Motions of the Earth Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Motion of the earth on its axis in about 24 hours is called
(a) revolution
(b) rotation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) rotation


Question 2.
Motion of the earth around the sun is known as
(a) revolution
(b) rotation
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) revolution


Question 3.
What is orbital plane?
(a) Plane formed by the axis
(b) Plane formed by the orbit
(r) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Plane formed by the orbit


Question 4.
Which one of the following is the source of light on the earth?
(a) The moon
(b) The sun
(c) The satellite
(d) The space

Answer

Answer: (b) The sun


Question 5.
The circle that divides the globe into day and night is called
(a) circle of darkness
(b) circle of day and night
(c) circle of illumination
(d)none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) circle of illumination


Question 6.
The period of one rotation of the earth is known as
(a) the sun day
(b) the moon day
(c) the earth day
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) the earth day


Question 7.
What would have happened if the earth did not rotate?
(a) Cold conditions on earth’s half portion
(b) Warm conditions on earth’s another half portion
(c) No life possible in such extreme conditions
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 8.
A year with 366 days is called
(a) leap year
(b) normal year
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) leap year


Question 9.
Why do seasons change on the earth?
(a) Due to change in the position of the earth around the sun
(b) Due to no change in the earth’s position
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Due to change in the position of the earth around the sun


Question 10.
When do the longest day and the shortest night occur in the northern hemisphere?
(a) June 21
(b) September 23
(c) December 22
(d) March 21

Answer

Answer: (a) June 21


Question 11.
In which season Christmas is celebrated in Australia?
(a ) Winter season
(b) Summer season
(c) Autumn season
(d) Spring season

Answer

Answer: (b) Summer season


Question 12.
When do equinoxes occur on the earth?
(a) March 21
(b) September 23
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 13.
Days and nights occur on earth due to
(a) rotation
(b) revolution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (a) rotation


Question 14.
Change of seasons occurs on earth due to
(a) rotation
(b) revolution
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) revolution


Globe Latitudes and Longitudes Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Choose the correct answer:

Question 1.
What is a globe?
(a) Earth
(b) True model of the earth
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) True model of the earth


Question 2.
Which of the following are shown on the globe in their true size?
(a) Countries
(b) Continents
(d Oceans
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 3.
What is called a needle fixed through the globe in a tilted manner?
(a) Orbit
(b) Axis
(c) Latitude
(d) Longitude

Answer

Answer: (b) Axis


Question 4.
What divides the earth into two equal parts. The northern hemisphere and the southern hemisphere?
(a) Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer
(c) Equator
(d) Arctic Circle

Answer

Answer: (c) Equator


Question 5.
Name one of the following parallels of latitudes as Tropic of Cancer.
(a) 0°
(b) 23° 30′ S
(c) 23° 30′ N
(d) 66° 30′ N

Answer

Answer: (c) 23° 30′ N


Question 6.
Between which parallels of latitudes is the Torrid Zone situated?
(a) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn
(b) Tropic of Cancer and Arctic Circle
(c) Tropic of Capricorn and Antarctic Circle
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Tropic of Cancer and Tropic of Capricorn


Question 7.
Which of the following zone is situated between 66°30′ S and poles?
(a) Torrid Zone
(b) Temperate Zone
(c) Frigid Zone
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Frigid Zone


Question 8.
Which of the following is called the Prime Meridian?
(a) 23° 30′ N
(b) 23° 30′ S
(c) 82° 30′ E
(d) 0° longitude

Answer

Answer: (d) 0° longitude


Question 9.
What divides the earth into the eastern and the western hemispheres?
(a) Equator
(b) Prime Meridian
(c) 82° 30′ E
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Prime Meridian


Question 10.
In which ocean are Tonga Islands situated?
(a) Indian Ocean
(b) Atlantic Ocean
(c) Pacific Ocean
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Pacific Ocean


Question 11.
On which parallel of latitude is Mauritius located?
(a) 10° N
(b) 20° S
(c) 23° 30′ S
(d) 0°

