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Horizontal Projectile Motion MCQs for NEET

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Horizontal Projectile Motion MCQs for NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Horizontal Projectile Motion Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQ on Horizontal Projectile Motion

1. A stone is just released from the window of a train moving along a horizontal straight track. The stone will hit the ground following
(a) Hyperbolic path
(b) Straight path
(c) Circular path
(d) Parabolic path

Answer

Answer: (d) Parabolic path

2. A bullet is dropped from the same height when another bullet is fired horizontally. They will hit the ground
(a) Simultaneously
(b) Depends on the observer
(c) One after the other
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Simultaneously

3. A bomb is dropped from an aeroplane moving horizontally at a constant speed. When air resistance is taken into consideration, the bomb
(a) Flies with the aeroplane
(b) Falls to earth behind the aeroplane
(c) Falls to earth ahead of the plane
(d) Falls to earth exactly below the aeroplane

Answer

Answer: (b) Falls to earth behind the aeroplane

4. The maximum range of gum on horizontal terrain is 16 km. If g = 10 m/s2. What must be the muzzle velocity of the shell?
(a) 400 m/s
(b) 100 m/s
(c) 200 m/s
(d) 50 m/s

Answer

Answer: (a) 400 m/s

5. An aeroplane flying 490 m above ground level at 100 m/s, releases a block. How far on the ground will it strike?
(a) 2 km
(b) 0.1 km
(c) 1 km
(d) None

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 km

6. A man projects a coin upwards from the gate of a uniformly moving train. The path of coin for the man will be
(a) Vertical straight line
(b) Inclined straight line
(c) Parabolic
(d) Horizontal straight line

Answer

Answer: (a) Vertical straight line

7. A particle A is dropped from a height and another particle B is thrown in a horizontal direction with the speed of 5m/sec from the same height. The correct statement is
(a) Particle B will reach the ground first
(b) Both particles will reach the ground with the same speed
(c) Particle A will reach the ground first
(d) Both particles will reach the ground simultaneously

Answer

Answer: (d) Both particles will reach the ground simultaneously

8. A particle moves in a plane with constant acceleration in a direction from the initial velocity. The path of the particle will be
(a) A parabola
(b) An ellipse
(c) A straight line
(d) An arc of a circle

Answer

Answer: (a) A parabola

9. An aeroplane moving horizontally with a speed of 720 km/h drops a food pocket, while flying a horizontal direction with a speed of 5 m/sec from the same height. The correct statement is
(a) 9 sec and 1800 m
(b) 5 sec and 500 m
(c) 8 sec and 1500 m
(d) 3 sec and 2000 m

Answer

Answer: (a) 9 sec and 1800 m

10. At the height 80 cm, an aeroplane is moving with 150 m/s. A bomb is dropped from it so as to hit a target. At what distance from the target should the bomb be dropped
(a) 600 m
(b) 605.3 m
(c) 80 m
(d) 230 m

Answer

Answer: (b) 605.3 m

General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements MCQ

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General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements MCQ for NEET

NEET  Chemistry is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Chemistry MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Chemistry objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Chemistry General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on General principles and Processes of Isolation of Elements

1. In the equation,
4M + 8CN– + H2O + O2 → 4[M(CN)2]– + 4OH–, the metal M is
(a) copper
(b) iron
(c) gold
(d) Zinc

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. Heating ore with carbon in the absence of air is known as:
(a) reduction
(b) carbon-reduction
(c) smelting
(d) Roasting

Answer

Answer: (c)

3. In the extraction of copper from sulphide ore, the metal is formed by reduction of Cu2O with
(a) FeS
(b) CO
(c) Cu2S
(d) SO2

Answer

Answer: (c)

4. The method of zone refining of metals is based upon the principle of
(a) greater solubility of the impurity in molten state than in solid
(b) greater mobility of pure metal than impurity
(c) higher melting point of impurity than that of pure metal.
(d) greater noble character of solid metal than that of the impurity

Answer

Answer: (a)

5. Cassiterite is the ore of which metal?
(a) Mn
(b) Sb
(c) Sn
(d) Ni

Answer

Answer: (c)

6. In electrorefining of copper some gold is produced as:
(a) cathode mud
(b) anode mud
(c) cathode deposit
(d) anode deposit

Answer

Answer: (b)

7. In the electrolytic method of obtaining aluminium from purified bauxite, cryolite is added to the charge in order to:
(a) lower the melting point of bauxite
(b) dissolve bauxite and render it a conductor of electricity
(c) protect aluminium produced from oxygen
(d) minimise the heat loss due to radiation

Answer

Answer: (b)

8. The purest form of iron is:
(a) cast iron
(b) pig iron
(c) wrought iron
(d) steel

Answer

Answer: (c)

9. During the process of electrolytic refining of copper, some metals present as impurity settle as ‘anode mud’. These are:
(a) Pb and Zn
(b) Sn and Ag
(c) Fe and Ni
(d) Ag and Au

