
C. All longitudes with their opposites form great circles
D. The earth is not a perfect sphere

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : India’s latitudinal and longitudinal extent measured in degrees are almost the same, but its north-south extent measured in km is greater than its east-west extent. This is due to the fact that the distance between latitudes remains the same but the distance between longitudes is greatest at the Equator and nil at the poles where all longitudes join.


232. Rihand Valley Project is located in the state of
A. Uttar Pradesh
B. Jharkhand
C. Odisha
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Rihand Valley Project is located in the state of Uttar Pradesh. Rihand Dam is a concrete gravity dam located at Pipri in Sonbhadra District in Uttar Pradesh, India. Its reservoir area is on the border of Madhya Pradesh and Uttar Pradesh. It is located on the Rihand River, a tributary of the Son River.


233. Which State in India is known as the ‘Granary of India’?
A. Haryana
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Punjab
D. Kerala

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Punjab is known as the ‘Granary of India’. Wheat is among the largest crops cultivated in Punjab and it contributes a larger amount to its economy. The state produces 10.26% of the country’s cotton, 11% of rice and 19.5% of India’s overall wheat.


234. ‘Sagar Samrat’ is
A. An oil drilling platform in Mumbai High
B. An island in Indian Ocean
C. A ship used for Antarctica expedition
D. A space craft

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : ‘Sagar Samrat’ is an oil drilling platform in Mumbai High. Sagar Samrat has a drilling depth of 18,000 feet (5,486 metre) and ONGC has plans to convert the rig to take over oil production duties replacing Bombay High north platform.


235. Where would you find Oraon, Munda, Santhal, Gonds and Asurs?
A. Chhattishgarh
B. Andhra Pradesh
C. Mahrashtra
D. Jharkhand

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : You can find Oraon, Munda, Santhal, Gonds and Asurs in Jharkhand.


236. Among the following the most urbanised community in India is
A. Muslim
B. Hindu
C. Parasi
D. Gujarati

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Among the following the most urbanised community in India is Parasi. Parsi, also spelled Parsee, member of a group of followers in India of the Iranian prophet Zoroaster (or Zarathustra). The Parsis, whose name means “Persians,” are descended from Persian Zoroastrians who emigrated to India to avoid religious persecution by Muslims.


237. The Sharavati Project is a/an
A. Thermal project
B. Hydro-electric project
C. Multipurpose project
D. Irrigation project

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Sharavati Project is a Hydro-electric project. The Sharavati Hydroelectric project was started to tap the electricity generating potential of the river. Sharavati is a river which originates and flows entirely within the state of Karnataka in India. It is one of the few westward flowing rivers of India and a major part of the river basin lies in the Western Ghats.


238. The Islands of Lakshadweep are
A. Of volcanic origin
B. Of coral origin
C. Of continental origin
D. Elevated portions of sub-marine mountains

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Islands of Lakshadweep are of coral origin. All these islands have been built up by corals and have fringing coral reefs very close to their shores.


239. Where is Pygmalion Point also known as Indira Point?
A. Lakshadweep
B. Andman and Nicobar Islands
C. Rameswaram
D. Point Calimere

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Indira point is the southernmost tip of India; situated on Great Nicobar island; part of the Andaman and Nicobar archipelago. Formerly known as Pygmalion or Parsons point; it was named after Indira Gandhi(1917–1984); India’s former Prime Minister in the mid 1980s.


240. What is the best source of pure cellulose?
A. Coir
B. Cotton fibre
C. Jute fibre
D. Hemp

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Cotton fibre is the best source of pure cellulose. The cellulose content of cotton fiber is 90%, that of wood is 40–50%, and that of dried hemp is approximately 57%. Cellulose is mainly used to produce paperboard and paper.


241. Soyabeans are rich in
A. Vitamin A
B. Proteins
C. Minerals
D. Carbohydrates

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Soyabeans are rich in proteins. Soybeans are high in protein and a decent source of both carbs and fat. They are a rich source of various vitamins, minerals, and beneficial plant compounds, such as isoflavones.


242. India has an endless growing season because
A. It experiences the monsoonal type of climate
B. The distribution of rainfall is uneven
C. Temperatures throughout the year are favourable for growth of plants
D. Its soil is very fertile the greater part being alluvial

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : India has an endless growing season because temperatures throughout the year are favourable for growth of plants.


243. The port commanding the largest hinterland in India is
A. Mumbai
B. Kandla
C. Kolkata
D. Chennai

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The port commanding the largest hinterland in India is Kolkata.


244. Which time of the day is generally the hottest period all over India?
A. Noon
B. 0.541666666666667
C. 0.625
D. One cannot say

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : No explanation is given for this question Let’s Discuss on Board


245. The Valleys of Peninsular India are generally
A. U-Shaped
B. V-Shaped
C. Deep
D. Not so deep

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Valleys of Peninsular India are generally U-Shaped. U-shaped valleys are located all over the world, particularly in areas with high mountains, as this is where glaciers were able to form. Some examples of U-shaped valleys include Zezere Valley in Portugal, Leh Valley in India, and Nant Ffrancon Valley in Wales.


246. An active volcano was reported at ________ India in 1991.
A. Barren Island Andaman and Nicobar Islands
B. Aliabet Island Gujarat
C. Rameshwaram Island Tamil Nadu
D. Mumbai Island Maharashtra

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : An active volcano was reported at Barren Island, Andaman and Nicobar Islands India in 1991. The Barren Island volcano, located 140-km north-east of Port Blair, dormant for more than 150 years started erupting in 1991 and has since then shown intermittent activity,” CSIR-NIO said in a statement”.


247. The first Alumina plant in India is situated at
A. Kiriburu (Jharkhand
B. Ratnagiri (Maharashtra)
C. Sirpur (Andhra Pradesh)
D. Korba (Madhya Pradesh)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The first Alumina plant in India is situated at Korba (Madhya Pradesh). Korba is a city and an industrial area in Korba District in the Indian state of Chhattisgarh. Korba is known as the Power Capital of India.


248. The Farakka Project is mainly aimed towards
A. Irrigating more land in West Bengal
B. Utilizing maximum of Ganga water
C. Preserving the port of Kolkata
D. Production of electricity

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Farakka Project is mainly aimed towards Preserving the port of Kolkata. The Barrage serves water to the Farakka Super Thermal Power Station.


249. Which country assisted India in the launching of her first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’?
A. USA
B. United Kingdom
C. Former USSR
D. Germany

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Former USSR assisted India in the launching of her first satellite ‘Aryabhatta’. It allowed the USSR to use Indian ports for tracking ships and launching vessels in return for launching Indian satellites. Aryabhatta is the first man made (artificial) Indian satellite.


250. In which of the following areas of India is there an overlapping plantation of tea and coffee?
A. North-east
B. North-west
C. South-west
D. South-east

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : In South-west areas of India there is an overlapping plantation of tea and coffee.


251. Kanha Tiger Reserve is situated in Mandla district of
A. Rajasthan
B. Uttar Pradesh
C. Chhattisgarh
D. Madhya Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Kanha Tiger Reserve is situated in Mandla district of Madhya Pradesh. The Kanha Tiger Reserve was made in the year 1973. It covers an area of 940 km² and lies in the two districts of Mandla and Balaghat in Madhya Pradesh. Kanha Tiger Reserve is formed including the 1,067 km² of its surrounding buffer zone along with the neighboring Phen Sanctuary of 110 km².


252. The Abhors are
A. An Adivasi tribe in Bastar
B. A clan of dacoits
C. A tribe of Mongoloid blood
D. Extinct now

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Abhors are a tribe of Mongoloid blood.


253. The Arabian Sea lies to
A. North-East of India
B. South-West of India
C. South-East of India
D. North-West of India

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Arabian Sea lies to South-West of India. The Arabian Sea lies to the west of India, the Bay of Bengal and the Indian Ocean lie to the east and south, respectively.


254. Urea is prepared by the chemical reactions of
A. Ammonium sulphate and calcium chloride
B. Ammonia and carbon dioxide
C. Chlorine and water
D. Acetamide and ethyl alcohol

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Urea is prepared by the chemical reactions of Ammonia and carbon dioxide. This is a two step process where the ammonia and carbon dioxide react to form ammonium carbamate which is then dehydrated to urea. In the process, ammonia and carbon dioxide are fed to the synthesis reactor which operates around 180-210oC and 150 bar pressure.


255. India has the second largest concentration of tribal people in the world. Which of the following countries is the first in this regard?
A. France
B. China
C. Africa
D. Iran

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : India has the second largest concentration of tribal people in the world. Africa is the first in this regard.


256. India has eight coastal states but more than half the sea salt is made along the Gujarat coast because
A. Gandhiji started the salt movement in Gujarat
B. Low rainfall and relative humidity are ideal for the production of salt through evaporation of sea water
C. Kandla port exports salt
D. The salinity of sea water is very high near the Gujarat coast

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : India has eight coastal states but more than half the sea salt is made along the Gujarat coast because low rainfall and relative humidity are ideal for the production of salt through evaporation of sea water.


257. The Matatilla Project is
A. Executed by Uttar Pradesh
B. Executed by Madhya Pradesh
C. A joint venture by Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh
D. A joint venture by Uttar Pradesh and Bihar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Matatilla Project is a joint venture by Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh. The Matatila Dam is a dam in district Lalitpur, Uttar Pradesh., India that was built in 1958 on the Betwa River. Situated 93 km away from Deogarh, this earthen dam is 35 m high.


258. The Palk Bay lies between
A. Gulf of Kachchh and Gulf of Khambhat
B. Gulf of Mannar and Bay of Bengal
C. Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands
D. Andaman and Nicobar Islands

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Palk Bay lies between Lakshadweep and Maldive Islands. The Palk strait separates India and Srilanka. It lies between the Gulf of Mannar and the Bay of Bengal.


259. Which region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’?
A. Indo-Gangetic Plain
B. Krishna-Godavari Delta region
C. North-East region
D. Kerala and Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Krishna-Godavari Delta region in India is known as the ‘Rice Bowl of India’. In India, Andhra Pradesh & the Krishna-Godavari Delta region is called as “Rice Bowl of India”. Coming to the Indian State, Chhattisgarh is also known as Rice Bowl of India.


260. The ‘Ruhr or India’ is
A. Mumbai-Pune region
B. Damodar Valley region
C. Chennai-Bengaluru region
D. Delhi-Kanpur region

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The ‘Ruhr or India’ is Damodar Valley region. Ruhr valley is an area in west Germany bounded by rivers Ruhr, Rhine and Lippe. It is rich in minerals ,specifically coal, which led to the development of many industries in the valley region especially iron and steel industries.


261. What was the primary purpose of constructing the Farakka Barrage?
A. Preservation and maintenance of Kolkata port for navigation
B. To supply Ganga water to Bangladesh
C. To bring additional area of West Bengal under irrigation
D. To meet the chronic power shortage in Kolkata

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Preservation and maintenance of Kolkata port for navigation was the primary purpose of constructing the Farakka Barrage. Main objective of the Farakka Barrage Project complex is to divert adequate quantity of Ganga waters to Bhagirathi-Hoogly river system through 38.38 km long feeder canal for preservation and maintenance of Kolkata Port by improving the regime and navigability of the Bhagirathi-Hoogly river system.


262. Sriharikota, an important unit for the Indian Space Research Organisation is located in which state?
A. Kerala
B. Karnataka
C. Andhra Pradesh
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sriharikota, an important unit or the Indian Space Research Organisation is located in Andhra Pradesh. Its vision is to “harness space technology for national development while pursuing space science research and planetary exploration.”


263. To which group do belong?
A. Negritoes
B. Proto-Australoids
C. Mongoloids
D. Western Brachycephals

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : No explanation is given for this question Let’s Discuss on Board


264. Where was the first cotton mill set up in India?
A. Mumbai
B. Coimbatore
C. Surat
D. Kolkata

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The first Indian cotton cloth mill was established in 1818 at Fort Gloaster near Kolkata.


265. The longest distance covered by one Broad Gauge train in India is between
A. Kanniyakumari and Jammu Tawi
B. Guwahati and Tiruvananthpuram
C. New Delhi and Chennai
D. Gorakhpur and Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The longest distance covered by one Broad Gauge train in India is between Kanniyakumari and Jammu Tawi.


266. Which of the following is not a tributary of the Krishna?
A. Tungabhadra
B. Malaprabha
C. Ghataprabha
D. Amravati

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Amravati is not a tributary of the Krishna. The Amaravati River is the longest tributary of Kaveri River in fertile the districts of Karur and Tirupur, Tamil Nadu state, South India.


267. The finest natural harbour in India is
A. Chennai
B. Mumbai
C. Kolkata
D. Cochin

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The finest natural harbour in India is Mumbai. It is a magnificent natural harbour on the West Coast of India.


268. Who demarcated the boundary line between India and Pakistan?
A. Lord Curzon
B. Lord Canning
C. Cyril Radcliffe
D. Stafford Cripps

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sir Cyril Radcliffe Demarcated the land in 1947.


269. Which is the group of languages spoken by the largest number of people in India?
A. Indo-Aryan
B. Dravidian
C. Austro-Asiatic
D. Sino-Tibetan

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : lndo-Aryan group of languages spoken by the largest number of people in India. There are about 219 known Indo-Aryan languages. The largest in terms of speakers are Hindustani (Hindi-Urdu, about 329 million), Bengali (242 million), Punjabi (about 100 million) and other languages, with a 2005 estimate placing the total number of native speakers at nearly 900 million.


270. Which language next to Hindi is spoken by the largest number of people in India?
A. Bengali
B. Marathi
C. Tamil
D. Telugu

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Bengali language next to Hindi is spoken by the largest number of people in India. Bengali remains the second most spoken language while Marathi has replaced Telugu in third place.


271. The Bokaro steel plant has been set up with the assistance of
A. Former USSR
B. UK
C. USA
D. Germany

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The Bokaro steel plant has been set up with the assistance of former USSR. Bokaro Steel Plant (BSP) is located in the Bokaro district of Jharkhand. It is the fourth integrated public sector steel plant in India built with Soviet help. It was incorporated as a limited company in 1964. It was later merged with the state-owned Steel Authority of India Limited (SAIL).


272. Which of the following does not have influence over the climate in India?
A. Nearness to Equator
B. Presence of Indian Ocean
C. Monsoons
D. Ocean currents

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Ocean currents does not have influence over the climate in India. Ocean currents act much like a conveyer belt, transporting warm water and precipitation from the equator toward the poles and cold water from the poles back to the tropics. Thus, currents regulate global climate, helping to counteract the uneven distribution of solar radiation reaching Earth’s surface.