Answer

Answer: (b) 20° S


12. Which place is located at the intersection of 26° N and 90° E?
(a) Dhubri
(b) Mauritius
(c) Tonga
(d) Meerut

Answer

Answer: (a) Dhubri


Question 13.
What time does earth take, rotating from one degree longitude to next longitude?
(a) 4 minutes
(b) 15 minutes
(c) 10 minutes
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) 4 minutes


Question 14.
What is the time difference between the time of Dwarka in Gujarat and time of Dibrugarh in Assam?
(a) 2 hours
(b) 1 hour and 30 minutes
(c) hour and 45 minutes
(d) 5 hours and 30 minutes

Answer

Answer: (c) hour and 45 minutes


Question 15.
The local time of 82Q30’ E longitude is taken as a standard throughout India. It is known as
(a) local time of India
(b) Indian Standard Time (1ST)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Indian Standard Time (1ST)


Question 16.
The time of India is ahead of that of England by
(a) 2 hours
(b) 5 hours and 30 minutes
(c) 3 hours
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) 5 hours and 30 minutes


The Earth in the Solar System Class 6 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
How is the sky filled with after sunset and in the night?
(a) Bright objects
(b) Dim objects
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 2.
What is the name given to the full moon night?
(a) Amavasya
(b) Poornima
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Poornima


Question 3.
Which of the following name is given to the new moon?
(a) Poornima
(b) Amavasya
(c) Both (a) and ib)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Amavasya


Question 4.
What are celestial bodies?
(a) The sun
(b) The moon
(c) All the shining bodies in the sky
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 5.
The celestial bodies which have their own heat and light are called
(a) planets
(b) stars
(c) satellites
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (b) stars


Question 6.
Which is the most recognisable constellation?
(a) The saptarishi
(b) The moon
(c) The sun
(d) The mars

Answer

Answer: (a) The saptarishi


Question 7.
The star which indicates the north is called
(a) pole star
(b) pole
(c) north pole
(d) south pole

Answer

Answer: (a) pole star


Question 8.
The celestial bodies which do not have their own heat and light but are lit by the light of the stars are named as
(a) stars
(b) planets
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) planets


Question 9.
The word ‘planet’ has been derived from the word ‘planetai’ which is named as
(a) Latin word
(b) German word
(c) Greek word
(d) English word

Answer

Answer: (c) Greek word


Question 10.
Which celestial bodies form the solar system?
(a) The sun
(b) The planets
(c) The satellites, asteroids and meteoroids
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above


Question 11.
All the planets move around the sun in fixed elliptical path, these paths are called
(a) axis
(b) orbit
(e) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) orbit


Question 12.
Why is the shape of the earth geoid?
(a) It is slightly flattened at the poles
(b) It is spheroid at the poles
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) It is slightly flattened at the poles


Question 13.
The earth is called a unique planet due to
(a) neither too hot nor too cold
(b) presence of air and water
(c) oxygen, light supporting gas
(d) all of these

Answer

Answer: (d) all of these


Question 14.
The earth is called a blue planet because of the presence of
(a) water
(b) blue colour
(c) brown colour
(d) red colour

Answer

Answer: (a) water


Question 15.
Why do we see only one side of the moon from the earth?
(a) Because of moon moving around the earth in 27 days
(b) 27 days also taken in one spin
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 16.
Why does the moon not have conditions favourable for life?
(a) because of non existent of water
(b) because of non existent of air
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (c) both (a) and (b)


Question 17.
Apart from stars, planets and satellites, there are numerous bodies which also move around the sun, what are these called?
(a) Stars
(b) Asteroids
(c) Meteoroids
(d) Planets

Answer

Answer: (c) Meteoroids


Question 18.
Asteroids are found between the orbits of Jupiter and
(a) Mars
(b) Earth
(c) Venus
(d) Neptune

Answer

Answer: (a) Mars


Question 19.
Meteoroids are made up of
(a) dust
(b) pieces of rocks
(c) gases
(d) none of these