Answer

Answer: (d)

10. Extraction of zinc from zinc blende is achieved by
(a) electrolytic reduction
(b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
(c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(d) roasting followed by self-reduction

Answer

Answer: (b)

Radioactivity MCQs for NEET

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Radioactivity MCQs for NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Radioactivity Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Radioactivity

1. The neutral atoms of all isotopes of the same element contain the same number of __________.
(a) neutrons only.
(b) Electrons
(c) Mass numbers
(d) Masses

Answer

Answer: (b) Electrons

2. The atomic number is not changed by which type of radioactive decay?
(a) Beta
(b) Gamma
(c) Alpha
(d) The atomic number is affected by all forms of radioactive decay

Answer

Answer: (b) Gamma

3. Isotopes of an element have a different number of
(a) Proton
(b) Neutron
(c) Electron
(d) atom

Answer

Answer: (b) Neutron

4. Three types of radioactive elements are emitted when unstable nuclei undergo radioactive decay. Which of the following is not one of them
(a) Beta
(b) Gamma
(c) Alpha
(d) delta

Answer

Answer: (d) delta

5. A nuclear fission reaction becoming self-sustaining depends on
(a) electrons
(b) Neutrons
(c) Energy
(d) Protons

Answer

Answer: (b) Neutrons

6. Helium nuclei particles are called
(a) Gamma particles
(b) Beta particles
(c) Alpha particles
(d) No particles that are helium nuclei

Answer

Answer: (c) alpha particles

7. When two atomic nuclei combine it is called as
(a) Chain reaction
(b) Nuclear fusion
(c) Nuclear decay
(d) Nuclear fission

Answer

Answer: (b) Nuclear fusion

8. The number of protons or atomic number is reduced to 2 by which form of radioactive decay?
(a) Beta-decay
(b) Gamma decay
(c) Alpha decay
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Alpha decay

9. Which statement is true for all three types of radioactive emission?
(a) They are deflected by electric fields
(b) They ionise gases
(c) They are completely absorbed by a thin aluminium sheet
(d) They emit light

Answer

Answer: (b) They ionise gases

10. A nuclide of the element plutonium 94 Pu 242. What is the number of neutrons in its nucleus?
(a) 242
(b) 336
(c) 148
(d) 94

Answer

Answer: (c) 148

MCQ on Surface Chemistry

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MCQ on Surface Chemistry for NEET

NEET  Chemistry is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Chemistry MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Chemistry objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Chemistry Surface Chemistry Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Surface Chemistry

1. Which one of the following is an example of adsorption?
(a) ammonia in contact with water
(b) anhydrous CaCl2 with water
(c) silica gel in contact with water vapours
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. At 15oC out of H2, CH4, CO2, NH3, which gas will be adsorbed maximum by charcoal?
(a) H2
(b) CH4
(c) CO2
(d) NH3

Answer

Answer: (d)

3. Which of the following colloids are solvent hating?
(a) lyophilic
(b) lyophobic
(c) hydrophilic
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b)

4. If the dispersed phase is a liquid and the dispersion medium is solid, the colloid is known as
(a) foam
(b) sol
(c) emulsion
(d) gel

Answer

Answer: (d)

5. The process of separating a crystalloid, from a colloid by filtration is called
(a) emulsification
(b) dialysis
(c) coagulation
(d) Peptization

Answer

Answer: (b)

6. The movement of colloidal particles towards the oppositely charged electrodes on passing electric current is known as
(a) Tyndall effect
(b) Cataphoresis
(c) Brownian movement
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b)

7. An emulsifier is a substance which
(a) stabilizes the emulsion
(b) coagulates the emulsion
(c) retards the dispersion of liquid in liquid
(d) causes homogenesis of emulsion

Answer

Answer: (a)

8. Homogeneous catalysis does mean
(a) Reactants and goods have to be at the same level
(b) Catalyst and reactants must be in the same phase
(c) The reaction mixture must be formed homogeneously during
(d) The reaction mixture distribution must be homogeneous

Answer

Answer: (b)

9. Which of the following kinds of catalysis can be explained by the adsorption theory?
(a) enzyme catalysis
(b) homogeneous catalysis
(c) acid base catalysis
(d) heterogeneous catalysis

Answer

Answer: (d)

10. The volume of gases H2, CH4, CO2 and NH3 adsorbed by 1 gm charcoal at 293 K can be given in the order?
(a) CH4 > CO2 > NH3 > H2
(b) CO2 > NH3 > H2 > CH4
(c) NH3 > CO2 > H2 > CH4
(d) NH3 > CO2 > CH4 > H2

Answer

Answer: (d)

MCQ on Hydrogen Bonding

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MCQ on Hydrogen Bonding for NEET

NEET  Chemistry is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Chemistry MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Chemistry objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Chemistry Hydrogen Bonding Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Hydrogen Bonding