273. Which or the following Indian islands lies between India and Sri Lanka?
A. Elephanta
B. Rameshwaram
C. Nicobar
D. Salsette

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Rameshwaram Indian islands lies between India and Sri Lanka. This chain extends between Dhanushkodi on Pamban Island (also known as Rameswaram Island) in Tamil Nadu and Mannar Island in Sri Lanka. The island of Rameswaram is linked to the Indian mainland by the Pamban Bridge.


274. Which one of the following is a breed of cattle famous for high milk yield as well as draught capacity?
A. Mewati
B. Tharparkar
C. Kankrej
D. Red Sindhi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Tharparkar is a breed of cattle famous for high milk yield as well as drought capacity. It is a breed of cattle originating in Tharparkar District in Sindh province in present day Pakistan. It is a dual purpose breed known for both its milking and draught potential.


275. What causes earthquakes?
A. Occurrence of underground water
B. Volcanic eruptions
C. Occurrence of cracks and fissures in rocks
D. No definite cause has been found so far

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Volcanic eruptions causes earthquakes. Volcanic eruptions are caused when magma forces out of an opening in the Earth Crust and becomes lava on coming out of the opening of the Volcano. When magma forces out of the hole , then it causes a relative motion of the earth rptectonic plates or lithospheric plates. If this movement is caused in a vigorous manner , then it creates a tension force within the tectonic plates. After this tension force is released it leads to Eartquake.


276. What is Obra?
A. Copper project in Rajasthan
B. Super thermal power project in Uttar Pradesh
C. Atomic power plant at Kalpakkam
D. Hydroelectric project in Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Obra is a super thermal power project in Uttar Pradesh. Obra Thermal Power Station is situated at Obra in Sonebhadra district in Uttar Pradesh. The plant is 125 km away from Varanasi. This Uttar Pradesh thermal power plant is equipped with thirteen units, each of which is coal.


277. Where do Birhors live?
A. Chhattishgrah
B. Assam
C. Nagaland
D. Tamil Nadu

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Birhors lives in Chhattishgrah. They are found mainly in Jharkhand, Chhattisgarh and Orissa. The Birhor population in all three states put together is relatively small and is declining with disappearing forests. The Birhor literacy rate is very low and as a result, they fall an easy prey to those who exploit them. Literacy initiatives, hand in hand with Bible translation can bring about a transformation in their lives.


278. Wild asses are found in
A. Parkal Warangal (Andhra Pradesh
B. Rann of Kutch Gujarat
C. Manas Barpeta (Assam)
D. Chandraprabha Varanasi

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Wild asses are found in Rann of Kutch, Gujarat. Located in an area called Little Run of Kutch, the Wild Ass Sanctuary in Kutch is the only home to wild ass in India. The sanctuary was set up in 1973 with a purpose to protect the endangered Indian wild ass.


279. Which of the following is not a food-grain?
A. Wheat
B. Rice
C. Cotton
D. Jowar

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Cotton is not a food-grain. It is a cash crop.


280. Which of the Indian states has the maximum number of common borders with other Indian States?
A. West Bengal
B. Madhya Pradesh
C. Uttar Pradesh
D. Karnataka

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Uttar Pradesh (my state) shares border with 8-states 1-country and National Capital Territory of Delhi.


281. In which of the following states would you not find Bhils?
A. Gujarat
B. Karnataka
C. Madhya Pradesh
D. Uttar Pradesh

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : In Uttar Pradesh you would not find Bhils. The central Bhils are found in the mountain regions in the Indian states of Madhya Pradesh, Maharashtra, Gujrat and Rajasthan. Bhils are also found in the north eastern parts of Tripura.


282. Which of the following fertilisers provides maximum amount of nitrogen?
A. Calcium Nitrate
B. Urea
C. Ammonium Sulphate
D. Nitrolium

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Urea fertilisers provides maximum amount of nitrogen. Urea (46-0-0) is a dry nitrogen material produced by reacting ammonia with carbon dioxide. Of the commonly used dry fertilizers, urea contains the highest percentage of nitrogen and is rapidly replacing ammonium nitrate. When surface applied, urea is the most readily volatilized of the dry nitrogen materials.


283. The weather office predicts “depression” over a certain area. It means
A. Cloudy skies
B. Atmospheric pressure in that area is lower than that in the surrounding areas
C. Heavy weather causing a feeling of depression
D. Low atmospheric pressure over a large area

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The weather office predicts “depression” over a certain area. It means atmospheric pressure in that area is lower than that in the surrounding areas.


284. The smallest Union Territory of India (area wise) is
A. Lakshadweep
B. Puducherry
C. Daman and Diu
D. Dadar and Nagar Haveli

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The smallest Union Territory of India (area wise) is Lakshadweep. India’s smallest Union Territory Lakshadweep is an archipelago consisting of 36 islands with an area of 32 sq km.


NCERT Books for Class 10 Maths Chapter 10 Circles

NCERT Books for Class 10 Maths Chapter 10 Circles PDF Download

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NEET Chemistry MCQ Chapter Wise PDF Download | Chemistry NEET Objective Questions

NEET Chemistry MCQ Chapter Wise PDF Download

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NCERT Books for Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry

NCERT Books for Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry PDF Download

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NCERT 1oth Class Maths Chapter 9 Books will give you authentic information and you can rely on them during your preparation. Prepare from the NCERT Class 10 Chapter 9 Books PDF download as they contain all sets of questions so that you can have a strong foundation of basics. Try practicing the previous papers and sample questions attached in the NCERT Books of Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry to solve the questions in your exam easily.

NCERT Books for Class 10 Maths Chapter 9 Some Applications of Trigonometry PDF Download

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Practice MCQ Questions on Earth | GK Questions on Earth with Answers

MCQ Questions on Earth

Earth MCQs with Answers are furnished here with a clear explanation. Make use of these Multiple Choice Questions on Earth with Answers and test your level of preparation. Also, you can improve your intelligence by practicing regualarly with our provided Earth MCQ Quiz Questions. Revise the whole concepts & facts about Earth by taking help from the List of MCQ Questions and Answers on Earth.

Exercise Earth Multiple Choice Questions and Answers

1. The earth is at the largest distance from the sun (Apehelion) on ________
A. June 21st
B. January 3rd
C. July 4th
D. September 23rd

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : At about 11 a.m. EDT (1500 GMT) on the Fourth of July, the Earth will reach that point in its orbit where it is farthest from the sun called aphelion, this location in Earth’s orbit puts the planet about 94.5 million miles (152 million kilometers) from the sun.


2. The seasonal contrasts are maximum in ________
A. Low latitudes
B. Mid-latitudes
C. Sub tropics
D. High latitudes

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Seasonal contrast are maximum in mid latitude.


3. Geostationary orbit is at a height of ________
A. 6 km
B. 1000 km
C. 3600 km
D. 36000 km

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The geostationary orbit of the earth is at a distance of about 36000 km from the earth’s surface.


4. A radio broadcast from Delhi on Monday at 7.30 p.m. is heard at New York on ________
A. Tuesday at 8.35 p.m.
B. The same day at 7.30 p.m.
C. The same day at 7:30 a.m.
D. Sunday at 8.35 p.m.

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A radio broadcast from Delhi on Monday at 7.30 p.m. is heard at New York on the same day at 7:30 a.m..


5. The position of the sun is annually twice overhead at Singapore because of the ________
A. Rotation of the earth
B. Revolution of the earth
C. Elliptical path of the earth’s orbit
D. Parallelism of inclined axis of the earth

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The position of the sun is annually twice overhead at Singapore because of the parallelism of inclined axis of the earth.


6. The light of Sun takes how much time to reach to Earth
A. 8 hours 20 seconds
B. 8 minutes 20 seconds
C. 8 seconds
D. 20 seconds

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Sunlight travels at the speed of light. Photons emitted from the surface of the Sun need to travel across the vacuum of space to reach our eyes. The short answer is that it takes sunlight an average of 8 minutes and 20 seconds to travel from the Sun to the Earth.


7. Who proposed Continental drift theory?
A. Alfred Wegener
B. Alfred Worwick
C. Alfred Hanks
D. Alfred Mane

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Continetal Drift theory was proposed by Alfred wegner in 1912. It stated that continents have changed their position and initially there was only one big continent named Pangea. Although he was unable to explain the force behind the drifting of continents.


8. The region which is resistant to the transformation of macro structure, is called?
A. Firm structure
B. Ancient structure
C. Tectonic plate
D. Shield

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Shield is the region of stable landmass occupied by resistant rocks of igneous origin, showing resistant to geomorphic processes e.g. Canadian Shield.


9. Study the following diagram and say which of the given statements is not correct regarding it ________
A. It shows the earth’s orbital position on 21st June
B. All parallels in the northern hemisphere have days equal to nights
C. There is continuous day north of the Arctic Circle
D. South of the equator the length of the day decreases with increasing latitude

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : No explanation is given for this question Let’s Discuss on Board


10. What percentage of insolation is received by the earth’s surface?
A. 0.47
B. 0.51
C. 0.66
D. 0.87

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Roughly, 0.47 percent of insolation reaches the Earth’s surface. The rest is either reflected and scattered back to space through its interaction with clouds, water vapour, dust and pollen, known collectively as aerosols or it is absorbed by clouds and gaseous elements and hence heats the atmosphere.


11. For a time difference of two hours, the longitudinal distance will be equal to ________.
A. 15°
B. 30°
C. 45°
D. 60°

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One hour of time difference corresponds to 15° of longitude (360°/24 hours = 15°/hour). Therefore, For a time difference of two hours, he longitudinal distance will be equal to 30°.


12. When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, what is the time at New York (74° W) ?
A. 4.56 p.m.
B. 4.56 a.m.
C. 7.04 p.m.
D. 7.04 a.m.

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Greenwich is 4 hours ahead of New York, NY, USA. Greenwich mean time (GMT) = 12 noon every 1° is equal to 4 minutes. therefore, 74° = 74×4 = 296 minutes. Therefore, When it is 12 noon at Greenwich, the time at New York (74° W) is 7.04 a.m.


13. What is the difference between the Local time and Greenwich time one degree longitude?
A. 2 minutes
B. 4 minutes
C. 6 minutes
D. 8 minutes

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The time difference between each longitude (each degree) is 4 minutes. So if it is 12 noon at Greenwich (0 degree), it would be 12:04 pm at 1 degree meridian and so on.


14. The distance between the earth and the sun is smallest in the month of ________
A. January
B. March
C. June
D. September

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In January Earth makes its closest approach to the Sun for the year.


15. Which one of the following would have occurred if the earth had not been inclined on its own axis?
A. All the seasons would have been of same duration
B. The seasons would not have changed
C. The summers would have been of longer duration
D. The winters would have been of longer duration

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : If the Earth weren’t tilted on its axis, there would be no seasons. The season would remain same.


16. Insolation heats up the land masses more quickly than the water bodies because ________
A. Water is liquid
B. Landmasses are solid
C. Water needs more energy to get warm
D. Rocks are bad conductors of heat

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : This is due to the fact that most land surfaces are darker than water which of course means more absorption of solar radiation and heat. Since land absorbs more solar radiation the land surface retains more heat as do the vegetation for energy. Thus, land surfaces warm more quickly than water.


17. Which of these statements are correct? ,1. Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich and is at 0° Longitude.,2. International Date Line, on the map appears as a straight line along 180° Longitude.,3. While crossing International Date Line from east to west, one gains a day.,4. Tropic of Cancer lies at Latitude.
A. 1 2 3 and 4
B. 1 2 and 4
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The statements that are correct are Prime Meridian passes through Greenwich and is at 0° Longitude and Tropic of Cancer lies at Latitude.


18. The sun reaches its maximum angular distance from the equator at the ________
A. Zenith
B. Solstice
C. Equinox
D. Noontime

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Since the ecliptic is tilted 23.5 degrees with respect to the celestial equator, the Sun’s maximum angular distance from the celestial equator is 23.5 degrees. This happens at the solstices.


19. If news is broadcast from London at 10:30 AM, at what time it will be heard at Baghdad (45°E)?
A. 7:30 am
B. 9:00 am
C. 1:30 pm
D. 12:00 Noon

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Time at London (0° longitude) is 10:30 am. Baghdad is at 45°E.
Difference in longitudes = 45°
For every 1° longitude, there is a difference of 4 minutes
For 45° longitude there will be a difference of = (45*4)minutes
= 180 minutes or 3 hours
As Baghdad is towards the east of London, it’ll be ahead of time at London
time at Baghdad = (10:30am + 3 hours)
= 1:30pm


20. If the earth’s direction of rotation is reversed, what would be the IST when it is noon at the International Date Line?
A. 06.30 hrs
B. 05.30 hrs
C. 18.30 hrs
D. 17.30 hrs

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : India is a large country spanning over 30° of longitude. It is unusual in having a single time zone all over the country, 5½ hours fast. If the direction of rotation of earth is reversed then Indian Standard Time will be – 5½ hr. When it is noon the time is 12:00; that will be 6:30 A.M. in place of 17:30 P.M. or 5:30 P.M.


21. Which of the following is the International Date line?
A. Equator
B. 0° longitude
C. 90° eastern longitude
D. 180° longitude

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : 180° longitude is the International Date line.


22. Which among the following statments is true regarding International Date Line?
A. It is 180° Longitude
B. It is a straight line
C. It is a big circle
D. It is a curved line beyond Earth

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The International Date Line (IDL) is an imaginary line of longitude on the Earth’s surface located at about 180 degrees east (or west) of the Greenwich Meridian.


23. Which star is nearest to the Earth?
A. Sun
B. Alpha Centauri
C. Pole star
D. Chitra

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Sun which is also a star is the nearest star to Earth. Besides Sun, Proxima Centauri is the nearest star to the solar system. The Sun is the closest star to Earth, about 93 million miles away.


24. The time of Cairo is 2 hours ahead of Greenwich time Cairo is situated at ________
A. 27° East
B. 27° West
C. 30° East
D. 30° West

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : For every 1° longitude, there is a difference of 4 minutes
For 2 hrs, there will be a difference of 30 degrees. So the correct answer is 30 degree east as Cairo is ahead of Greenwich time.


25. The speed of rotation of the earth is the highest ________
A. Along the Equator
B. At the North Pole
C. Along the Tropic of Cancer
D. Along the Arctic Circle

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The earth rotates once every 23 hours, 56 minutes and 4.09053 seconds, called the sidereal period, and its circumference is roughly 40,075 kilometers. Thus, the surface of the earth at the equator moves at a speed of 460 meters per second – or roughly 1,000 miles per hour.