Answer

Answer: (b) pieces of rocks


Question 20.
What is called a cluster of millions of stars, shining white in the starry sky?
(a) Stars
(b) Planets
(c) Milky Way galaxy
(d) Satellites

Answer

Answer: (c) Milky Way galaxy


Question 21.
What makes the universe?
(a) Millions of galaxies
(b) Millions of stars
(c) Earth
(d) Satellites

Answer

Answer: (a) Millions of galaxies


MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 4 In the Earliest Cities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 History Chapter 4 In the Earliest Cities with Answers

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 4 In the Earliest Cities Free PDF Download is available here. MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History In the Earliest Cities are prepared as per the Latest Exam Pattern. Students can solve these Objective Questions of Class 6th Social Science History Ch 4 and assess their preparation level.

MCQ Questions for Class 6 Social Science History Chapter 4 In the Earliest Cities

Solving the Multiple Choice Questions of Class 6 Social Science History In the Earliest Cities can be of extreme help as you will be aware of all the concepts. These MCQ Questions on In the Earliest Cities pave for a quick revision of the Chapter thereby helping you to enhance subject knowledge. Have a glance at the Class 6 Social Science History In the Earliest Cities Multiple Choice Questions with Answers and cross check your answers during preparation.

Choose the correct answer:

1. Consider the following statements regarding the unique features of Harappan cities:
i. Citadeb were on the western side of the cities.
ii. Great Bath was built in the citadel area. Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

  • Many of Harappan cities were divided into two or more parts. Usually, the part to the west was smaller but higher. Archaeologists describe this as the citadel
  • Generally, the part to the east was larger but lower. This is called the lower town. Very often walls of baked brick were built around each part.
  • The bricks were so well baked that they have lasted for thousands of years. The bricks were laid in an interlocking pattern and that made the walls strong.
  • In some cities, special buildings were constructed on the citadel. For example, in Mohenjodaro, a very special tank, which archaeologists call the Great Bath, was built in this area.

2. Consider the following statements regarding the unique features of Harappan Town Planning:
i. Houses were single storeyed.
ii. Many of these cities had covered drains. Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

  • Houses were either one or two storeys high, with rooms built around a courtyard. Most houses had a separate bathing area, and some had wells to supply water.
  • Many of these cities had covered drains. Very often, drains in houses were connected to those on the streets and smaller drains led into bigger ones.
  • As the drains were covered, inspection holes were provided at intervals to clean them.
  • All three-houses, drains and streets were probably planned and built at the same time.

3. Consider the following statements :
i. Harappans were aware of cotton.
ii. Spindle whorls were not known to Harappans. Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a)
Explanation:

  • Cotton was probably grown at Mehrgarh about 7000 years ago. Actual pieces of cloth were found attached to the lid of a silver vase and some copper objects at Mohenjodaro.
  • Archaeologists have also found spindle whorls, made of terracotta and faience. These were used to spin thread.

4. Consider the following statements:
i. Copper: Iran ii. Tin: Oman
iii. Gold: Karnataka
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i and ii
(b) Only ii and iii
(c) Only iii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

  • The Harappans probably got copper from present-day Rajasthan, and even from Oman in West Asia.
  • Tin, which was mixed with copper to produce bronze, may have been brought from present day Afghanistan and Iran.
  • Gold could have come all the way from present-day Karnataka, and precious stones from present day Gujarat, Iran and Afghanistan.

5. Consider the following statements regarding the agricultural practice followed during Harappan period:
i. A new tool, the plough, was used to dig the earth for turning the soil and planting seeds.
ii. Harappans were aware of irrigation method. Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c)
Explanation:

  • A new tool, the plough, was used to dig the earth for turning the soil and planting seeds. While real ploughs, which were probably made of wood, have not survived, toy models have been found.
  • As this region does not receive heavy rainfall, some form of irrigation may have been used. This means that water was stored and supplied to the fields when the plants were growing.