1. Which one of the following is not an isotope of hydrogen?
(a) Deuterium
(b) Tritium
(c) Ortho hydrogen
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c)

2. Out of the two allotropic forms of dihydrogen, the form with lesser molecular energy is
(a) ortho
(b) meta
(c) para
(d) All have the same energy

Answer

Answer: (c)

3. Non-stoichiometric hydrides are produced by
(a) palladium, vanadium
(b) manganese, lithium
(c) nitrogen, fluorine
(d) carbon, nickel

Answer

Answer: (a)

4. The boiling point of water is exceptionally high because
(a) there is a covalent bond between H and O
(b) water molecule is linear
(c) water molecules associate due to hydrogen bonding
(d) water molecules are not linear

Answer

Answer: (c)

5. Hydrogen can behave as a metal
(a) at very high temperature
(b) at very low temperature
(c) at very high pressure
(d) at very low pressure

Answer

Answer: (c)

6. When two ice cubes are pressed over each other, they unite to form one cube. Which of the following forces is responsible to hold them together?
(a) hydrogen bond formation
(b) van der Waals forces
(c) covalent attraction
(d) ionic interaction

Answer

Answer: (a)

7. Hydrogen will not reduce
(a) heated cupric oxide
(b) heated ferric oxide
(c) heated stannic oxide
(d) heated aluminium oxide

Answer

Answer: (d)

8. Which is true about different forms of hydrogen?
(a) ortho hydrogen has same spins of two nuclei clockwise or anticlockwise
(b) Para hydrogen has different spins of two nuclei
(c) At absolute zero temperature, there is a 100% para form and at high temperature, there is 75% ortho form
(d) all are correct

Answer

Answer: (d)

9. The reagent commonly used to determine hardness of water titrimetrically is
(a) oxalic acid
(b) sodium thiosulphate
(c) sodium citrate
(d) disodium salt of EDTA

Answer

Answer: (d)

10. Metal which does not react with cold water but evolves H2 with steam is
(a) Na
(b) K
(c) Pt
(d) Mg

Answer

Answer: (d)

Optical Instrument MCQs For NEET

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Optical Instrument MCQs For NEET

NEET  Physics is the scoring paper in the medical entrance examination. Here, you will discover the NEET Physics MCQ Questions for all Concepts as per the latest syllabus. Practice more on a regular basis with these NEET Physics objective questions on air pollution and improve your subject knowledge & problem-solving skills along with time management. NEET Physics Optical Instrument Multiple Choice Questions make you feel confident in answering the question in the exam & increases your scores to high.

MCQs on Optical Instrument

1. A lens which converges a beam of parallel rays to a point is called
(a) Diverging (or concave) lens
(b) Converging (or convex) lens
(c) Plano concave lens
(d) Plano-convex lens

Answer

Answer: (b) Converging (or convex) lens

2. The diameter of a lens is called
(a) Focal length
(b) Principle axis
(c) Aperture
(d) Radius of curvature

Answer

Answer: (c) Aperture

3. In going from a denser to rarer medium a ray of light is
(a) Undeviated
(b) Bent away from the normal
(c) Bent towards the normal
(d) polarised

Answer

Answer: (b) Bent away from the normal

4. The power of a concave lens is
(a) Real
(b) Virtual
(c) Positive
(d) negative

Answer

Answer: (d) negative

5. Magnifying power of a simple microscope
(a) Increases with increase in focal length
(b) Increases with the decrease in focal length
(c) No effect with decrease or increase with the focal length
(d) Least distance of distinct vision

Answer

Answer: (b) Increases with the decrease in focal length

6. Magnification of astronomical telescope is
(a) f0 + fe
(b) f0/fe
(c) fe/f0
(d) (1+f0/fe)L/f0

Answer

Answer: (b) f0/fe

7. The magnifying power of an astronomical telescope is 10 and the focal length of its eye-piece is 20 cm. The focal length of its objective will be
(a) 200 cm
(b) 2 cm
(c) 0.5 cm
(d) 0.5 x 10–2 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 200 cm

8. The magnifying power of a telescope is 9. When it is adjusted for parallel rays, the distance between the objective and the eye-piece is found to be 20 cm. The focal lengths of the lenses are
(a) 18 cm, 2 cm
(b) 11 cm, 9 cm
(c) 10 cm, 10 cm
(d) 15 cm, 5 cm

Answer

Answer: (a) 18 cm, 2 cm

9. In a compound microscope, magnifying power is 95 and the distance of the object from the objective lens is 1/38 cm. The focal length of the objective lens ¼ cm. What is the magnification of eyepiece?
(a) 5
(b) 10
(c) 100
(d) 200

Answer

Answer: (a) 5

10. A hypermetropic person having “near point” at a distance of 0.75 m puts on spectacles of power 2.5 D. The “near point” now is at
(a) 0.75 m
(b) 0.83 m
(c) 0.26 cm
(d) 0.26 m

Answer

Answer: (d) 0.26 m