26. The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect sphere. This is because ,1. the Earth has a rotational motion and the rotational speed increases as one goes from the Poles towards the Equator.,2. the Equator experiences greater gravitational pull from the Sun.,3. the intensity of sunlight received at the Equator is greater than that at the Poles.
A. 1 only
B. 1 and 2
C. 3 only
D. 1 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Earth is an oblate spheroid and not a perfect sphere. This is because the Earth has a rotational motion and the rotational speed increases as one goes from the Poles towards the Equator and the Equator experiences greater gravitational pull from the Sun.


27. Which of the following countries are located on the Greenwich Meridian?,1. Algeria,2. Germany,3. Guinea,4. Iceland
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 1 2 and 3
D. 1 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Germany is located on the Greenwich Meridian. Germany is bordered to the north by the North Sea, Denmark , and the Baltic Sea, to the south by Austria and Switzerland , to the west by France , Belgium , The Netherlands and Luxembourg and to the east by Poland and the Czech Republic.


28. Owing to the equatorial bulge and the polar flattening, the polar radius of the earth falls short of the equatorial radius by about ________
A. 22 km
B. 36 km
C. 41 km
D. 53 km

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Owing to the equatorial bulge and the polar flattening, the polar radius of the earth falls short of the equatorial radius by about 22 km.


29. Which one of the following is the correct sequence of the given continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land?
A. North America – Africa – South America – Europe
B. Africa – North America – South America – Europe
C. North America – Africa – Europe – South America
D. Africa – North America – Europe – South America

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The correct sequence of the given Continents in the decreasing order of their percentage of Earth’s land are Africa – North America – South America – Europe.


30. What is the approximate equatorial circumference of the earth?
A. 30000 Km
B. 35000 Km
C. 40000 Km
D. 45000 Km

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The approximate equatorial circumference of the earth is 40000 km.


31. When it is 8 P.M. in Tokyo, what is the time at Panama Canal which is located at 180° W of it?
A. 4.00 P.M.
B. 8.00
C.M.
D. 12.00
E.M.

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When it is 8 P.M. in Tokyo, 8.00 A.M. is the time at Panama Canal which is located at 180° W of it. If we travel from east to west the time decreases.


32. Latitude and longitude both ________
A. Pass through poles
B. Run parallel to the equator
C. Run parallel to each other
D. Run perpendicular to each other

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Lines of longitude, called meridians, run perpendicular to lines of latitude.


33. On the 21st June, the day light is seen at the North Pole for ________
A. Zero hrs.
B. 12 hrs.
C. 18 hrs.
D. 24 hrs.

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : On June 21, the sun can be seen straight overhead along the Tropic of Cancer, while the North Pole reaches its maximum annual tilt toward the sun. As the planet rotates on its axis, areas within the Arctic Circle see the sun circle through the sky for 24 hours.


34. The Map showing the speciality of the surface of any area is called as
A. Relief Map
B. Area Map
C. Thematic Map
D. Geographic Map

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : A relief map is a map that shows the height of the land, usually by means of contours.


35. The science of drawing map is called
A. Cartography
B. Geography
C. Topology
D. Geology

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Cartography or map-making is the study and practice of crafting representations of the Earth upon a flat surface (see History of cartography), and one who makes maps is called a cartographer.


36. Which of these is the longest?
A. 0° Meridian
B. 180° E-W
C. 90° E
D. All are equal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Latitude runs from 0° at the equator to 90°N or 90°S at the poles. Lines of latitude run in an east-west direction. Longitude runs from 0° at the prime meridian to 180° east or west, halfway around the globe. All are equal.


37. The Sun shines vertically on the equator ________
A. Throughout the year
B. For six months
C. Twice a year
D. Once a year

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Equinox occurs when the sun is vertically above the equator. At this time, the sun equally illuminates the Southern and Northern hemisphere. At this time the world experiences equal day and night. Equinox occur twice a year. The months are March and September.


38. The difference in the duration of day and night increases as one moves from ________
A. West to east
B. East and west of the prime meridian
C. Poles to equator
D. Equator to poles

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : As you move from the equator towards the poles, the latitude increases (up to 90 degrees). The further you go from the equator in any direction, the difference between the duration of the day and night in different times of the year will be bigger.


39. The longest circle which can be drawn on the earth’s surface passes through ________
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Arctic Circle
D. Tropic of Capricorn

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : As you move from the equator towards the poles, the latitude increases (up to 90 degrees). The further you go from the equator in any direction, the difference between the duration of the day and night in different times of the year will be bigger.


40. The International Date Line passes through ________
A. Bering strait
B. Gibraltar strait
C. Florida strait
D. Malacca strait

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : It passes through the Bering Strait between the Diomede Islands at a distance of 1.5 kilometres (0.93 mi) from each island at 168°58′37″ W.


41. What is the name of the maps, natural and manmade, portray the large forms?
A. Thematic Maps
B. Atlas Maps
C. Graffito
D. Topographic Maps

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : They emphasize on a particular theme or topic such as average rain, climatic condition, pressure in particular months etc. These are diffirent from general maps.


42. It is six months long day in the northern polar region and six months long night in the southern polar region because ________
A. Earth is revolving around the sun
B. Earth is inclined towards its orbital plane
C. Earth is rotating
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : It is six months long day in the northern polar region and six months long night in the southern polar region because Earth is inclined towards its orbital plane.


43. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of
A. Axis of the Earth
B. Equator
C. North pole
D. South pole

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the plane of equator.


44. Which one of the following is not the effect of the revolution of the Earth.
A. Change of seasons
B. Length of days and nights
C. Determination of latitudes
D. Change in the direction of winds and ocean currents

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Our planet’s rotation produces a force on all bodies moving relative to the Earth. Due to Earth’s approximately spherical shape, this force is greatest at the poles and least at the Equator. The force, called the “Coriolis effect,” causes the direction of winds and ocean currents to be deflected.


45. At 12 noon of December 21, you observe that you cast no shadow as you stand in bright sunlight. So you must be, somewhere near ________
A. The Arctic Circle
B. The Tropic of Cancer
C. The Tropic of Capricorn
D. The South Pole

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : At 12 noon of December 21, you observe that you cast no shadow as you stand in bright sunlight. So you must be, somewhere near The Tropic of Capricorn. The Tropic of Capricorn is the circle marking the latitude 23.5 degrees south where the sun is directly overhead at noon on December 21, the beginning of winter in the northern hemisphere.


46. The revelations of a satellite photograph of the earth are as follows:,1. the Southern hemisphere bulges slightly more than the Northern hemisphere,2. it is slightly pear shaped ellipsoid of rotation,3. the polar axis of the earth is slightly shorter than the equatorial axis,4. the equatorial circumference is about 40,000km,Which of the above statements are correct ?
A. 1 2 and 3
B. 1 2 3 and 4
C. 1 2 and 4
D. 2 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The revelations of a satellite photograph of the earth are it is slightly pear shaped ellipsoid of rotation, the polar axis of the earth is slightly shorter than the equatorial axis and the equatorial circumference is about 40,000 km.


47. Tides in the sea have stored in them ________
A. Hydraulic energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. Gravitational potential energy
D. A combination of all the above three forms of energy

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tides in the sea have stored in them a combination of all the above three forms of energy.


48. Light from the Sun reaches us in nearly
A. 8 min.
B. 2 min.
C. 6 min.
D. 4 min.

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The light from the sun takes about 8 minutes to reach the Earth after it has been emitted from the sun’s surface.


49. The position of a planet when it is nearest to the Sun, is called ________
A. Perihelion
B. Apihelion
C. Apigee
D. Perigee

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The closest point to the Sun in a planet’s orbit is called perihelion. When Earth is at perihelion, it is about 147 million km (91 million miles) from the Sun.


50. How old is Earth, It is decided by which of the following processes?
A. Geologic Time Scale
B. Radiometric Dating
C. Gravity Method
D. Fossil Dating

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Earth is 4,54 billion years old. This age has been determined with the radioactive dating technique. The precise decay rate of radioactive elements is used as a clock: the number of daughter products in one rock indicates its age.


51. Why are winters more severe in Southern Hemisphere than in the Northern Hemisphere?
A. Earth is tilted towards the Sun in the Northern Hemisphere
B. Northern Hemisphere receives more sunlight
C. Because of more iceberg activity in Southern Hemisphere
D. Southern Hemisphere is less inhabited

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The seasons in the Southern Hemisphere are actually less extreme than in the Northern Hemisphere. The reason is because the Southern hemisphere has more seas, while the Northern has more land mass and land mass retains more heat.


52. When the Moon completely covers the Sun, it is known as?
A. The Antumbra
B. The Umbra
C. The Penumbra
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : During a solar eclipse, the Moon actually casts two shadows toward Earth. One shadow is called the umbra which becomes smaller as it reaches the Earth. This is the dark center of the Moon’s shadow.


53. Who Invented Universal Standard Time?
A. Enrico Fermi
B. Adolf Gaston Eugen Fick
C. Sandford Fleming
D. Benoit Fourneyron

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sandford Fleming, a Canadian engineer invented the Universal Standard Time. Sir Sandford Fleming advocated the adoption of a standard time or mean time, as well as hourly variations from that according to established time zones.


54. How many time zones has the world been divided into?
A. 15
B. 24
C. 90
D. 180

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : There are 24 time zones in the world. This signifies that the Earth is divided into 24 ‘slices’, and each time zone moves on one hour from the previous time zone and each ‘slice’, is 150 wide.


55. Which of the following pair is CORRECT?,
I. Prime Meridian – Longitude,,
II. Tropic of Cancer – Latitude,,
III. Equator – Latitude
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 2 and 3
D. All options are correct

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Four of the most significant imaginary lines running across the surface of Earth are the equator, the Tropic of Cancer, the Tropic of Capricorn, and the Prime Meridian. While the equator is the longest line of latitude on Earth (the line where Earth is widest in an east-west direction), the tropics are based on the sun’s position in relation to Earth at two points of the year. All three lines of latitude are significant in their relationship between Earth and the sun. Running in the opposite direction, north-south, the Prime Meridian is one of the most important lines of longitude on Earth.


56. The earth is at the least distance from the sun (Perihelion) on ________
A. December 22nd
B. January 3rd
C. July 4th
D. June 21st

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : On January 3, Earth reaches perihelion, its closest point to the Sun in its yearly orbit around our star.


57. The Mohorovicic (Moho) Discontinuity separates
A. Outer core and Mantle
B. Inner and Outer core
C. Sima and Nife
D. Crust and Mantle

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Mohorovicic Discontinuity lies between Crust & Mantle, the word ‘discontinuity’ used here represents the (region) where seismic waves change velocity.


58. Latitudes include 181 lines while longitudes are 360 lines because ________
A. Longitude is divided from prime meridian while latitude is from equator
B. Longitude is divided from equator while latitude is from prime meridian
C. Longitude is a line that connects North Pole to South Pole and latitude is divided from east to west
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : While longitudes are imaginary lines running from north to south pole and parallel to prime meridian. In total they are 360 in number. Longitudes are 360 and latitudes are 181.


59. The antipodal position of a place located at 35° south and 80° west is
A. 55° north and 80° East
B. 35° north and 100° East
C. 100°north and 80° East
D. 55° south and 10° East

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The antipodal position of a place located at 35° south and 80° west is 35° north and 100° East.


60. The International Dateline deflects to a side to avoid ________
A. Society islands
B. Hawaii
C. Aleutian Islands
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : International Date Line follows the meridian of 180° longitude down the middle of the Pacific Ocean for some time. In the north the date line turns to the east through the Bering Strait and then west past the Aleutian Islands in order to keep Alaska and Russia on opposite sides of the line.


61. The heavier silicates named ‘Sima’ or silica + magnesium are most abundant in the ________
A. Crust
B. Core
C. Mantle
D. Ocean floors

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The heavier silicates named as Sima or silica magnesium are most abundant in the Ocean floors.


62. The process of water getting evaporated from the surface of leaves is known as
A. Evaporation
B. Evapo-transpiration
C. Transpiration
D. Transportation

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The process of water getting evaporated from the surface of leaves is known as Transpiration.


63. What is the correct sequence of the following in the context of the age of the earth since its origin?,1. Cenozoic,2. Mesozoic,3. Palaeozoic,4. Protozoic
A. 4 3 1 2
B. 3 4 2 1
C. 3 4 1 2
D. 4 3 2 1

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The correct sequence of the following in the context of the age of the earth since its origin are Protozoic, Palaeozoic, Mesozoic and Cenozoic.


64. The shortest day in Australia will be on ________
A. 21-06-2021
B. 01-12-2022
C. 01-09-2023
D. 01-03-2021

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : On the 21st of June, 2021 just before 5 p.m. AEST, Australians will bid farewell to the shortest day for the year.


65. Which of the following statements regarding the International Date line are correct?,1. It is a longitude of 180°,2. It is determined by 180° longitude but is not a straight line,3. It is a Greenwich meridian helping in fixing time and date,4. It solves the problem of time and date among the World’s nations
A. 1 and 4
B. 3 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 2 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The statements regarding the International Date line that are correct are it is determined by 180° longitude but is not a straight line and it solves the problem of time and date among the World’s nations.


66. The desert regions of the world occupy about ________ part of the land surface of the earth.
A. 1/3
B. 1.6
C. 43132
D. None of the above

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The desert regions of the world occupy about 1/3 part of the land surface of the earth.


67. Which one of the following elements is most abundant in the earth’s crust?
A. Oxygen
B. Sulphur
C. Silicon
D. Carbon

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Oxygen is the most abundant element in the Earth’s crust. Oxygen makes up 467,100 ppm (parts per million) of the Earth’s crust, or 46.6%.


68. Antipodes are ________
A. Lines joining places having a time difference of 12 hours
B. Places diametrically opposite on earth’s surface
C. Places located at a point where degree of latitude is equal to degree of longitude
D. Lines joining places having the same depths

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Antipodes are two points that are opposite to one another on the surface of the earth and are connected by a straight line that runs through the Earth’s center.


69. The word used to describe the shape of earth is ________
A. Flat
B. Circle
C. Sphere
D. Oblate spheroid

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Oblate Spheroid is a term that has been used to describe the shape of the Earth. The Earth is not a sphere.


70. Which of these statements are correct? ,1. Earth is the fourth largest planet of the solar system,2. Earth’s circumference is about 45000 km,3. Earth’s polar diameter is about 43 km shorter than its equatorial diameter,4. Earth has a total surface area of 510 million sq.km
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 4
C. 2 and 3
D. 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The statements are correct are Earth’s polar diameter is about 43 km shorter than its equatorial diameter and Earth has a total surface area of 510 million sq.km.