6. The city of Dholavira was located on Khadir Beyt in the Rann of Kutch. Consider the following statements :
i. The city was divided into two parts.
ii. From here Harappan script was carved out of white stone and perhaps inlaid in wood.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

  • The city of Dholavira was located on Khadir Beyt (also spelled as Bet) in the Rann of Kutch, where there was fresh water and fertile soil.
  • Unlike some of the other Harappan cities, which were divided into two parts, Dholavira was divided into three parts, and each part was surrounded with massive stone walls, with entrances through gateways. There was also a large open area in the settlement, where public ceremonies could be held.
  • Other finds include large letters of the Harappan script that was carved out of white stone and perhaps inlaid in wood. This is a unique find as generally Harappan writing has been found on small objects such as seals.

7. Consider the following statements:
i. Lothal stood close to Rann of Kutch.
ii. This was an important centre for making objects out of stone, shell and metal.
Choose the correct option from the codes given below:
(a) Only i
(b) Only ii
(c) Both i and ii
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (b)
Explanation:

  • The city of Lothal stood beside a tributary of the Sabarmati, in Gujarat, close to the Gulf of Khambat.
  • It was situated near areas where raw materials such as semi-precious stones were easily available.
  • This was an important centre for making objects out of stone, shell and metal. There was also a store house in the city.
  • Many seals and sealings (the impression of seals on clay) were found in this storehouse.

8. When did Harappan cities develop?
(a) About 4,700 years ago
(b) About 3,700 years ago
(c) About 2,700 years ago
(d) About 1,700 years ago

Answer

Answer: (a) About 4,700 years ago


9. How many storeys of houses were generally found in Harappan cities?
(a) One or two storeys
(b) Four to five storeys
(c) Multi storeys
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) One or two storeys


10. Where did the crafts persons make the things in the earliest cities?
(a) In their own homes
(b) In special workshops
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


11. Which metal were the most of things found by the archaeologists made of?
(a) Stone
(b) Copper and gold
(c) Silver
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


12. What was the thing used to shape sand or powdered quartz into an object?
(a) Gum
(b) Ink
(c) Nails
(d) Rubber

Answer

Answer: (a) Gum


13. Which colours were used for glazed material resulting in a shiny object?
(a) Black and white
(b) Red and yellow
(c) Blue or sea green
(d) Pink or brown

Answer

Answer: (c) Blue or sea green


14. From where did the Harappans get copper?
(a) Mumbai
(b) Delhi
(c) Kerala
(d) Rajasthan

Answer

Answer: (d) Rajasthan


15. Who supplied food to craft persons, scribes and rulers in the cities?
(a) Local citizens
(b) Farmers and herders
(c) Post men
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Farmers and herders


16. How did the Harappans irrigate their fields and grow plants? Through
(a) rainfall
(b) stored water
(c) streams
(d) rivers

Answer

Answer: (b) stored water


17. From where did the boats and ships come into the sea and rivers?
(a) Ports
(b) Dockyards
(c) None of these
(d) Both (a) and (b)

Answer

Answer: (b) Dockyards


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MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 12 Open Economy Macroeconomics with Answers

Open Economy Macroeconomics Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Which one is a king of exchange rate ?
(a) Fixed Exchange Rate
(b) Flexible Exchange Rate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 2.
Which of the following is true ?
(a) Fixed exchange rate is determined by the government
(b) Flexible exchange rate is determined by market forces (demand and supply of foreign exchange)
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 3.
Which one is a kind of fixed exchange rate ?
(a) Gold Standard System of Exchange Rate
(b) Bretton Woods System of Exchange Rate
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 4.
Which one is a merit of fixed exchange rate ?
(a) Promotes Foreign Trade
(b) Induces Foreign Capital
(c) Increases Capital Formation
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 5.
Which one is a demerit of fixed exchange rate ?
(a) Ignores National Interests
(b) Restricted Movement of Capital
(c) Sudden Fluctuations in Exchange Rates
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 6.
Which one is a merit of flexible exchange rate ?
(a) Simple System
(b) Continuous Adjustments
(c) Improves Balance of Payments
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 7.
Which one is a demert of flexible exchange rate ?
(a) Bad Results of Low Rate
(b) Uncertainty
(c) Instability in Foreign Exchange
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 8.
Which one is a source of the demand of foreign exchange ?
(a) Imports of Goods and Services from Abroad
(b) Investment in Foreign Nations
(c) Gift Scheme to Foreign Nations
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 9.
Foreign exchange is determined by :
(a) Demand of foreign currency
(b) Supply of foreign currency
(c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market