71. Which planet in our solar system is nearly as big as the Earth?
A. Mercury
B. Mars
C. Venus
D. Pluto

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Venus is nearly as big as the Earth. As it is very similar to Earth in terms of size, average density, mass & surface gravity. It is also known as Earth’s twin.


72. The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends on ________
A. Its climate
B. Its latitude
C. Its longitude
D. Both (a)and (b)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The amount of insolation received at a place on the surface of the earth depends on its latitude and its climate.


73. What are the imaginary lines encircling the Earth horizontally called?
A. Latitudes
B. Longitudes
C. Isobars
D. Isotherms

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Latitude is an imaginary line around the Earth parallel to the Equator. It is the angular distance of a point on Earth’s surface from Equator.


74. An aeroplane takes off from 30° N latitude, 50° E longitude and lands at the opposite end of the earth. Where does it land?
A. 30° N Lat. 50° W Long
B. 30° S Lat. 130° W Long
C. 50° N Lat. 30° W Long
D. 30° N Lat. 130°W Long

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : An aeroplane takes off from 30° N latitude, 50° E longitude and lands at the opposite end of the earth. It will land 30° S Lat., 130° W Long.


75. Which one of the following is present in the largest amount in terms of percent by mass in the earth’s crust?
A. Silicon
B. Oxygen
C. Carbon
D. Calcium

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Oxygen is by far the most abundant element in the earth’s crust. Scientists estimate oxygen comprises nearly half of the mass of the crust. It also accounts for 21 percent of Earth’s atmosphere.


76. One degree of the circumference of the earth measures(approx.) ________
A. 100km
B. 111km
C. 151km
D. 175km

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One degree of the circumference of the earth measures(approx) 111 km.


77. Days and nights are caused by :,1. rotation of the earth on its axis,2. revolution of the earth around the sun,3. inclination of the earth’s axis
A. Only 1 is correct
B. 1 and 2 are correct
C. 2 and 3 are correct
D. All are correct

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Earth’s rotation is the rotation of Planet Earth around its own axis. Earth rotates eastward, in prograde motion. As viewed from the north pole star Polaris, Earth turns counter clockwise.


78. The Earth rotates on its axis at an inclination of
A. 23.5°
B. 22.5°
C. 21.5°
D. 20.0°

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Earth has seasons because our planet’s axis of rotation is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees relative to our orbital plane – the plane of Earth’s orbit around the sun.


79. If a solar eclipse occurs when the moon is quite far from the earth, the eclipse would likely to be ________
A. Total
B. Partial
C. Annular
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : An annular solar eclipse (left) occurs when the Moon is too far away to completely cover the Sun’s disk.


80. Which of the following best describes longitude?
A. An imaginary line joining north and south poles
B. The distance between a place east or west of the Greenwich Meridian
C. The angular distance east or west of the Greenwich meridian
D. The position of a place on earth’s surface with reference to the Prime Meridian

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : It is an angular measurement, usually expressed in degrees and denoted by the Greek letter lambda (λ). The longitude of other places is measured as the angle east or west from the Prime Meridian, ranging from 0° at the Prime Meridian to +180° eastward and −180° westward.


81. Bridgmanite is
A. A bridge on the river Thames
B. Name of a game
C. Earth’s most abundant mineral
D. Name of a music

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Bridgmanite is the most abundant mineral in the mantle. The proportions of bridgmanite and calcium perovskite depends on the overall lithology and bulk composition.


82. Lunar eclipse is caused when the ________
A. Moon comes between the sun and the earth
B. Earth comes between the sun and the moon
C. Sun comes between the earth and moon
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When Earth passes directly between Sun and Moon, its shadow creates a lunar eclipse. Lunar eclipses can only happen when the Moon is opposite the Sun in the sky, a monthly occurrence we know as a full Moon.


83. Which one of the following is the time required for the Earth to return to a given point in its orbit with reference to fixed star, called?
A. Lunar year
B. Solar year
C. Tropical year
D. Sideral year

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sidereal time is time measured with respect to the apparent motion of the ‘fixed’ stars in the sky due to the Earth’s rotation.


84. Which of the following is not an effect produced by rotation of earth?
A. It causes days and nights
B. All heavenly bodies like sun moon planets appear to move from East to West
C. Winds change their directions
D. Poles have days and nights of 6 months duration

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The earth is tilted on its axis, because of which very poor sunlight is allowed to reach the north and south poles. When the north pole is tilted towards the sun,it experiences continuous day light for six months. And when the pole is tilted on the other side, it experiences continuous night for six months.


85. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through
A. India
B. Pakistan
C. Bangladesh
D. Myanmar

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : In Asia, Tropic of Cancer passes through Myanmar, Oman, Bangladesh, India, Saudi Arabia, China, United Arab Emirates and Taiwan. Hence, The Tropic of cancer does not pass through Pakistan.


86. The earth rotates around its axis from ________
A. North to south
B. East to west
C. South to north
D. West to east

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Earth rotates eastward, in prograde motion. As viewed from the north pole star Polaris, Earth turns counter clockwise. The North Pole, also known as the Geographic North Pole or Terrestrial North Pole, is the point in the Northern Hemisphere where Earth’s axis of rotation meets its surface.


87. Days and nights are similar here
A. Poles
B. Main time zone
C. Antarctica
D. Equator

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Equator is exactly halfway in between the poles. So it wouldn’t make any sense for a day on the equator to be longer when one of the poles is tilted towards the Sun, and shorter when the other one is. The days and nights remain equal here throughout the year.


88. If the earth’s axis had not been inclined:,I. temperature distribution would have been uniform,II. days and nights would not have occurred,III. seasons would not have occurred,IV. poles would not have a continuous day
A. I III and IV
B. II and IV
C. III and IV
D. II III and IV

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : If the earth’s axis had not been inclined the seasons would not have occurred and poles would not have a continuous day.


89. The sun is never overhead at any time in :,I. North Temperate Zone,II. South Temperate Zone,III. North Frigid Zone,IV. Torrid Zone
A. III only
B. I II and III
C. II and III
D. I II III and IV

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The sun is never overhead at any time in the North Temperate Zone, South Temperate Zone and North Frigid Zone.


90. Day and night are formed
A. Due to the shape of the orbit of Earth
B. Due to the motion of revolution
C. Due to the speed of rotaion
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The earth revolves round the sun and rotates round its own axis. The rotation of the earth causes day and night.


91. The International Date Line makes slight deviation from 180° meridian so that it ________
A. Divides the land masses under the same administration
B. Does not divide the Bering strait
C. Does not divide a group of islands under the same administration
D. Divides the Pacific Ocean into two equal halves

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The International Date Line isn’t a fixed line at all, but actually sort of follows the 180° longitude line, zigzagging its way through a bunch of small islands, territories and nations.


92. Latitude of place is indicative of its ________
A. Time
B. Altitude
C. Amount of rainfall
D. Temperature

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Latitude affects temperature. One of the primary factors affecting the unequal heating of the Earth’s atmosphere is latitude. Latitude is the measurement of the distance of a location on the Earth from the equator. The further away from the equator that a location resides, the less sunlight that this location receives.


93. Dolomite is a/an
A. Sedimentary rock
B. Plutonic rock
C. Igneous rock
D. Metamorphic rock

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Dolomite, also known as “dolostone” and “dolomite rock,” is a sedimentary rock composed primarily of the mineral dolomite, CaMg(CO3)2. Dolomite is found in sedimentary basins worldwide. It is thought to form by the postdepositional alteration of lime mud and limestone by magnesium-rich groundwater.


94. Which one of the following has geographical position of 0 degree latitude and 0 degree longitude?
A. In the South Atlantic Ocean
B. In the Mediterranean Sea
C. In Ghana a West African-country
D. At Greenwich Observatory in England

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Null Island is a name for the area around the point where the prime meridian and the equator cross, located in the Gulf of Guinea (South Atlantic Ocean) off the west African coast. It has geographical position of 0 degree latitude and 0 degree longitude


95. What is the approximate circumference of Earth?
A. 40000 Km
B. 60000 Km
C. 80000 Km
D. 100000 Km

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The circumference of the Earth in kilometers is 40,000 km(approx).


96. ‘Green House Effect’ means ________
A. Pollution in houses in tropical regions
B. Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric oxygen
C. Trapping of solar energy due to atmospheric carbon dioxide
D. Cultivation in green houses so as to check pollution

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The greenhouse effect is a natural process that warms the Earth’s surface. When the Sun’s energy reaches the Earth’s atmosphere, some of it is reflected back to space and the rest is absorbed and re-radiated by greenhouse gases.


97. Tides are caused by the gravitational forces of
A. Of Earth on Moon
B. Of Earth on Sun
C. Of Sun and Moon on Earth
D. Of Moon on Earth

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gravity is one major force that creates tides. In 1687, Sir Isaac Newton explained that ocean tides result from the gravitational attraction of the sun and moon on the oceans of the earth.


98. What is the alternate name for contour lines?
A. Isopotential
B. Isotherm
C. Isohypse
D. Isohyet

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Isohypse is an imaginary line connecting points (places) at equal heights & equal barometric pressures which is similar to contours which connects places of equal height.


99. 1-degree of latitude is equal to
A. 11 Km
B. 211 Km
C. 111 Km
D. 311 Km

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : At the equator, the length of 1o of latitude is equal to 110.6 km (68.7 mi.) and at the poles, the length of 1o of latitude is equal to 111.7 km (69.4 mi.). For our purposes, we assume the length of one degree of latitude is 111 km. Lines of longitude, also called meridians, run north – south.


100. Equinox occurs when the Sun is vertically above
A. Tropic of Capricorn
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Poles
D. Equator

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : It is the moment at which the center of the visible Sun is directly above the Equator. In the northern hemisphere, the equinox in March is called the Vernal or Spring Equinox; the September equinox is called the Autumnal or Fall Equinox.


101. Choose the incorrect statement
A. All meridians are of the same length
B. The axis of the earth is inclined at an angle of to the horizontal
C. The Sun’s rays are vertical at all places on the days of the equinoxes
D. The summer solstice for the Southern Hemisphere is in December

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The statement that is incorrect is The Sun’s rays are vertical at all places on the days of the equinoxes. This position is called the ‘Winter Solstice’. On September 23, the Sun’s rays fall vertically on the Equator. As a result, on this day the Sun illuminates the Northern and Southern Hemispheres equally, making the days and nights of approximately equal length all over the Earth.


102. Which of the following statements is/are correct?,1. A crossing of the International Date Line entails repeating one day when traveling westwards,2. A crossing of the International Date Line entails repeating one day when traveling eastwards,3. International Date Line is an internationally agreed line drawn parallel to the 180° meridian,4. International Date Line divides the Pacific Ocean into two equal parts.
A. 2 alone
B. 2 3 and 4
C. 1 alone
D. 1 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The following statements that are correct are A crossing of the International Date Line entails repeating one day when traveling eastwards, International Date Line is an internationally agreed line drawn parallel to the 180° meridian and International Date Line divides the Pacific Ocean into two equal parts.


103. What is the meaning of “Midnight Sun”?
A. Evening light
B. Rising Sun
C. Very bright Moon
D. Shining of Sun in Arctic and Antarctica circle

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The midnight sun is a natural phenomenon that occurs in the summer months in places north of the Arctic Circle or south of the Antarctic Circle, when the Sun remains visible at the local midnight.


104. What is the interval between a high tide and low tide at a given place?
A. 12 hours
B. 12 hours 26 minutes
C. 15 hours 30 minutes
D. 24 hours

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The difference between high tide & low tide at a given place is about 12 hrs. 26 min. Neap tides occur when the sun, earth and moon form a right angle and the gravitational pull of the sun counteracts the pull of the moon.


105. The longitudinal, transverse and surface waves in an earthquake originate from
A. The focus within the body of the earth
B. The epicentre on the surface of the earth
C. The focus on the surface of the earth
D. The epicentre within the body of the earth

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The longitudinal, transverse and surface waves in an earthquake originate from The focus within the body of the earth. The point where the energy is released is called the focus of an earthquake, alternatively, it is called the hypocentre. The energy waves travelling in different directions reach the surface. The point on the surface, nearest to the focus, is called epicentre. It is the first one to experience the waves. It is a point directly above the focus.


106. ________ is the time taken by the Earth to return to a given point in its orbit with reference to a fixed star.
A. Lunar year
B. Sidereal year
C. Solar year
D. Tropical year

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Because, for all intents and purposes, the sky is “fixed”, a sidereal day is when the earth rotates 360°. A sidereal day is 23 hours 56 minutes and 4.09 seconds long. A sidereal year is the time it takes for the sun to return to the same position with respect to the stars.


107. Which of the following is/are true of world time zones?,I. The world is divided into thirty time zones,II. All time zones of the world are described in term of the number of hours difference between the standard meridian of that zone and the Greenwich Meridian,III. All countries have more than one time zone,IV. The time for all places east of Greenwich is designated slow, and time for all places left of Greenwich is designated fast
A. I II III and IV
B. II and IV
C. I III and IV
D. II only

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : All time zones of the world are described in term of the number of hours difference between the standard meridian of that zone and the Greenwich Meridian. Each of Earth’s 24 zones is one hour earlier then the one east of it, which equates to about 15 degrees longitude for each. Although this is the general rule, there’s not always a one hour difference between each time zone. Some countries have adopted a non-standard time, which may include a 30 or 45 minute offset.


108. Equator is
A. Line which connects north and south poles
B. Imaginary line which rotates around the Earth in the centre of north and south poles
C. The girdle around the Saturn
D. Axis of the rotation of the Earth

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : An equator of a rotating spheroid is its zeroth circle of latitude. It is the imaginary line on the spheroid’s surface, equidistant from its poles, dividing it into northern and southern hemispheres.


109. Through which one of the following countries the Tropic of Cancer does not pass through?
A. Bangladesh
B. China
C. Myanmar
D. Nepal

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through Nepal.


110. Of the total volume of the earth, which layer forms the major part ?
A. Sial
B. Sima
C. Mantle
D. Core

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Core forms the major part of the total volume of earth. The innermost layer, forming the metallic centre of the Earth. Core of the Earth is like a dense magnetic ball of minerals (Iron & Nickel). Hence, it is also called NIFE (NI – Nickel & Fe – Ferrous Magnesium i.e Iron). Temperature increases at the rate of 1 degree Celsius for every 32 meters of depth.


111. Due to gravity, acceleration at the Equator is
A. Less than acceleration on poles
B. More than acceleration on poles
C. Equal to acceleration on poles
D. Not dependant on the centrifugal acceleration of Earth

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Due to gravity, acceleration at the Equator is less than acceleration on poles. It is because the equatorial distance is more than the polar distance and this is because of the shape of Earth as we know that the earth is a sphere so the the polar radius is less as compared to equatorial radius.


112. On which date is India likely to experience the shortest day?
A. 22nd December
B. 21st June
C. 3rd January
D. 23rd March

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : We know India lies in the Northern Hemisphere as it lies above the Equator. The shortest day in the Northern Hemisphere is on December 22nd, when the Sun is directly overhead the tropic of Capricorn.


113. When does the Sun shine vertically on the Equator?
A. Throughout the year
B. For six months
C. Twice a year
D. Once a year

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : When the sun shines vertically over the equator then it is known as equinox. Twice, on the March equinox (typically around March 21) and on the September equinox (typically around September 22).


114. Through which one of the following groups of countries does the Equator pass?
A. Brazil Zambia and Malaysia
B. Colombia Kenya and Indonesia
C. Brazil Sudan and Malaysia
D. Venezuela Ethiopia and Indonesia

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Among the following equator pass through Colombia, Kenya and Indonesia. The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.


115. When it is 12.00 noon at Delhi (77° 10’E), people at another place on earth take their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of that place is ________
A. 17°30′ E
B. 12°50′ W
C. 172°30′ E
D. 17°E

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When it is 12.00 noon at Delhi (77° 10’E), people at another place on earth take their 6 o’clock morning tea. The longitude of that place is 12°50′ W.


116. When and where did the concept of the Earth Hour started?
A. June 2007 in Christchurch New Zealand
B. May 2009 in Colombo Srilanka
C. April 2008 in Tokyo Japan
D. March 2007 in Sydney Australia

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The 2007 Earth Hour was held on March 31 in Sydney, Australia at 7:30 pm, local time. Since then it has grown to engage more than 180 countries and territories worldwide.


117. The Moon is showing its same face to the Earth because
A. It is not rotating about its own axis
B. Its rotation and revolution are opposite
C. Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same
D. Its rotation is faster than its revolution

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Moon is showing its same face to the Earth because Its periods of rotation and revolution are the same. The moon keeps the same face pointing towards the Earth because its rate of spin is tidally locked so that it is synchronized with its rate of revolution (the time needed to complete one orbit). In other words, the moon rotates exactly once every time it circles the Earth.


118. The permanent tilt of the earth’s axis and the revolution of the earth in its orbit together cause:,I. deflection of winds and ocean currents,II. differences in time between places on different meridians,III. varying length of day and night at different times of the year,IV. changes in the altitude of the mid-day sun at different times of the year
A. II III and IV
B. I and IV
C. III and IV
D. I II and III

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The permanent tilt of the earth’s axis and the revolution of the earth in its orbit together cause the varying length of day and night at different times of the year and changes in the altitude of the mid-day sun at different times of the year.


119. Which of the following pairs is wrong?
A. Isohyet – Humidity
B. Isobar – Pressure
C. IsohaleSun – light
D. Isotherm – Temperature

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : An isohyet is a line on a map which connects points that have the same amounts of precipitation in a given period or for a particular storm. An isohyet is a form of map contour line displaying precipitation.


120. The word “Isoneph” represents the lines of equal
A. Cloudiness
B. Salinity
C. Rain
D. Pressure

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The word “Isoneph” represents the lines of equal Cloudiness. An imaginary line connecting places which have similar amount of cloudiness for a given period of time is, Isoneph.


121. Which part of the earth’s surface receives the highest amount of insolation?
A. Tropical deserts
B. Equatorial region
C. Savanna region
D. No such criteria

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Tropical deserts of the earth’s surface receives the highest amount of insolation. Maximum insolation is received over the subtropical deserts, where the cloudiness is the least.


122. All the watches of a country are set according to ________
A. Local time
B. Standard time of the country
C. Greenwich mean time
D. Time of sunrise and sunset

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : All the watches of a country are set according to standard time of the country. Because the same standard time for the whole country has been adopted, the watches show the same time in all parts of the country.


123. Maximum difference in the spacing of longitudes is ________
A. At poles
B. At equator
C. At tropics
D. At arctic circle

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Maximum difference in the spacing of longitudes is at equator. At the equator, the distance between two latitudes and two longitudes is 111.1 kms.


124. When rain falls through a cold layer of air near the Earth’s surface, raindrops get frozen into ice. This type of precipitation is called
A. Hail
B. Snowfall
C. Snowstorm
D. Sleet

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sleet is rain or melted snow that freezes into ice pellets before hitting the ground. When rain falls through a cold layer of air near the Earth’s surface, raindrops get frozen into ice. This type of precipitation is called Sleet.


125. Suppose if we measure the time lapse between the two Sunsets by sitting in the beach, from this we can estimate
A. The distance between the Sun and the Earth
B. The depth of the ocean
C. The radius of the Earth
D. The radius of the Sun

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : You could simply lie down on a beach, watch the sun set once, and could quickly stand up once the last bit goes down, to see it go down again. In fact, if you carefully calculate the time difference between these 2 sunsets using a stopwatch, and take the length of your body into account, you could actually calculate (estimate) the radius of the earth.


126. The alignment of the lines of beginning and end is expressed by
A. Dentate
B. Feasibility
C. Record
D. Font

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The alignment of the lines of beginning and end is expressed by feasibility. A feasibility report is a document that assesses potential solutions to the business problem or opportunity, and determines which of these are viable for further analysis.


127. If a place is located at 20°N, 80°E in which of the following continents does it lie?
A. Africa
B. Asia
C. Europe
D. North America

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : If a place is located at 20°N, 80°E it lies in Asia continent. The 20th parallel north is a circle of latitude that is 20 degrees north of the Earth’s equatorial plane. It crosses Africa, Asia, the Indian Ocean, the Pacific Ocean, North America, the Caribbean and the Atlantic Ocean.


128. The sunlight is available 24 hours on the longest day at which of the following latitudes of the Earth?
A. 49°
B. 66.5°
C. 63°
D. 69.51°

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The sunlight is available 24 hours on the longest day at 66.5°.


129. The tide at its maximum height is known as ________
A. Equinox
B. Neap tide
C. Spring tide
D. Tsunami

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The tide at its maximum height is known as Spring tide. A spring tide popularly known as a “King Tide” refers to the ‘springing forth’ of the tide during new and full moon.


130. A one-day Cricket match between India and England starts at 10.00 A.M. in London. The direct telecast of the match will begin in India at ________
A. 3.30
B.M.
C. 8.30
D.M.
E. 3.30 P.M.

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A one-day Cricket match between India and England starts at 10.00 A.M. in London 3.30 P.M. The direct telecast of the match will begin in India at India is 5 hours and 30 minutes ahead of London, UK.


131. Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the
A. Earth on the Moon
B. Earth on the Sun
C. Sun and Moon on the Earth
D. Moon on the Earth

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tides are caused by the gravitational pull of the Sun and Moon on the Earth. Due to gravitational effect of Sun & Moon on Earth, the water in the oceans tends to rise causing tides in nearby coastal areas.


132. The phenomenon of an opening occurring in the Earth’s surface through which a Jet of hot water and steam is forced out at irregular intervals is called
A. Hot spring
B. Geyser
C. Cyclone
D. Volcano

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The phenomenon of an opening occurring in the Earth’s surface through which a Jet of hot water and steam is forced out at irregular intervals is called Geyser. Geyser (Icelandic for “gusher”) is the name of an erupting flow of heated water from the ground in Iceland.


133. The core of the Earth is made up of ________
A. Mainly of iron in the liquid form
B. Mainly of nickel in the liquid form
C. Both iron and silica in the liquid form
D. Both iron and magnesium in the plastic state

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The core of the Earth is made up of both iron and magnesium in the plastic state. The core of the earth have two parts inner core and outer core. Above the inner core is the outer core, a shell of liquid iron.


134. Gravitational force is maximum at which of the following place?
A. At Equator
B. At Tropic of Cancer
C. At Tropic of Capricorn
D. At Poles

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Gravitational force is maximum at Poles. The gravitational force is almost equal in every where in the earth. The resultant force is maximum in pole. Since earth is rotating there is centrifugal force and due to this force is maximum at poles.


135. The Equator does not pass through which of the following?
A. Kenya
B. Mexico
C. Indonesia
D. Brazil

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Equator does not pass through Mexico. The equator passes through 13 countries: Ecuador, Colombia, Brazil, Sao Tome & Principe, Gabon, Republic of the Congo, Democratic Republic of the Congo, Uganda, Kenya, Somalia, Maldives, Indonesia and Kiribati.


136. The instrument to measure the area on maps is called
A. Planimeter
B. Ideograph
C. Pantograph
D. Opisometer

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Planimeter also called platometer, it is an instrument used to measure an area of two dimensional shapes. eg. Area of maps.


137. On Monday, the 14th June, a man crosses the International Date Line at 5 p.m. from the Asian side to the American side. Which of the following will he now assume to be the correct date and time?
A. 5 a.m. of Tuesday the 15th June
B. 5 p.m. of Tuesday the 15th June
C. 5 a.m. of Monday the 14th June
D. 5 p.m. of Sunday the 13th June

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : On Monday, the 14th June, a man crosses the International Date Line at 5 p.m. from the Asian side to the American side, time will be 5 p.m. of Sunday, the 13th June. The International Date Line is located halfway around the world from the prime meridian (0° longitude) or about 180° east (or west) of Greenwich, London, UK, the reference point of time zones. It is also known as the line of demarcation.


138. At neap tide:,1. the sun and moon exert their force at right angles,2. the tidal amplitude is high,3. the low tides are very low
A. 1
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 2
D. 1 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : A neap tide seven days after a spring tide refers to a period of moderate tides when the sun and moon are at right angles to each other.


139. What are the imaginary lines touching both the poles of Earth called?
A. Latitudes
B. Longitudes
C. Isobars
D. Isotherms

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Latitude is based on an imaginary line that circles Earth halfway between the north and south poles. Longitude refers to imaginary lines running vertically on the globe that bisect it through the North and the South Poles. Longitudes are angular distances measured from the Prime Meridian.


140. When it is nine o’clock in London, it will be the same time in ________
A. Ghana
B. Babon
C. Latvia
D. Norway

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : There is no time difference between London, UK and Ghana. When it is nine o’clock in London, it will be the same time in Ghana.


141. Which of the following Isohels are the isopleths of
A. Sunshine
B. Flowering time
C. Rain
D. Clouds

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Isohels are the imaginary lines connecting places where Sunlight falls for same duration & isopleths are the imaginery lines connecting places with equal incidence of meteorological phenomenon. So, Sunlight’s observed duration would remain equal at places where the Sun can be observe equally.


142. The incoming short-wave solar radiation is balanced by an equal amount of long-wave radiation from earth going back to space. This is known as ________
A. Earth radiation
B. Wave balance of earth
C. Heat balance of earth
D. Radiation exchange

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The incoming short-wave solar radiation is balanced by an equal amount of long-wave radiation from earth going back to space. This is known as Heat balance of earth. The earth-atmosphere energy balance is the balance between incoming energy from the Sun and outgoing energy from the Earth.


143. The imaginary lines joining places of same height at equal intervals are
A. Hachures
B. Contours
C. Spot-heights
D. Isomers

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Imaginary lines joining places of same height at equal intervals are contour lines. These are the closed loops used to showcase the similar hight point.


144. Which of the following layers of the earth is believed to have the heaviest mineral materials of highest density ?
A. Central core
B. Crust
C. Mantle
D. Both (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The layers of the earth that is believed to have the heaviest mineral materials of highest density is Central core. Earth’s core is the very hot, very dense center of our planet. The ball-shaped core lies beneath the cool, brittle crust and the mostly-solid mantle.


145. There is a continual daylight or summer in the Arctic regions from ________
A. 22nd December to 21st March
B. 21st March to 21st June
C. 21st March to 23rd September
D. 21st June to 22nd December

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : There is a continual daylight or summer in the Arctic regions from 21st March to 23rd September.


146. The surface of Earth that lies between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn is called ________
A. North Temperate Zone
B. Frigid Zone
C. South Temperate Zone
D. Torrid Zone

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The torrid zone refers to the area of the earth between the Tropic of Cancer and the Tropic of Capricorn.


147. Spring tides occur when ________
A. The moon is nearest to the earth
B. The moon is farthest from the earth
C. The moon the sun and the earth are at right angles with the earth at the apex
D. The moon the sun and the earth are in the same line

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : When the sun and the moon are in line with each other, they pull the ocean’s surface in the same direction. This causes higher high tides and lower low tides. This is known as Spring tides.


148. In which of the following areas, the “Midnight Sun” can be seen?
A. In tropical areas
B. In temperate areas
C. Arctic and Antarctica circle
D. Anywhere during solar eclipse

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Midnight Sun is a name given the sun when it can be seen at midnight during the Arctic or Antarctic summer. This phenomenon occurs in summer months in places north of Arctic or south of Antarctic circle when Sun is visible in this region during mid night hours also.


149. Which one of the following cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant?
A. London (UK)
B. Lisbon (Portugal)
C. Accra (Ghana)
D. Addis Ababa (Ethiopia)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Addis Ababa (Ethiopia) cities does not have the same clock time as that of the other three cities at any given instant.


150. Which of the following pairs is not correctly matched?
A. 66° 33′ N latitude – Arctic Circle
B. 180°E or 180°W longitude- International Date Line
C. 23° 20′ N latitude – Tropic of Cancer
D. 0° E or 0°W longitude – Equator

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The Equator is the line of 0 degrees latitude. Each parallel measures one degree north or south of the Equator, with 90 degrees north of the Equator and 90 degrees south of the Equator. The latitude of the North Pole is 90 degrees N, and the latitude of the South Pole is 90 degrees S.


151. Isobar lines show
A. Pressure
B. Rain
C. Depth
D. Time

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : A line drawn on a weather map connecting points of equal pressure is called an isobar. Isobars are generated from mean sea level pressure reports and are given in millibars.


152. Which of the following statement is correct?
A. Air capacity of vaporization reduces with the rise in the temperature of air.
B. Atmospheric pressure reduces due to rise in temperature.
C. Relative humidity is denoted in gram per cubic meter of air.
D. Temperature decreases 10?C at every 165 height

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Air pressure is the weight of air molecules pressing down on you. Inhabitants on Earth’s surface bear the weight of all the air molecules in the atmosphere. At higher altitudes, air pressure decreases because there are fewer air molecules pressing down from above and temperature increases compared with the air pressure at sea level.