Question 10.
The forms of foreign exchange market is/are :
(a) Spot market
(b) Forward market
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 11.
Foreign exchange rate is determined by :
(a) Government
(b) Bargaining
(c) World Bank
(d) Demand and Supply forces

Answer

Answer: (d) Demand and Supply forces


Question 12.
By exchange rate we mean :
(a) How much local currency we have to pay for a foreign currency
(b) How much of a foreign currency we have to pay for another foreign currency
(c) The rate at which foreign currency is bought and sold
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 13.
Balance of Trade = ?
(a) Export of Visible Items – Imports of Visible Items
(b) Export of both Visible and Invisible Items – Import of both Visible and Invisible Items
(c) Import of Visible Items – Export of Visible Items
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Export of Visible Items – Imports of Visible Items


Question 14.
Which items are included in Balance of Payments ?
(a) Visible Items
(b) Invisible Items
(c) Capital Transfers
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 15.
Which one is the visible item of Balance of Payments ?
(a) Machine
(b) Cloth
(c) Cement
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 16.
Which one is the invisible item of Balance of Payment ?
(a) Banking
(b) Shipping
(c) Communication
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 17.
Which one is the feature of Balance of Payment ?
(a) Systematic Accounts
(b) Fixed Time Period
(c) Comprehensiveness
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 18.
Which account is included in the composition of Balance of Payments ?
(a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 19.
Which one is the item of Current Account ?
(a) Import of Visible Items
(b) Expenses of Tourists
(c) Exports of Visible Items
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 20.
Which one is the item of Capital Account ?
(a) Government Transaction
(b) Priva Transactions
(c) Foreign Direct Investment
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 21.
The component(s) of Balance of Payment is/are:
(a) Current Account
(b) Capital Account
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 22.
Which items are included in balance of trade ?
(a) Invisible Item
(b) Capital Transfer
(c) Visible Item
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Visible Item


Question 23.
Balance of Trade means :
(a) Capital Transaction
(b) Import and export of goods
(c) Total debit and credit
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (b) Import and export of goods


Question 24.
The reason of imbalance in balance of payment is :
(a) Natural Reasons
(b) Economic Reasons
(c) Political Reasons
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 25.
Structure of balance of payment includes which account:
(a) Current account
(b) Capital account
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 26.
Balance of trade means :
(a) Capital transactions
(b)Import and export of goods,
(c) Total credit and debit
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (b)Import and export of goods,


Question 27.
Measures to improve adverse balance of payment includes :
(a) Currency devaluation
(b) Import substitution
(c) Exchange control
(d) All of the above.

Answer

Answer: (d) All of the above.


Question 28.
Foreign Exchange Rate is determined by :
(a) Demand of foreign currency
(b) Supply of foreign currency
(c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Demand and supply in foreign exchange market


Question 29.
Types of Foreign Exchange Market are :
(a) Spot market
(b) Forward market
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Fill in the blanks:

1. Bretton woods system is also known as ………………… border system.

Answer

Answer: Adaptable


2. There is ………………… relation between foreign exchange rate and the supply of foreign exchange.

Answer

Answer: Direct


3. By devaluation, the value of currency …………………

Answer

Answer: Reduces


4.  ………………… items are included in the balance of trade.

Answer

Answer: Visible


5. Balance of payment always remains …………………

Answer

Answer: Balanced


6. The value of currency of one country with that of the currency of another country is called …………………

Answer

Answer: Exchange rate


State true or false:

1. Balance of trade includes both visible and invisible items.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Balance of trade is a part of Balance of payments.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Devaluation is declared by the government.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Balance of payment is always balanced.