153. Evidence suggests that life on Earth has existed for about ________.
A. 3.5 million years
B. 35 billion years
C. 35 million years
D. 3.5 billion years

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Evidence suggests that life on Earth has existed for about 3.5 billion years. The earliest known fossils on Earth date from 3.5 billion years ago and there is evidence that biological activity took place even earlier – just at the end of the period of late heavy bombardment.


154. What is the correct sequence of the following layers of the Earth as one moves from the surface to the interior:,1. Mantle,2. Crust,3. Core,Select the correct answer by using the codes given below
A. 1 2 3
B. 1 3 2
C. 2 1 3
D. 3 1 2

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The structure of the earth’s interior is made up of several concentric layers. Broadly three layers can be identified—crust, mantle and the core.


155. Which one of the following organisations is responsible for publishing topographical sheets?
A. Geological Survey of India (G.S.I.)
B. National Atlas ; Thematic Mapping Organisation (N.
C.T.M.O.)
D. Indian Meteorological Department (I.M.
E.)

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Survey of India (S.O.I.) have tremendously rendered their services to the Government of India to bring out various types of maps for publication by Survey of India. It is responsible for publishing topographical sheets.


156. Which of the statements given are correct? ,1. Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator.,2. Coriolis effect is more towards the Poles.,3. Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes.,4. Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes.
A. 1 2 and 3
B. 1 and 3 only
C. 1 2 and 4
D. 2 and 5 only

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The statements that are correct are Coriolis effect is zero at the Equator, Coriolis effects are related to the decreasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes and Coriolis effects are related to the increasing rotational velocity with increasing latitudes.


157. If the difference in time between, two places were 2 hours and 20 minutes, then the difference in their longitudes would be ________
A. 30°
B. 35°
C. 40°
D. 45°

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : If the difference in time between, two places were 2 hours and 20 minutes, then the difference in their longitudes would be 35°. The time difference between each longitude (each degree) is 4 minutes. So if it is 12 noon at Greenwich (0 degree), it would be 12:04 pm at 1 degree meridian and so on.


158. The South Pole experiences continuous light at ________
A. Summer solstice
B. Winter solstice
C. Vernal equinox
D. No time

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The South Pole experiences a natural phenomena known as the Winter Solstice, also known as December Solstice. It happens when the Earth’s axes is tiled closest to the sun from the Southern Hemisphere but farthest from the sun from the Northern hemisphere. During this day, the South Pole experiences the longest day light while the North Pole experienced the least. It occurs between 20-23 of December every year.


159. Sea tides show variations because of ________
A. Variations in gravitational pull of the moon
B. Variations in gravitational pull of the sun
C. Distorted spherical shape of the earth
D. Different phases of the moon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Sea tides show variations because of Different phases of the moon. Since the moon moves around the Earth, it is not in the same place at the same time each day. So, each day, the times for high and low tides change by 50 minutes.


160. When it is 12:00 noon in India, the time in San Francisco (USA) would be closed to ________
A. 11 : 30 p.m.
B. 11 : 30 p.m. of previous day
C. 8 : 30 p.m.
D. 8 : 30 p. m. of previous day

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : When it is 12:00 noon in India, the time in San Francisco (USA) would be closed to 8 : 30 p. m. of previous day. India is 12 hours and 30 minutes ahead of San Francisco, CA, USA.


161. Which among the following imaginary line lies at 0° latitude?
A. Equator
B. Tropic of Cancer
C. Tropic of Capricorn
D. Prime Meridian

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Imaginary line lies at 0° latitude is Equator. Zero degrees latitude is the line designating the Equator and divides the Earth into two equal hemispheres (north and south).


162. Lunar eclipse occurs on ________
A. New moon
B. Full moon
C. Half moon
D. Quarter moon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : An eclipse of the Moon (or lunar eclipse) can only occur at Full Moon, and only if the Moon passes through some portion of Earth’s shadow.


163. What can be the maximum duration of totality for a solar eclipse?
A. 12.5 minutes
B. 7 minutes 40 seconds
C. 1 hour 40 seconds
D. There is no maximum duration

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The maximum theoretical duration for a total solar eclipse is 7 min 40 sec.


164. If it is 4 P.M. on Monday at 150°W, what will be the time at 150°E ?
A. 4 a.m. on Tuesday
B. 4 p.m. on Tuesday
C. 4 p.m. on Sunday
D. 12 Noon on Tuesday

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : If it is 4 P.M. on Monday at 150°W, 12 Noon on Tuesday will be the time at 150°E.


165. The network of the series of vertical and horizontal lines is known as
A. Latitude
B. Geid System
C. Longitude
D. Geographical Coordinates System

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The network of the series of vertical and horizontal lines is known as Geographical Coordinates System. There are 2 co-ordinate values for a point latitude and longitude. A geographic coordinate system (GCS) uses a three-dimensional spherical surface to define locations on the earth. A GCS is often incorrectly called a datum, but a datum is only one part of a GCS. A GCS includes an angular unit of measure, a prime meridian, and a datum (based on a spheroid).


166. At the summer solstice, which one of the following latitudes will have the longest night?
A. 45°N
B. 45°S
C. 60°N
D. 60°S

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : At the summer solstice, which one of the following latitudes will have the longest night 60°S. The summer solstice, also known as midsummer, occurs when one of the Earth’s poles has its maximum tilt toward the Sun.


167. The most abundant metal in the Earth’s Crust is
A. Zinc
B. Copper
C. Aluminium
D. Iron

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Aluminum is the third most abundant element in Earth’s crust. Aluminum does not exist as a lone element, and it is found as a compound. Abundant compounds of Aluminum include aluminum oxide, aluminum hydroxide, and potassium aluminum sulfate.


168. Tides are complied and they vary from place to place because of ________
A. The movement of Moon in relation to Earth
B. Uneven distribution of water over the globe
C. Irregularities in the configuration of oceans
D. All of the above

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Tides are complied and they vary from place to place because of The movement of Moon in relation to Earth, Uneven distribution of water over the globe and Irregularities in the configuration of oceans.


169. Which of the followings are related with “Lithosphere”?
A. Plant and Insect
B. Earth’s Interior
C. Earth’s Crust
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The word lithosphere is made up of two words i.e. litho and sphere. ‘Litho’, means crust (rock) solid. Thus the term ‘Lithosphere’ signifies Earth crust. Earth’s lithosphere includes the crust and the uppermost mantle, which constitute the hard and rigid outer layer of the Earth.


170. During Lunar eclipse, which of the following is at the centre?
A. Earth
B. Moon
C. Sun
D. Any other planet

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Lunar eclipse takes place when Moon passes through the shadow of Earth i.e. Earth comes between Sun and Moon. Apartial eclipse occurs if only a part of Moon passes through the shadow.


171. The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is called ________
A. Barysphere
B. Mesophere
C. Mohorovic discontinuity
D. Asthenosphere

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The upper part of the mantle upon which the crust of the Earth floats is called Asthenosphere. The layer below the rigid lithosphere is a zone of asphalt-like consistancy called the Asthenosphere.


172. After Sun, which is the closest star to the Earth?
A. Vega
B. Sirius
C. Proxima centauri
D. Alpha centauri

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Proxima Centauri is the nearest star to the solar system. Proxima Centauri is about 4.22 light-years from Earth and is the closest star other than the sun.


173. Low tides are
A. Strong
B. Weak
C. Moderate
D. Very Weak

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Low tides are 20% lower than normal tides. Low tides occur in locations at 90 degree angles to the moon. Low tides are weak.


174. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
A. 0° longitude – Prime Meridian
B. 0° longitude – Equator
C. 0° latitude – Equator
D. 23.5° North – Tropic of Cancer

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Zero degrees longitude is an imaginary line known as the Prime Meridian.


175. Masses of stars and galaxies are usually expressed in ________.
A. Earth’s mass
B. Solar mass
C. Lunar mass
D. Neutron mass

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Masses of stars and galaxies are usually expressed in Solar mass. The solar mass ( M ) is a standard unit of mass in astronomy, equal to approximately 2×1030 kg.


176. The point in the orbit of a moon that is farthest from the Earth and at which the moon’s velocity is at a minimum, the known as ________
A. Apehelion
B. Apogee
C. Umbra
D. Perihelion

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The point in the orbit of a moon that is farthest from the Earth and at which the moon’s velocity is at a minimum, the known as Apogee. The point in the Moon’s orbit that is closest to the Earth is called the Perigee and the point farthest from the Earth is known as the Apogee.


177. The Contour line is those imaginary line which show?
A. Areas of similar atmospheric pressure
B. Areas of similar temperature
C. Areas of similar height
D. Equal Sunning areas

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A contour line represents an imaginary line on the ground, above or below sea level. All points on the contour line are at the same elevation. The elevation represented by contour lines is the vertical distance above or below sea level.


178. Magnetic Meridian is a
A. Line parallel to the equator of the Earth
B. Latitude
C. Line joining the geographic north and geographic south of Earth
D. Plane passing through the magnetic north and magnetic south of Earth

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Magnetic meridian is nothing but the vertical plane which passes through the axis of a freely suspended magnet. The direction of Earth’s magnetic field may not be horizontal and lies in the magnetic meridian. Magnetic meridian is an equivalent imaginary line connecting the magnetic south and north poles and can be taken as the horizontal component of magnetic force.


179. The location of a place A is at 60° E longitude and 30° S latitude while the location of B is at 60° E longitude and 45° N latitude. Time at B will be ________
A. Half an hour behind A
B. Half an hour ahead of A
C. Half an hour ahead or behind that of A
D. The same as that of A

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The location of a place A is at 60° E longitude and 30° S latitude while the location of B is at 60° E longitude and 45° N latitude. Time at B will be the same as that of A.


180. Variation in duration of day and night is due to:,1. rotation of earth on its axis,2. revolution of earth around the sun,3. inclination of earth at an angle of 66%.
A. 1and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Variation in duration of day and night is due to revolution of earth around the sun and inclination of earth at an angle of 66%.


181. The axis of rotation of earth is tilted by 23.5° to the plane of revolution around the sun. The latitude of Mumbai is less than 23.5° whereas the latitude of Delhi is more than 23.5°. Which one of the following statements in this regard is correct?
A. The sun can come overhead at both these places
B. The sun will never come overhead at either of these places
C. At Mumbai the sun can come overhead but it will never do so at Delhi
D. At Delhi the sun can come overhead but it will never do so at Mumbai

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : At Mumbai the sun can come overhead, but it will never do so at Delhi. If you look at a map you’ll see that Delhi is a bit north of the tropic of cancer, so there is never a time in Delhi when the sun will be directly overhead.


182. The point below the surface where an earthquake originates is called ________.
A. Tsunamis
B. Focus
C. Epicentre
D. Eye of the Earthquake

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The focus is also called the hypocenter of an earthquake. The vibrating waves travel away from the focus of the earthquake in all directions.


183. The distance between two consecutive longitudes (91° E and 92° E) at the Poles is
A. 0 km
B. 18 km
C. 25 km
D. 111 km

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The distance between two consecutive longitudes(91 degree E and 92 degree E) at the Poles is 0 km.


184. The place which has the longest day and the shortest night on 22nd December, is ________
A. Chennai
B. Madrid
C. Melbourne
D. Moscow

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The place which has the longest day and shortest night on 22 December is Melbourne.


185. The imaginary lines which connects the places of same temperature are called
A. Isobar
B. Isohyet
C. Isohaline
D. Isotherm

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The places which have similar temperature are connected by imaginary line known as Isotherm.


186. The imaginary line which connects places of similar height on map, are?
A. Hachure
B. Contour
C. Spot-Height
D. Isometric

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Contour lines are isolines joining places that have the same height value. Another common isoline is the isobar, a line that joins places with the same atmospheric pressure.


187. When does tides rise in sea?
A. Only on lunar day
B. Full Moon and half Moon
C. When Moon is on first phase
D. Only half Moon

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Tides rise in sea in Full Moon and half Moon. The moon and sun are primarily responsible for the rising and falling of ocean tides.


188. The position of the earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the Sun causing summer in the Northern hemisphere is ________
A. Perihelion
B. Aphelion
C. Perigee
D. Apogee

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The position of the earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the Sun causing summer in the Northern hemisphere is Aphelion. Earth’s aphelion comes in the midst of Northern Hemisphere summer and Southern Hemisphere winter.


189. The deflection of the winds to the right in the northern hemisphere is caused by
A. Revolution of the Earth
B. Rotation of the Earth
C. Uneven heating of the Earth
D. All the above

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Because of the rotation of Earth from west to east, the winds are deflected towards right in the Northern hemisphere & towards left in the Southern hemisphere. This is also known as Coriollis Effect.


190. One degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of ________
A. 34.5 miles
B. 50 miles
C. 60 miles
D. 69 miles

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One degree of longitude on the equator is equal to a distance of 50 miles.


191. Which of the following is caused by the combine deffects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun on sea levels?
A. Currents
B. Runoff
C. Tides
D. Waves

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tides are the rise and fall of sea levels caused by the combined effects of the gravitational forces exerted by the Moon and the Sun, and the rotation of the Earth.


192. How much is the difference of time between any two consecutive longitudes?
A. 10 minutes
B. 14 minutes
C. 4 minutes
D. 30 minutes

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : 4 minutes is the difference of time between any two consecutive longitudes. The difference between the two longitudes that are adjacent is 4 minutes.


193. Albedo is defined as ________
A. UV radiations sent out by the SUN
B. A substance contained in the upper atmospheric layers of the earth which is responsible for the reflection of/a part of solar radiations
C. Celestial bodies in earth’s atmosphere which add to the greenhouse effect
D. The amount of insolation reflected back to the space by the top of atmosphere by clouds and ice-covered areas of the Earth’s surface

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Albedo is defined as the amount of insolation reflected back to the space by the top of atmosphere, by clouds and ice-covered areas of the Earth’s surface.


194. Which of the following phenomenon is/are the effect of the rotation of the Earth? ,1. Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon and the Stars.,2. Flatness of the poles and bulge at the Equator.,3. Occurrence of sunrise, noon and sunset,4. Magnetic field of the earth.
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 2 and 3
D. 1 2 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The following phenomenon are the effect of the rotation of the Earth are Apparent movement of the Sun, the Moon and the Stars, Flatness of the poles and bulge at the Equator, Occurrence of’ sunrise, noon and sunset and Magnetic field of the earth.


195. When the clock strikes 12:00 noon at Greenwich, it strikes 5:30 p.m. at place X on the same day. What is the meridian of longitude of place X ?
A. 97°30′ E
B. 97°30′ W
C. 82°30′ E
D. 82°30′ W

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : When the clock strikes 12:00 noon at Greenwich, it strikes 5:30 p.m. at place X on the same day. 82°30′ E is the meridian of longitude of place X.


196. The approximate diameter of the earth is ________
A. 4200 Km
B. 6400 Km
C. 12800 Km
D. 15600 Km

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The approximately diameter of Earth is 12800 km. The rotation of the planet has slightly flattened it out, so it has a larger diameter at the equator than at the poles. The equatorial diameter of Earth is 12,756 km, its polar diameter is 12,713 km, and its average diameter, which is referred to in common usage, is 12,742 km or 7,926 miles.


197. Japan is called ‘land of the rising sun’ because ________
A. Sun rises there as soon as it sets
B. Sun always remains in the eastern part of the sky throughout the day in Japan
C. Japan being the Eastern most country in the World it has the earliest sunrise
D. The rays of the sun get reflected from the waters of the sea and make the sunrise beautiful in Japan

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Japan being the Eastern most country in the World, it has the earliest sunrise. Japan has been recognized as the land of the rising sun for at least 1400 years. The actual name of Japan in Japanese is Nihon which means “sun-origin” which is loosely translated to mean “land of the rising sun”.


198. Which of the following celestial body contains Helium-4 in abundance?
A. Earth
B. Moon
C. Venus
D. Saturn

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Celestial body Earth contains Helium-4 in abundance. Its abundance is similar to this figure in the Sun and in Jupiter. This is due to the very high nuclear binding energy (per nucleon) of helium-4 with respect to the next three elements after helium.


199. In the context of ‘time’ GMT means
A. General Meridian Time
B. Greenwich Mean Time
C. Global Mean Time
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : GMT is Greenwich Mean Time. It is the local time at zero degrees longitude in Greenwich, England and is used as the world reference for times at different longitudes around the globe.


200. The speed of rotation of the earth is ________
A. 25 km/sec.
B. 31 km/sec.
C. 39.5 km/sec.
D. 9.72 km/sec.

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The speed of rotation of the earth is 9.72 km/sec.


201. The area of the Earth’s total surface is of the order of ________.
A. 510 million square kilometres
B. 450 million square kilometres
C. 400 million square kilometres
D. 350 million square kilometres

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The total surface area of the Earth is 510 million square km while that of India is 3.825 million square km.


202. The distance of the equator from either of the poles is ________
A. 500 km
B. 5001 km
C. 10002 km
D. 36005 km

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The distance of the equator from either of the poles is 10,002 km.


203. Which of these statements are correct?,1. Ocean currents are the slow-surface movement of water in the ocean,2. Ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance,3. Ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds,4. Ocean current are affected by the configuration of the ocean
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 3 and 4
C. 1 3 and 4
D. 1 2 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Statements that are correct are ocean currents are the slow-surface movement of water in the ocean, ocean currents assist in maintaining the Earth’s heat balance, ocean currents are set in motion primarily by prevailing winds and ocean current are affected by the configuration of the ocean.


204. The Earth rotates-around an axis pointing towards ________
A. The moon
B. The pole star
C. The sun
D. Venus

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Earth rotates-around an axis pointing towards the Pole star. The axis of rotation of the Earth passes very close to the Pole Star. The earth rotates around the sun, but the polar star is always in the north.


205. When a ship crosses Date line from west to east ________
A. It loses one day
B. It gains one day
C. It loses half a day
D. It gains half a day

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : When a ship crosses the International Date Line from west to east, it adds a day, and if it crosses the line from east to west, it subtracts a day.


206. ________ is a natural electrical phenomenon characterized by the appearance of streams of reddish or greenish light in the sky, especially near the northern or southern magnetic pole
A. Acaulis
B. Matus
C. Albopictus
D. Aurora

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Aurora is a natural electrical phenomenon characterized by the appearance of streams of reddish or greenish light in the sky, especially near the northern or southern magnetic pole. Aurora is a light display phenomenon which often takes place in the polar regions. In this phenomenon electrons collide with upper atmosphere of Earth and when they cool down they release energy in the form of light.


207. The Tropic of Cancer does not pass through ________
A. Egypt
B. Mexico
C. Oman
D. Yemen

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Apart from Oman, the Tropic of Cancer passes through the Bahamas, Mexico, Mauritania, Mali, Western Sahara, Algeria, Niger, Libya, Egypt, Saudi Arabia, India, China, UAE, Bangladesh, Burma and Taiwan. It passes through the United States in the Hawaiian region. It does not pass through Yemen.


208. The mapping of which of the following is most difficult ?
A. Mountains
B. Plateaus and Plains
C. Interior of the Earth
D. Oceans and their depth

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The Earth’s interior is composed of four layers, three solid and one liquid not magma but molten metal, nearly as hot as the surface of the sun. The mapping of interior of the Earth of the following is most difficult.


209. Which of the following statements is true?
A. Arctic circle antarctic circle and equator are great circles
B. Both equator and longitudes are great circles
C. Both latitudes and longitudes are great circles
D. Both equator and latitudes are great circles

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : A great circle always divides the Earth in half, thus the Equator is a great circle (but no other latitudes) and all lines of longitude are great circles.


210. Which of the following are true regarding equinoxes? ,1. They occur on March 21st and September 23rd,2. They depict equal days and equal nights on March 21st and September 23rd on all places of the earth,3. All places on the earth have equal temperature during equinoxes.
A. 1 and 2 only
B. 2 and 3 only
C. 1 and 3 only
D. 1 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : An equinox is an event in which a planet’s subsolar point passes through its Equator. They occur on March 21 st and September and They depict equal days and equal. nights on March 21 st and September 23rd on all places of the earth.


211. In the earliest days when life originated on earth, the atmosphere contained ________
A. Free oxygen
B. No oxygen
C. Oxygen in fixed form
D. Oxygen bound to carbon

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : In the earliest days when life originated on earth, the atmosphere contained Oxygen bound to carbon.


212. Summer Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on ________
A. 21st December
B. 01st September
C. 01st June
D. 01st March

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Summer Solstice in the Southern Hemisphere occurs on 21st December.


213. Solar eclipse occurs when ________
A. Earth comes between sun and moon
B. Moon is at right angle to the earth
C. Moon comes between sun and earth
D. Sun comes between moon and earth

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A solar eclipse occurs when the moon gets between Earth and the sun, and the moon casts a shadow over Earth. A solar eclipse can only take place at the phase of new moon, when the moon passes directly between the sun and Earth and its shadows fall upon Earth’s surface.


214. Which of the following statements is correct ?,1. All meridians are of the same length,2. All latitudes are of the same length,3. The Prime Meridian is the longest meridian,4. The Equator is the longest latitude
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 3 and 4
D. 1 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : All meridians are of equal length; each is one-half the length of the equator. All meridians converge at the poles and are true north-south lines. The equator is located at 0 degrees latitude, which means it is located at the circunference of Earth. Earth is shaped like a sphere, and the circumference of a sphere is the longest distance around any part of the sphere. Therefore, this makes the equator the longest line of latitude.


215. Who among the following was first to measure the circumference of the Earth?
A. Eratosthenes
B. Aristotle
C. Hecataeus
D. Herodotus

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Eratosthenes of Cyrene, 276 BC- 195 BC, was a Greek mathematician, geographer, poet, athlete, astronomer, and music theorist. He was the first person to use the word “geography” in Greek and he invented the discipline of geography as we understand it. He invented a system of latitude and longitude. He was the first person to calculate the circumference of the earth by using a measuring system using stades, or the length of stadiums during that time period (with remarkable accuracy).


216. What is the circumference of the Earth?
A. 13000km
B. 20000km
C. 25000km
D. 40000km

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The approximate equatorial circumference of the earth is 40000km.


217. Who was the first to measure the circumference of the Earth?
A. Erechtheus
B. Aegeus
C. Eratosthenes
D. Apheidas

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Eratosthenes was the first person to calculate the size of the earth. He was also the first person to use the word “Geography”.


218. Beirut time is two hours ahead and Lima time is five hours behind GMT. The longitudes of Beirut and Lima are respectively ________
A. 75° West and 30° East
B. 70° East and 35° West
C. 30° East and 75° West
D. 35° West and 70° East

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Beirut time is two hours ahead and Lima time is five hours behind GMT. The longitudes of Beirut and Lima are respectively 30° East and 75° West.


219. The term ‘syzygy’ is referred to when the ________
A. Earth is at perihelion and moon at perigee
B. Earth is at apehelion and moon at apogee
C. Moon and sun are at right angles with reference to the earth
D. Moon sun and earth lie along a straight line

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : An alignment of three celestial objects, as the sun, the earth, and either the moon or a planet: Syzygy in the sun-earth-moon system occurs at the time of full moon and new moon.


220. The Solar eclipse achieves totality only in limited geographical regions because ________
A. The trajectories of the Earth around the Sun and the Moon around the Earth are not perfect circles
B. The size of the shadow of the Moon on the Earth is small compared to the cross-section of the Earth
C. Sun rays can reach most of the peripheral regions of the shadow of the moon due to atmospheric refraction
D. The Earth is not a smooth flat surface but has elevations and depressions

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The Solar eclipse achieves totality only in limited geographical regions because the size of the shadow of the Moon on the Earth is small compared to the cross-section of the Earth.


221. The largest amount of reflection of the solar radiant energy which is reflected back into space before reaching the earth’s surface is due to ________
A. Clouds
B. Water-bodies
C. Snow and ice covered areas of the earth
D. All the above reflect nearly the same amount

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Twenty-four percent of incoming solar radiation is reflected by clouds, 4% by the Earth’s surface. The largest amount of reflection of the solar radiant energy which is reflected back into space before reaching the earth’s surface is due to clouds.


222. We always see the same surface of the Moon because
A. It is smaller than the Earth
B. It rotates on its axis
C. It takes the same time to rotate on its axis and moving around the Earth
D. It moves with the same speed at which Earth moves around the Sun

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : We only see one side of the moon because the moon rotates around the Earth at the exact same speed as it rotates around its own axis, so that the same side of the moon is constantly facing the surface of the earth.


223. When the Earth is at the maximum distance from the Sun, it is called
A. Aphelion
B. Perihelion
C. Equinox
D. Sidereal

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The furthest point is called aphelion. The aphelion is the point in the orbit of an object where it is farthest from the Sun. The word aphelion derives from the Greek words, apo meaning away, off, apart and Helios.


224. In how much time, Earth rotates once on its axis?
A. 23 hours 30 minutes
B. 23 hours 56 minutes 4.9 sec
C. 23 hours 10 minutes 2 sec
D. 24 hours

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Earth rotates once in about 24 hours with respect to the Sun, but once every 23 hours, 56 minutes, and 4.9 seconds with respect to other, distant, stars.


225. The Earth is tilted on its axis
A. 23.5 degree
B. 22.5 degree
C. 21. 5 degree
D. 20 degree

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The axis of rotation of the Earth is tilted at an angle of 23.5 degrees away from vertical, perpendicular to the plane of our planet’s orbit around the sun.


226. The earth’s annual circuit round the sun covers a distance of ________
A. 1096 million kms
B. 1036 million kms
C. 966 million kms
D. 896 million kms

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The earth’s annual circuit round the Sun covers a distance of 966 million km.


227. The mean radius of the earth is approximately ________
A. 3200 km
B. 6400 km
C. 9600 km
D. 12800 km

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The mean radius of the earth is approximately 3200 km.


228. When would you record the maximum angle of incidence of the sun’s rays at the north pole?
A. March 21
B. September 21
C. When the sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer
D. When the sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Capricorn

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : When the sun’s rays fall vertically on the Tropic of Cancer we can record the maximum angle of incidence of the sun’s rays at the north pole.


229. How many kilometers are represented by 1° of latitude?
A. 321 km
B. 211 km
C. 111 km
D. 91 km

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Around 111 kilometres( approximately ). It varies from 110.56 kms at the equator to 111.69 at the poles due to the ellipsoid shape of the earth.


230. What is the position of the Earth when it is at the greatest distance from the Sun?
A. Aphelion
B. Antipode
C. Perihelion
D. Aldiatc

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Earth is farther from the sun today (July 6) than at any other time of the year. On 4th July, Earth is farthest from Sun and this phenomenon is called Aphelion. This happens because Earth orbits round the Sun elliptically.


231. The planet which has the highest surface temperature is
A. Jupiter
B. Earth
C. Pluto
D. Venus

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The greenhouse effect on Venus causes the temperatures at its surface to reach 864 degrees Fahrenheit (462 degrees Celsius), making Venus the hottest planet in the entire Solar System.


232. On which of the following date/dates, Winter Solstice is observed in Northern Hemisphere?,I. 21st December, ,II. 5th August, ,III. 10th January
A. Only 1
B. 1 and 2 Both
C. Only 3
D. Only 2

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Winter Solstice is the day on which Sun shines directly above the Tropic of Capricorn. Although, normally the date is 22nd December, but as per question the closest option available 21st December.


233. Sandstone is metamorphosed to
A. Shale
B. Slate
C. Quartzite
D. Marble

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Sandstone can change into quartzite by becoming a metamorphic rock. Sandstone is a sedimentary rock, a type of rock that is made through solidification of sediment layers. In order for sandstone to become quartzite, this rock needs to experience heat and pressure. Most sandstone that has become quartzite was found near compression zones of plate tectonics.


234. Heat received by earth from the Sun is known as ________
A. Insolation
B. Solar heat
C. Solar radiation
D. Thermal radiation

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The heat is derived from solar energy, normally called solar radiation. Insolation is the solar radiation that reaches the earth’s surface.


235. The boundary between Earth’s Crust and Mantle is ________.
A. Moho discontinuity
B. Lehman discontinuity
C. Conrad discontinuity
D. Gutenberg discontinuity

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The boundary between the Earth’s Crust and Mantle is referred to as Mohorovicic or simply Moho discontinuity. It lies 35 Km below continents & 7 Km beneath the ocean crust.


236. Which of the following statements with regard to the term ‘great circle’ is not correct?
A. Equator is a great circle
B. A ship can save fuel and time by following the great circle arc between two points
C. Only one great circle can be drawn on a sphere
D. A great circle results when a plane passes through the centre of a sphere

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Any circle that passes through two points that are opposite each other on a sphere. Many great circle can be drawn on a sphere.