Answer

Answer: True


5. For export promotion, help of devaluation is taken.

Answer

Answer: True


6. The increasing population in developing countries has direct impact on economic growth.

Answer

Answer: False


7. Export promotion is one of the ways of correcting Balance of payments.

Answer

Answer: False


Match the following:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Balance of payments (a) Always favourable
2. Balance of Trade includes (b) Both visible and invisible items
3. India’s Balance of payments (c) Includes only visible items
4. Determination of flexible exchange rate (d) Foreign banks issue letter of credit in large demand over banks of the country
5. In favour of foreign exchange rate (e) Forces of demand and supply in foreign exchange markets.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Balance of payments (b) Both visible and invisible items
2. Balance of Trade includes (c) Includes only visible items
3. India’s Balance of payments (a) Always favourable
4. Determination of flexible exchange rate (e) Forces of demand and supply in foreign exchange markets.
5. In favour of foreign exchange rate (d) Foreign banks issue letter of credit in large demand over banks of the country

MCQ Questions for Class 12 Economics Chapter 11 Government Budget and the Economy with Answers

Government Budget and the Economy Class 12 MCQs Questions with Answers

Question 1.
Financial Year in India is :
(a) April I to March 31
(b) January 1 to December 31
(c) October 1 to September 30
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) April I to March 31


Question 2.
Which objectives government attempts to obtain by Budget
(a) To Promote Economic Development
(b) Balanced Regional Development
(c) Redistribution of Income and Wealth
(d) All the above

Answer

Answer: (d) All the above


Question 3.
Which is a component of Budget ?
(a) Budget Receipts
(b) Budget Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 4.
Which is a component of Budget Receipt ?
(a) Revenue Receipt
(b) Capital Receipt
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 5.
Tax revenue of the Government includes :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Corporate Tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 6.
Which is included in the Direct Tax ?
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Excise Duty

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 7.
Which is included in Indirect Tax ?
(a) Excise Duty
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Wealth Tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 8.
The expenditures which do not create assets for the government is called :
(a) Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Revenue Expenditure


Question 9.
Direct tax is :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 10.
In India one rupee note is issued by :
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Ministry of Government of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Finance Ministry of Government of India


Question 11.
Capital budget consist of:
(a) Revenue Receipts and Revenue Expenditure
(b) Capital Receipts and Capital Expenditure
(c) Direct and Indirect Tax
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (b) Capital Receipts and Capital Expenditure


Question 12.
Which of the following is an indirect tax ?
(a) Excise Duty
(b) Sales Tax
(c) Custom Duty
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 13.
Which type of expenditure is made in bridge construction ?
(a) Capital Expenditure
(b) Revenue Expenditure
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) None of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Capital Expenditure


Question 14.
Which of the following budget is suitable for development economies ?
(a) Deficit Budget
(b) Balanced Budget
(c) Surplus Budget
(d) None of these

Answer

Answer: (a) Deficit Budget


Question 15.
What is the duration of a Budget ?
(a) Annual
(b) Two Years
(c) Five Years
(d) Ten Years

Answer

Answer: (a) Annual


Question 16.
Which of the following is included in fiscal policy ?
(a) Public Expenditure
(b) Tax
(c) Public Debt
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 17.
Which of the following is capital expenditure of the government ?
(a) Interest Payment
(b) Purchase of House
(c) Expenses on Machinery
(d) All of the above

Answer

Answer: (a) Interest Payment


Question 18.
Budget may include :
(a) Revenue Deficit
(b) Fiscal Deficit
(c) Primary Deficit
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 19.
Which of the following statement is true ?
(a) Fiscal deficit is the difference between total expenditure and total receipts
(b) Primary deficit is the difference between total receipt and interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit is the sum of primary deficit and interest payment
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (c) Fiscal deficit is the sum of primary deficit and interest payment


Question 20.
Budget:
(a) is a description of income-expenditure of government
(b) is a document of economic policy of government
(c) is a description of non-programmes of the government
(d) All of these