237. Which of the following is the best definition of ‘Tides’ ?
A. A powerful movement of the ocean which proceed constantly in a definite direction
B. A great circulatory movement of sea water caused by difference in density of sea water
C. A periodic rise and fall of sea water caused by the gravitational force of moon and sun on earth
D. A wind and pressure system having a low pressure in centre and circular wind motion

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Tides are periodic rises and falls of large bodies of water. A periodic rise and fall of sea water caused by the gravitational force of moon and sun on earth.


238. Which of the following are true regarding the Prime meridian?,1. It passes through the centre of a certain country,2. It passes through the centre of the Globe,3. It passes through the observatory at Greenwich, near London.
A. 1 and 2
B. 1 and 3
C. 1 2 and 3
D. 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The following that are true regarding the Prime meridian are that it passes through the centre of a certain country, it passes through the centre of the Globe and it passes through the observatory at Greenwich, near London.


239. If there are four places on the same meridian 500 km apart and the local time at one place is 12.00 noon, what will be the time at the three other places?
A. 12.00 noon
B. 1.00 pm
C. 2.00 pm
D. Different time at different places

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : If there are four places on the same meridian 500km apart and the local time at one place is 12.00 noon, 12.00 noon will be the time at the three other places.


240. Assume that the moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and also assume that it rises in the east exactly at 6.48 p.m., on the first day. On the fourth day, at what time will it rise?
A. 8.24 p.m
B. 9. 12 p.m
C. 10.00 p.m
D. 11.48 p.m.

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The moon takes exactly 30 days to complete the cycle and it rises in the east exactly at 6.48 p.m., on the first day. On the fourth day, it rise at 10.00 p.m.


241. One day in Mumbai a tide occurs at 8.00 A.M. The next day it will occur at ________
A. 8.13
B.M.
C. 8.26
D.M.
E. 8.52

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : One day in Mumbai a tide occurs at 8.00 A.M. The next day it will occur at 8.26 A.M. The next day tide will occur 26 min later.


242. Consider the following statements: While it is 6.30 AM (Sunday) in London, it is around,1. 2.30 AM (Sunday) in Honolulu (Hawaii),2. 8.30 PM (Saturday) in Honolulu (Hawaii),3. 3.30 PM (Sunday) in Tokyo,4. 1.30 AM (Sunday) in Tokyo,Which of these statements is/are correct?
A. 4 only
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 4
D. 2 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : While it is 6.30 AM (Sunday) in London, it is around 8.30 PM (Saturday) in Honolulu (Hawaii) and 3.30 PM (Sunday) in Tokyo. London, UK is 10 hours ahead of Hawaii, USA and Tokyo, Japan is 9 hours ahead of London, UK.


243. Which of the following pairs of metals are supposed to constitute the internal core of the earth?
A. Chromium and Iron
B. Magnesium and Lead
C. Iron and Copper
D. Nickel and Iron

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The outer core is believed to be made up of iron nickel is because of the theory of paleomagnetism. The change in the magnetic poles all through different geological eras.


244. Which of the following statements regarding the earth’s axis are true?,1. It makes an angle of 23.5, with the plane of ecliptic,2. It maintains a flexible orientation with respect to the stars,3. It is the most important fact connected with Earth-Sun relationship
A. 1 and 2
B. 2 and 3
C. 1 and 3
D. 1 2 and 3

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The following statements that are true regarding the earth’s axis are that it makes an angle of 23.5o with the plane of ecliptic and it is the most important fact connected with Earth-Sun relationship.


245. On which day, Earth is closest to the Sun?
A. 23-09-2019
B. 03-01-2019
C. 04-07-2019
D. 21-03-2019

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Due to elliptical path, distance of Earth from Sun keeps changing. It is nearest to Sun on 3rd January known as Perihelion.


246. On December 22, the sun:,1. is not visible at north pole,2. is only visible for a few minutes at the Antarctic Circle,3. rises south of east and sets south of west at the Tropic of Cancer,4. rises south of east and set south of west at the equator
A. 1 and 3
B. 2 3 and 4
C. 1 3 and 4
D. 1 2 3 and 4

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : On December 22, the sun is not visible at north pole, rises south of east and sets south of west at the Tropic of Cancer and rises south of east and set south of west at the equator.


247. If a traveller going from Vancouver to Tokyo crosses the International Date Line on Saturday, what will be the day for him at Tokyo?
A. Friday
B. Saturday
C. Sunday
D. Monday

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : If a traveller going from Vancouver to Tokyo crosses the International Date Line on Saturday, Sunday will be the day for him at Tokyo.


248. Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in ________
A. Kilometers from the poles
B. Kilometers from the equator
C. Angles from the poles
D. Angles from the equator

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Latitude of a point on the earth is measured by the distance in angles from the equator. Latitude refers to the angle of a given point measured from the equator and with a vertex at or near the center of the earth (depending on the type of latitude measured). As you move north or south, the latitude will increase from 0° to 90.


249. The local time at A is 4 pm, when Greenwich Mean Time is 2 p.m. This indicates:,1. A is east of Greenwich,2. the longitude of A is 30°
A. Only I
B. Only II
C. Neither I nor II
D. Both I and II

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The local time at A is 4 pm, when Greenwich Mean Time is 2 p.m. This indicates that A is east of Greenwich and the longitude of A is 30°.


250. Marble is the metamorphosed form of
A. Shale
B. Basalt
C. Sandstone
D. Limestone

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Marble is a metamorphic rock formed when limestone is exposed to high temperatures and pressures. Marble forms under such conditions because the calcite forming the limestone recrystallises forming a denser rock consisting of roughly equigranular calcite crystals.


251. Which of the following line represents the line which connects the places of equal rain?
A. Isohypse
B. Isohalines
C. Isobar
D. Isohyets

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : An isohyet is a line on a map which connects points that have the same amounts of precipitation in a given period or for a particular storm.


252. The latitude of a place is the same as the ________
A. Maximum altitude attained by the Sun at noon
B. Altitude of the celestial pole
C. Angle between the horizon and the equator
D. Zenith distance of the full moon when on the meridian

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Having the meridian zenith distance and declination, the latitude of a place is the same as the Zenith distance of the full moon when on the meridian.


253. What is the study of Moon called?
A. Selenology
B. Cosmology
C. Iridology
D. Planetology

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In Greek, our moon is named “Selene,” as is the moon goddess of ancient Greek mythology. The English word “selenology,” or the study of the moon’s geology, derives from it.


254. Magma that reaches earth’s surface and then solidifies is called
A. Granite
B. Lava
C. Quartz
D. Silicates

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Magma that reaches the earth’s surface and then solidifies is known as the lava.


255. Consider a specific point on the surface of the earth (say Delhi). The temperature at a given time of day (say 12.00 Noon) will in general be higher in summer than in winter. This is because ________
A. The evaporation of water from atmosphere results in precipitation occurring in winter alone
B. Sun-rays falling on the earth are inclined more towards the sun in winter
C. The earth is closer to the sun in summer than in winter
D. The axis of the earth is inclined more towards the sun in winter

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The temperature at a given time of day (say 12.00 Noon) will in general be higher in summer than in winter. This is because Sun-rays falling on the earth are inclined more towards the sun in winter.


256. Which of the following are true regarding the crust of the earth?,I. It is the outer thin layer with a total thickness of about 100 km,II. It forms around 0.5 percent of the earth’s volume,III. The outer covering of the crust is of sedimentary material,IV. The lower layer of the crust consists of basaltic and ultra-basic rocks
A. I and II
B. I II and III
C. I II and IV
D. I II III and IV

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The following that are true regarding the crust of the earth are that it is the outer thin layer with a total thickness of about 100 km, it forms around 0.5 percent of the earth’s volume and the lower layer of the crust consists of basaltic and ultra-basic rocks.


257. Which one of the following minerals occurs abundantly in the Earth’s crust?
A. Bauxite
B. Silica
C. Manganese
D. Iron

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Silica, also called silicon dioxide, compound of the two most abundant elements in Earth’s crust, silicon and oxygen, SiO2. The mass of Earth’s crust is 59 percent silica, the main constituent of more than 95 percent of the known rocks.


258. The acceleration due to gravity at the equator
A. Is less than that at the poles
B. Is greater than that at the poles
C. Is equal to that at the poles
D. Does not depend on the Earth centripetal acceleration

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The effective acceleration of gravity at the poles is 980.665 cm/sec/sec while at the equator it is 3.39 cm/sec/sec less due to the centrifugal force.


259. “Mohs’ Scale” is used to indicate the ________
A. Degree of brittleness of a substance
B. Degree of hardness of minerals.
C. Degree of viscosity of a liquid
D. Degree of elasticity of a material

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Mohs scale is a scale used to measure the relative hardness of a mineral by its resistance to scratching. From softest to hardest, the ten minerals of the Mohs scale are talc (measuring 1 on the scale), gypsum, calcite, fluorite, apatite, orthoclase, quartz, topaz, corundum, and diamond (measuring 10 on the scale).


260. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the place of ________
A. Axis of the earth
B. Equator
C. North pole
D. South pole

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to the place of Equator. The latitude of a place expresses its angular position relative to Equatorial Plane.


261. The Earth turns through 360° in 24 hours. Each 15° longitude represents ________
A. Half an hour
B. Forty five minutes
C. One hour
D. One hour fifteen minutes

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : It takes 24 hours for the sun to go through the full 360 degrees around the world, so an hour of time is equal to 15 degrees of longitude.


262. World’s longest land border is between which two contries?
A. Australia and New Zealand
B. India and China
C. Switzerland and Italy
D. Canada and USA

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : Canada’s border with the United States is the world’s longest international border, at 8,890 km.


263. What is the term used for the day on 23 September when day and night are equal throughout the world?
A. Autumnal Equinox
B. Astronomical Equinox
C. Winter Solstice
D. Spring Equinox

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : Equinoxes occurs twice in a year. The day and night on this day are equal through out the globe as the Sun is exactly above the equator on this day. This phenomenon occuring on 21 March is Spring equinox and other occuring on 23 September is Autumnal Equinox as the Sun is heading towards Tropic of Capricorn.


264. When it is noon along 82° 30′ longitude, along what degree of longitude it will be 6.30 a.m.?
A. Along 165° E
B. Along 67° 30′ W
C. 0° E or W
D. Along 82° 31′ W

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : When it is noon along 82° 30′ longitude, along 0° E or W degree of longitude it will be 6.30 a.m. The Earth has been divided into 24 time zones of one hour each. Each of these zones covers 15 degrees of longitude.


265. The Gutenberg discontinuity is between ________
A. The crust and the mantle
B. The upper and lower mantles
C. The outer core and the lower mantle
D. The inner and outer cores

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Gutenberg established an accurate boundary line or discontinuity that separates and divides the lower mantle from the outer core. The lower mantle above the Gutenberg line is solid, but the outer core below the line is liquid molten.


266. The approximate circumference of the Earth is
A. 13000 km
B. 20000 km
C. 25000 km
D. 40000 km

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The approximate circumference of the Earth is 40,000 km. The circumference of the Earth in kilometers is 40,075 km, and the circumference of the Earth in miles is 24,901.


267. How many Geo-synchronous satellites are required for uninterrupted world broadcasting?
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : In theory, 2 satellites in diametrically opposite geo-synchronous orbits could cover the planet. In order for the satellites to communicate, a minimum of 3 would be needed, each at a 60 degree angle to the others. At this point, the strength and quality of coverage increases proportionally to the number of satellites.


268. What is known as High Pressure Subtropical Latitude?
A. Roaring forties
B. Furious fifties
C. Screaming sixties
D. Horse latitudes

Answer

Answer: Option D
Explanation : The horse latitudes are subtropical regions known for calm winds and little precipitation. The horse latitudes are regions located at about 30 degrees north and south of the equator. These latitudes are characterized by calm winds and little precipitation.


269. Consider the following statements:,1. The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year.,2. The solar day is longer than the sidereal day.,Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both 1 and 2
D. Neither 1 nor 2

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The tropical year is shorter than the sidereal year. A sidereal year is the time it takes for the sun to return to the same position with respect to the stars. The solar day is longer than the sidereal day. Because of the Earth’s revolution, a solar day is slightly longer than a sidereal day.


270. The Synchronous satellite moves around the Earth from
A. East to West
B. West to East
C. North to South
D. South to North

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : Synchronous satellite is an artificial satellite moving in circular orbit round the Earth in 24 hours duration along with the rotatory movement of Earth i.e. west to east.


271. What is ‘Sidereal Day’?
A. The day on which the duration of sunshine is the maximum
B. The day on which the duration of sunshine and darkness are equal
C. The time during which the earth makes a complete rotation on its axis in respect of the fixed stars
D. The day on which the sun reaches its maximum distance from the equator

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : The time during which the earth makes a complete rotation on its axis in respect of the fixed stars is known as ‘Sidereal Day’. The sidereal day is the time it takes for the Earth to complete one rotation about its axis with respect to the ‘fixed’ stars.


272. The earth revolves round the sun in its orbit by approximately ________
A. 1° per day
B. 2° per day
C. 3° per day
D. 5° per day

Answer

Answer: Option A
Explanation : The earth revolves round the sun in its orbit by approximately 1° per day.


273. The equatorial circumference is greater than the polar circumference by approximately ________
A. 22 km
B. 67 km
C. 125 km
D. 625 km

Answer

Answer: Option B
Explanation : This results in the Earth having a polar circumference of 40008 km, and an equatorial circumference of 40075 km, a difference of 67 kilometers.


274. Why does Russia have many local time differences?
A. Because it keeps trade relations with many countries of the world
B. Because it experiences a wide range of climatic conditions
C. Because of its long east-west stretches
D. Because it is divided into a number of states on political grounds

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : Russia currently has 11 time zones, from the Kaliningrad Oblast, a Baltic enclave in the west, to the Kamchatka Krai in the Far East. Because of its long east-west stretches Russia have many local time differences.


275. Lunar eclipse does not occur every month because ________
A. The sun’s orbit is not always in the same plane as the moon
B. The moon revolves at a slower speed than the earth
C. The moon’s orbit is not all the time in the same plane as the earth
D. None of these

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : They do not happen every month because the Earth’s orbit around the sun is not in the same plane as the Moon’s orbit around the Earth.


276. A person sets off from Alaska on a Tuesday and reaches New Zealand the next day which will be ________
A. Tuesday
B. Wednesday
C. Thursday
D. Friday

Answer

Answer: Option C
Explanation : A person sets off from Alaska on a Tuesday and reaches New Zealand the next day which will be Thursday.