Answer

Answer: (d) All of these


Question 21.
In an unbalanced budget:
(a) Income is greater than expenditure
(b) Expenditure is higher relative to income
(c) Deficit is covered by loans or printing of notes
(d) Only (b) and (c)

Answer

Answer: (d) Only (b) and (c)


Question 22.
Which is included in indirect tax ?
(a) Income tax
(b) Wealth tax
(c) Excise Duty
(d) Gift tax

Answer

Answer: (c) Excise Duty


Question 23.
Which one of the following is a pair of direct tax ?
(a) Excise duty and Wealth Tax
(b) Service Tax and Income Tax
(c) Excise Duty and Service Tax
(d) Wealth Tax and Income Tax

Answer

Answer: (d) Wealth Tax and Income Tax


Question 24.
Which of the following is not a revenue receipt ?
(a) Recovery of Loans
(b) Foreign Grants
(c) Profits of Public Enterprise
(d) Wealth Tax

Answer

Answer: (a) Recovery of Loans


Question 25.
Which of the following is a correct measure of primary deficit ?
(a) Fiscal deficit minus revenue deficit
(b) Revenue deficit minus interest payments
(c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments
(d) Capital expenditure minus revenue expenditure

Answer

Answer: (c) Fiscal deficit minus interest payments


Question 26.
The duration of Government budget is :
(a) 5 years
(b) 2 years
(c) 1 year
(d) 10 years.

Answer

Answer: (c) 1 year


Question 27.
Budget is presented in the Parliament by :
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Defence Minister.

Answer

Answer: (c) Finance Minister


Question 28.
Budget speech in Lok Sabha is given by :
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Finance Minister
(d) Home Minister.

Answer

Answer: (c) Finance Minister


Question 29.
Professional tax is imposed by :
(a) Central Government
(b) State Government
(c) Municipal Corporation
(d) Gram Panchayat.

Answer

Answer: (b) State Government


Question 30.
From the following which is included in the direct tax :
(a) Income Tax
(b) Gift Tax
(c) Both (a) and (b)
(d) Excise Tax.

Answer

Answer: (c) Both (a) and (b)


Question 31.
Who issues 1 rupee note in India :
(a) Reserve Bank of India
(b) Finance Ministry of India
(c) State Bank of India
(d) None of these.

Answer

Answer: (b) Finance Ministry of India


Fill in the blanks:

1. …………………… is a document containing income and expenditure of the government.

Answer

Answer: Budget


2. Income tax is …………………… tax.

Answer

Answer: Direct


3. …………………… tax is levied on the value of the goods.

Answer

Answer: Advalorem


4. Service tax is levied by the ……………………

Answer

Answer: Central


5. ………… budget is considered good for the country.

Answer

Answer: Deficit


6. Finance bill contains …………………… proposals.

Answer

Answer: Tax


7. Government budget is presented on the last day of ……………………

Answer

Answer: February


State true or false :

1. Deficit budget is not considered as a good budget.

Answer

Answer: False


2. Electricity tax is levied by the State Government.

Answer

Answer: True


3. Budget speech is given by the Finance Minister.

Answer

Answer: True


4. Central excise duty is direct tax.

Answer

Answer: False


5. Interest payment is a planned item.

Answer

Answer: False


6. During deflation surplus budget is made.

Answer

Answer: True


7. Rail budget is generally not included in the annual budget.

Answer

Answer: True


Match the following

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Income and expenditure of the government (a) 31 March
2. First of all finance bill is presented in the (b) Budget
3. Budget is presented on (c) Details about income and expenditure
4. Aim or Objective of the budget (d) Lok sabha
5. Main feature of the budget (e) Economic development.
Answer

Answer:

‘A’ ‘B’
1. Income and expenditure of the government (b) Budget
2. First of all finance bill is presented in the (d) Lok sabha
3. Budget is presented on (a) 31 March
4. Aim or Objective of the budget (e) Economic development.
5. Main feature of the budget (c) Details about income and expenditure